Ischemic Heart Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two most important risk factors for the development of atherosclerosis involving the coronary arteries?

A

Male gender
Increasing age

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2
Q

____% of our surgical pts are at increased risk for IHD

A

30

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3
Q

What are the common manifestations for IHD?

A

Angina pectoris
Acute MI
Sudden Death

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4
Q

What is the full list of risk factors for IHD?

A

Male gender
Increasing age
Hypercholesterolemia
Hypertension
Smoking
Diabetes
Obesity
Sedentary lifestyle
Genetic factors/family history

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5
Q

Things that cause sudden cardiac death

A

CAD
Overdose
Cardiomyopathy

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6
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A

Imbalance between coronary blood flow (supply) and myocardial oxygen consumption (demand)

Can precipitate ischemia, which frequently manifests as chest pain

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7
Q

Release of what 2 cardiac nociceptors occurs in angina?

A

Adenosine
Bradykinin

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8
Q

Stable angina typical develops in the setting of _______ or significant (what percent?) ________ of a segment of coronary artery

A

Partial occlusion
Chronic narrowing (>70%)

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9
Q

With adenosine and bradykinin, the afferent neurons converge with the upper __________ and _________ in the spinal cord

A

5 thoracic sympathetic ganglia
Somatic nerve fibers

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10
Q

After the afferent neurons converge, they produce what type of stimulation? What does this result in?

A

Thalamic and cortical stimulation
Chest pain of angina pectoris

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11
Q

What does bradykinin and adenosine slow?
What do they decrease?

A

AV conduction
Cardiac contractility

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12
Q

What is the most common cause of impaired coronary blood flow resulting in angina pectoris?

A

Atherosclerosis

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13
Q

Angina pectoris may also occur in the absence of coronary obstruction, as a result of what 3 things?

A

myocardial hypertrophy
severe aortic stenosis
aortic regurgitation

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14
Q

What are causes of decreased coronary blood flow?

A

Reduction in lumen size
clot/plaque in vessel
decrease in BP (anesthesia can cause this)

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15
Q

With angina pectoris, we don’t really worry about the chest pain, but we worry about:

A

The decrease in cardiac contractility and decreased AV conduction

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of angina?

A

Retrosternal chest pain, pressure, heaviness (from C8 to T4)

Radiates to neck, left shoulder, left arm, or jaw
- Occasionally to back or down both arms

Shortness of breath, dyspnea

Lasts several minutes

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17
Q

What other factors can induce angina?

A

Physical exertion
Emotional tension
Cold weather

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17
Q

What two pt populations have a weird presentation of chest pain?

A

Women
Diabetics

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18
Q

Other causes of chest pain?
How do differentiate?

A
  • GERD: give GI cocktail
  • Musculoskeletal: if you touch it and it hurts, it’s MS
  • Pericarditis: WBC elevated, ST elevation in all leads
    -PE: gold standard is CT angio, ABGs
  • AAA dissection: tearing pain in back and chest (if aortic root is involved, more chest than back pain)
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19
Q

How does a saddle PE present?

A

o2 levels low
syncope
confused
air hungry
may be combative
demarcation line on chest b/c one side of body is oxