Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Scleroderma is characterized by what 3 interrelated processes?

Another name for scleroderma?

A

systemic sclerosis

  1. Autoimmune-mediated inflammatory vasculitis
  2. Fibrosis of skin and internal organs from abnormal deposition of extracellular collagen
  3. Microvascular changes produce tissue fibrosis and organ sclerosis
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2
Q

T/F
Vascular structures do not regenerate

A

True

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3
Q

What are the 3 main forms of scleroderma?

A

Localized
Limited cutaneous
Diffuse cutaneous

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4
Q

Describe localized scleroderma

A

Involvement of the skin of the face, trunk, and distal limbs

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5
Q

Describe limited cutaneous scleroderma

A

Usually a combination of scleroderma features; CREST syndrome

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6
Q

Describe diffuse cutaneous scleroderma

A

Rapidly progressive disease, with generalized skin involvement and cardiovascular complications with vascular involvement, coronary artery disease, cardiomyopathy, and hypertension

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7
Q

Scleroderma is what type of disease?

A

Autoimmune

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8
Q

Why is it important to understand that autoimmune diseases follow the same patterns (meaning a lot of pts might have multiple)?

A

Polypharmacy, long term opiods

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9
Q

What is CREST an acronym for?
What does it stand for?

A

All symptoms of scleroderma

C: Calcinosis
R: Raynaud’s
E: Esophageal dysfunction
S: Sclerodactylyl
T: Telangiectasias

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10
Q

What is CREST syndrome?

A

Vascular endothelial cell injury results in widespread capillary loss and vascular obliteration and leakage of serum proteins into the interstitial space
- Tissue edema, lymphatic obstruction, and fibrosis

poor prognosis d/t extent of visceral involvement (the kidney, the lung, the heart and the gastro-intestinal tract)

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11
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the skin

A

mild thickening and diffuse non-pitting edema
taut skin
calcium deposits

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12
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the MS system

A

Limited mobility/contractures (taut skin) skeletal muscle myopathy (weakness, proximal skeletal muscles)
plasma CK increased
mild inflammatory arthritis

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13
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the nervous system

A

Nerve compression
trigeminal neuralgia (facial pain)
keratoconjunctivitis sicca (dry, red eyes)

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14
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the CV system

A

Systemic and pulmonary HTN
dysrhythmias
cardiac conduction abnormalities
CHF
pericarditis
pericardial effusion w/ or w/o cardiac tamponade
vasospasm in small arteries of fingers

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15
Q

Where is the nerve compression usually in scleroderma?

A

Distally (i.e radial, ulnar)

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16
Q

S/S of pulmonary HTN

A

Venous distention (JVD)
pulmonary edema on chest xray
dilated RV

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17
Q

Management of pulmonary HTN

A
  • Keep them euvolemic or a little dry
  • Use flo-lan or sildenafil
  • Slow induction! Take your time. See how they react hemodynamically to meds.
  • Can also sedate these patients first then start volatile anesthetics
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18
Q

Induction DOC for pulmonary HTN

A

Etomidate

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19
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the pulm. system

A

Diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis arterial hypoxemia
decreased pulmonary compliance

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20
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the renal system

A

Decreased renal blood flow and systemic HTN

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21
Q

Renal crisis is precipitated by _______ and the treatment is _______

A

Corticosteroids
Ace inhibitors

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22
Q

Scleroderma S/S of the GI system

A

Xerostomia
poor dentition
fibrosis of GI tract (esophageal and small intestine hypomotility)
dysphagia
reflux
malabsorption syndrome
coagulation disorders
pseudo-obstruction

**reglan/metoclopramide does not work

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23
Q

What does renal crisis by steroids look like?

A

dryness of the oral mucosa
malabsorption syndrome - small intestine bacteria overgrowth (broad spectrum ABX)
vitamin k malabsorption,
pseudo-obstruction (intestine hypomotility)

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24
Q

Scleroderma treatment includes:

A

PPIs (reflux)
CCB
Ace inhibitors (renal crisis)
Arbs

For pulm. HTN:
Prostacyclins
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
Oxygen
Antiocoagulation
Diuretics

Digoxin (improve CO)

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25
Q

_____ such as ______ are effective in improving small intestine hypomotility, whereas prokinetic drugs such as metoclopramide are not.

A

Somatostatin analogues
Ocreatide

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26
Q

If someone who takes ACE/ARBS are hypotensive in OR, what is the DOC?

A

Vasopressin

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27
Q

Scleroderma anesthesia management of the airway

A

Mandibular motion, small mouth opening, neck ROM, oral bleeding

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28
Q

Scleroderma anesthesia management of the CV system

A

IV/arterial line access
- may be difficult d/t contracted intravascular volume
- may want to do femoral line instead

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29
Q

Scleroderma anesthesia management of the pulm. system

A

Decreased pulmonary compliance and reserve, avoid increasing PVR

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30
Q

Scleroderma anesthesia management of the GI. system

A

Aspiration
- Give PPIs, H2 blockers

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31
Q

Scleroderma anesthesia management of the eyes

A

Corneal abrasions

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32
Q

Other considerations for scleroderma anesthesia management:

A

Regional anesthesia (want to avoid intubation)
Keep warm
VTE prophylaxis
Positioning: increased risk of motor/nerve injury
Pulse ox difficulties

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33
Q

VTE is how much more common in scleroderma pts?

A

3 times

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34
Q

Treat oral bleeding in scleroderma pts with:

A

Phenylephrine spray
Gauze in phenylephrine or vasopressin
TXA
Vit. K
Calcium

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35
Q

Ways to keep pts warm in OR

A

Bair hugger
warm fluids
blankets
turn up the air

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36
Q

What are the VTE prophylaxis methods?

A

Mechanical
- SCD: sizing can be problematic
- Walking

Chemical: 5000 units sub-q heparin on the morning of sx

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37
Q

A lot of the scleroderma pts will be on steroids so we need to give:

A

100 of hydrocortisone every 6-8 hours

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38
Q

What is the most common and most severe form of childhood progressive muscular dystrophy?

A

Pseudohypertrophic muscular dystrophy

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39
Q

______ is a large protein that plays a major role in stabilization of the muscle membrane and signaling between the cytoskeleton and extracellular matrix.

A

Dystrophin

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40
Q

muscular dystrophy is caused by:

A

a mutation in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome (X-linked recessive trait)

Fatty infiltration = pseudohypertrophic

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41
Q

Initial symptoms of muscular dystrophy:

A

waddling gait, frequent falling, difficulty climbing stairs

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42
Q

In MD pts, death usually occurs at _____ due to ______

A

20-25 years
CHF or pneumonia

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43
Q

MD pts are usually wheelchair bound by _____ years old

A

8-10

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44
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a ______ disorder and starts in _____

A

Progressive
Childhood

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45
Q

DMD occurs more in young ____ than young _____

A

Boys
Girls

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46
Q

CNS s/s of Pseudohypertrophy Muscular Dystrophy

A

Intellectual disability

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47
Q

MS s/s of Pseudohypertrophy Muscular Dystrophy

A

Kyphoscoliosis
skeletal muscle atrophy: can lead to long bone fractures
serum CK 20-100x normal (increased permeability of skeletal muscle membranes and skeletal muscle necrosis)

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48
Q

CV s/s of Pseudohypertrophy Muscular Dystrophy

A

Sinus tachycardia
cardiomyopathy
EKG abnormalities
Short PR interval
V1 – tall R waves
Limb leads – deep Q waves

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49
Q

Pulm. s/s of Pseudohypertrophy Muscular Dystrophy

A

weakened respiratory muscles and cough
loss of pulmonary reserve and increased secretions (pneumonia)
OSA
pulmonary HTN

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50
Q

What percent of deaths in PMD pts occur for pulm. reasons?

A

30%

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51
Q

PMD anesthesia mangement by systems

A

Airway: weak laryngeal reflexes and cough (avoid neuromuscular blockers)
Pulmonary: weakened muscles, increased secretions
CV: Pre-op EKG and/or echo based on severity
GI: Delayed gastric emptying

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52
Q

Pts with PMD can be on ventilatory support post op for ____

A

36 hours

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53
Q

General PMD anesthesia management

A
  • Avoid succinylcholine
  • Pharyngeal and respiratory muscle weakness
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • MH – increased incidence (use Dantrolene)
  • Regional > GA
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54
Q

If you use succs in a PMD pt, they are at risk for:

A

Rhabdo
Hyperkalemia
MH
Cardiac arrest (VF)

55
Q

Triggers of malignant hyperthemia

A

Succs
Volatiles

56
Q

What is your short term sedation option for MD pts?

A

Ketamine, precedex (prefer ketamine first)

57
Q

MG is characterized by _____ and ______

what type of disorder is it?

A

Exacerbations
Remissions

Autoimmune

58
Q

Define myasthenia graves

A

Decrease in functional post-synaptic ACh receptors at the neuromuscular junction d/t destruction or inactivation by circulating antibodies
- postsynaptic α subunit of muscle-type acetylcholine receptors
- 80% of receptors can be lost

59
Q

MG is muscle weakness without _____, _______, or ____ dysfunction

A

Peripheral
Central
Autonomic

60
Q

Describe muscle specific kinase antibodies (MuSK)

A

a tyrosine kinase specifically present at the neuromuscular junction and crucial in the formation and maintenance of the postsynaptic membrane
- Loss of ACh receptors and a change in the structure of the post-synaptic folds
- No thymic involvement

61
Q

Describe the different classifications of MG

*Per Cornelius, only have to know 1 and 4)

A

Type 1: limited to involvement of the extra ocular muscles
- if confined to the yes for 2 years, unlikely disease progression

Type 4: severe form of skeletal muscle weakness

62
Q

MG s/s

A
  • Ptosis, diplopia, and dysphagia – initial
  • Ocular, pharyngeal, and laryngeal muscle involvement
  • Dysarthria
  • Pulmonary: isolated respiratory failure; occasional presenting manifestation
  • MS: Arm, leg, or trunk muscle weakness; asymmetric
  • CV: Myocarditis – A Fib, heart block, or cardiomyopathy
63
Q

Autoimmune diseases associated with MG:

A

RA
SLE
Pernicious anemia
Hyperthyroidism

64
Q

what percent of MG patients present with ptosis and/or diplopia?

65
Q

T/F
Skeletal muscles innervated by cranial nerves (which ones?) are especially vulnerable with MG pts

A

True

Ocular, pharyngeal, largyngeal

66
Q

Difference in myasthenia crisis vs cholinergic crisis

A

Myasthenic crisis
- Drug resistance or insufficient drug therapy
- S/S: severe muscle weakness and respiratory failure

Cholinergic crisis
- Excessive anticholinesterase treatment
- S/S: muscarinic side effects – profound muscle weakness, salivation, miosis, bradycardia, diarrhea, abdominal pain

67
Q

What is the edrophonium/tensilon test?

A

1-2 mg IVP of edrophonium
- Improves myasthenic crisis, makes cholinergic crisis worse

68
Q

Common meds that we give that has cholinergic effects

A

Atropine
Scopolamine
Robinul
Serotonin inhibitors
zofran
phenergan

69
Q

First line of treatment for MG?

What does it do?

A

Anticholinesterases
- inhibits Cholinesterase which are responsible for breakdown of acetylcholine and increases the amount of ACh available at the neuromuscular junction

70
Q

Do we prefer pyridostigmine or neostigmine? Why?

What is the max dose?

A

Lasts longer, less side effects

Max dose: 120 mg Q3 H

71
Q

Thmectomy induces _____ and allows for reduced use of _______.

It specifically reduces _________

A

Remission
Immunosuppressive medications

ACh receptor antibody levels post procedure

72
Q

What are other treatment options for MG?

A

Immunosuppression
- Corticosteroids, azathioprine, cyclosporine, mycophenolate

Immunotherapy
- Plasmapheresis: removes antibodies from circulation
- Immunoglobulin: temporary effect

73
Q

Repeated treatment of plasmapheresis increases risk of:

A

infection, hypotension, and pulmonary embolism

74
Q

MG anesthesia management considerations:

A
  • Aspiration risk
  • Weakened pulmonary effort
  • Marked sensitivity to nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
  • Resistance to succinylcholine
  • Intermediate-acting muscle relaxant
  • Intubate without NMBD
75
Q

Other meds we can give to MG pts that have the same effects w/o depolarization:

A

Remifentanil in high doses
- use if need high neuromuscular blockade

76
Q

Why do MG pts have a resistance to succs?

A

pyridostigmine inhibits true cholinesterase and impairs plasma cholinesterase

77
Q

What is the most common join disease and a major cause of disability?

Explain it

A

Osteoarthritis

Degenerative process that affects articular cartilage w/ minimal inflammatory reaction in the joints

78
Q

Joint trauma can include:

A

Biomechanical stresses
Joint injury
Abnormal joint loading
Neuropathy
Ligament injury
Muscle atrophy
Obesity

79
Q

Osteoarthritis pain is present with ___ and relieved by ______.
However, you can see stiffness in the _____

A

Motion
Rest

Morning

80
Q

Where are the most common places to see OA?

A

Knees, hips, shoulders

81
Q

Causes of OA

A

Repetitive mechanical stress/overuse
Genetics
Obesity
Occupations with a lot of physical labor

82
Q

Herberden nodes:

A

Distal interphalangeal joints
- red marks on the ends of fingers

83
Q

In OA of the vertebral bodies/discs, there is protrusion and compression of what?

A

Protrusion:
- nucleus pulposus

Compression:
- nerve roots

84
Q

OA treatment

A

PT and exercise
Maintaining muscle function
Pain relief: no opiods
Joint replacement surgery
Stem cell therapy
PRP

85
Q

OA anesthesia management considerations

A

Airway
Limited ROM

  • pre op eval should document the extent of limitation (particularly in c-spine), baseline severity of pain, all pain mangement interventions
86
Q

RA is _____ mediated and is a _______ disease

A

autoimmune
Systemic inflammatory

87
Q

RA is _____ x higher in women than men

88
Q

RA includes involvement of what joints in the hands and feet?

A

proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal joint

89
Q

Rheumatoid factor is present in ____% of pts

90
Q

RA usually affects the ____ and ____

91
Q

Describe fusiform swelling

A

typical when involvement of the proximal interphalangeal joints

  • Swollen distal interphalangeal joints
  • As it progresses, they may not be able to use hands – may have mobility assist devices
92
Q

RA onset is ____ and involves _____/_____ joints

A

acute
single/multiple

93
Q

S/S of RA

**this card is stupid long too, I’m sorry lol*

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation
- Odontoid process protrudes into the foramen magnum
- Pressure on the spinal cord or impairs vertebral artery blood flow

Cricoarytenoid arthritis
- Acute – hoarseness, dyspnea, and stridor w/ tenderness over the larynx; swelling and redness of arytenoids
- Chronic – asymptomatic or variable degrees of hoarseness, dyspnea, and upper airway obstruction

Osteoporosis

NM: Weakened skeletal muscles
Peripheral neuropathies

CV: Pericarditis, accelerated coronary atherosclerosis
Pulmonary: Restrictive lung changes, pleural effusion
Hematology: Anemia, neutropenia, elevated platelets
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and xerostomia (manifestations of Sjogren syndrome)

94
Q

RA coincides with:

A

trauma, surgery, childbirth, or exposure to temperature extremes

95
Q

What is synovial inflammation?

A

Big joints

96
Q

What is the difference with how symptoms progress with RA vs OA?

A

RA tends to feel the worst in the morning
OA gets worse throughout the day

97
Q

With atlantoaxial subluxation, what is usually the distance of the anterior margin of the odontoid process from the posterior margin?

98
Q

With atlantoaxial subluxation, think:

A

RA
Down syndrome

99
Q

Why do we care about atlatnoaxial subluxation?

A

Spinal cord goes through foramen magnum
- When head is rotated, the odontoid process will put pressure on the vertebral arteries and this can cause stroke like symptoms

100
Q

Most common cause of atlanto-occipital instability is:

A

Bone issues in c-spine at the atlas/axis bone

101
Q

RA treatment

A

Relieve pain, preserve joint function and strength, prevent deformities, and attenuate systemic complications
- Drug therapy, PT, OT, and/or orthopedic surgery

102
Q

Drug therapy for RA

A

NSAIDS
- Use with DMARDs
* Decrease joint swelling, relieve stiffness, provide analgesia
- COX-1 inhibitors – s/e: GI irritation and platelet inhibition; decrease renal blood flow and GFR
- COX-2 inhibitors – s/e: fewer GI side effects and do not interfere with platelet function; decrease renal blood flow and GFR
* Increase risk of CVA and CAD

Corticosteroids
- Decrease joint swelling, pain, and morning stiffness
- Bridge therapy while DMARDs are starting to work
- Dosages >10 mg/day maybe needed to treat vasculitis
- S/E: osteoporosis, osteonecrosis, susceptibility to infection, myopathy, hyperglycemia, and poor wound healing

103
Q

______ inhibitors and ______ inhibitors are more effective then DMARDS but _____ onset

A

TNF
IL-1

Slower

104
Q

It takes ______ months to achieve effects with DMARDS on RA

105
Q

S/E of DMARDS

A

risk of bone marrow suppression and cirrhosis; monitor hematologic parameters and liver function tests
Folic acid can reduce methotrexate toxicity

106
Q

S/E of TNF alpha inhibitors

A

toxicities – infection (TB) and demyelinating syndromes

107
Q

RA anesthesia management considerations:

A

Airway → what we worry about:
- Atlantoaxial subluxation
- TMJ limitation: May not be able to open mouth enough for us to look at airway
-Cricoarytenoid joints

Severe rheumatoid lung disease

Protect eyes

Stress dose steroids will be needed for these patients

108
Q

Lupus is usually present in _____ women, ages _____ years.

A

African American
15-40

109
Q

Typical manifestations of SLE

A

Antinuclear antibodies
Characteristic malar rash
Thrombocytopenia
Serositis
Nephritis

110
Q

Describe SLE

A

A multisystem chronic inflammatory disease characterized by antinuclear antibody production
- Antibodies in 95% of pts

111
Q

SLE manifestations are a result from:

A
  • Tissue damage from vasculopathy mediated by immune complexes
  • Direct result of antibodies to cell surface molecules or serum components
112
Q

Onset of SLE can be drug induced by which drugs?

What are the mild symptoms associated?

A

procainamide, hydralazine

arthralgias, a maculopapular rash, fever, anemia, and leukopenia

113
Q

SLE can be exacerbated by:

A

infection, pregnancy, and surgery

114
Q

What syndrome is common with SLE?

What is it?

A

HELLP

a serious complication of pregnancy that can occur in women who have preeclampsia. HELLP stands for Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets.

115
Q

What is a maculopapular rash?

A

Discoid lupus lesions, which are thick and disk-shaped. They often appear on the scalp or face and can cause permanent scarring. They may be red and scaly, but they do not cause pain or itching.

116
Q

S/S of SLE

A

Polyarthritis and dermatitis

Symmetrical arthritis
- No spinal involvement
- Avascular necrosis of femoral head or condyle

CNS: Cognitive dysfunction, psychological changes

CV: Pericarditis (most common), coronary atherosclerosis, Raynaud’s

Pulmonary: Lupus pneumonia, restrictive lung disease, vanishing lung syndrome (decreased lung volumes, elevated diaphragm)

Renal: Glomerulonephritis, decreased GFR

GI/Liver: ABD pain, pancreatitis, elevated liver enzymes

NM: Skeletal muscle weakness

Hematology: Thromboembolism, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia

Skin: Butterfly-shaped malar rash, discoid lesions, alopecia

117
Q

in SLE, CNS problems can be related to:

A

vasculitis and fluid/electrolyte imbalances, fever, HTN, uremia, infection, and drug-induced effects

118
Q

Pericarditis S/S

A

chest pain, friction rub, ECG changes, pericardial effusion

119
Q

Death during the course of SLE may be due to:

A

Coronary atherosclerosis

120
Q

Deep sulcus sign:

A

large volume of air in pleura, shoves diaphragm down

121
Q

SLE management:

A

NSAIDS or ASA
Anti-malarial (dermatologic) – initial treatment
- Most common: Hydroxychloroquine
- others: quinacrine
Corticosteroids
Immunosuppressants
- Methotrexate, azathioprine
- Starts with methotrexate

122
Q

SLE anesthesia management

A

Based upon manifestations and organ dysfunction
- Get CBC, BMP, ECG
Airway: recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, cricoarytenoid arthritis
- upper airway obstruction
Stress dose of corticosteroids

123
Q

If you have recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, how does this present?

What about bilateral laryngeal nerve palsy?

A

Difficulty talking, stridor

Difficulty breathing

124
Q

MH is a _____ syndrome.
Describe MH:

A

Hypermetabolic, genetic mutation

The increased activity of pumps and exchangers trying to correct the increase in sarcoplasmic Ca2+ associated with triggered MH increases the need for ATP, which in turn produces heat
It is the sustained high levels of sarcoplasmic Ca2+ that rapidly drives skeletal muscle into a hypermetabolic state that may proceed to severe rhabdomyolysis.

125
Q

MH non-triggering agents

126
Q

S/S of MH

A

Elevated end-tidal CO2
Tachypnea and/or tachycardia
Generalized muscle rigidity
Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

127
Q

How do differentiate between someone biting on the ETT and possibly having massager muscle spasm from MH?

A

You may think sedation is light if airway pressure is high, so you give more sedation, but peak pressure will stay up if MH

If increased peak pressures, will think tube is kinked off.. But co2 would also go up … need to differentiate between simply kinked ETT or MH

128
Q

MH treatment:

A

D/C all triggering gas/drugs

Hyperventilate with 100% O2 at 10 L/min

Change breathing circuit and soda lime

Dantrolene
- 20 mg + 3 G mannitol
*Mix with 60 mL sterile water
- Initial dose 2.5 mg/kg→ continue to redose until 10
- Max upper limit 10 mg/kg

Treat arrythmias

Monitor urine output

Cool the patient
- gastric lavage, cold compress, arctic sun

129
Q

Why is dantrolene an effective treatment for MH?

A

it reduces the concentration of sarcoplasmic Ca2+ to below contractile threshold.

130
Q

MH diagnosis relies on what?

A

the caffeine–halothane contracture test, measuring contraction forces upon exposure of muscle to caffeine or halothane

131
Q

What other med is present in the dantrolene vial?

132
Q

What is the purpose of soda lime?

A

absorbs co2 but leaves oxygen – it can be exposed to volatile agent or even absorb it – so it can release it as well

133
Q

MH post op considerations

A

Transfer to ICU 24-48 hours

Report to MH registry
www.mhaus.org
1-800-MH-HYPER (644-9737)

MH testing for pt and family members
- Muscle biopsy contracture testing
- Halothane plus caffeine contracture test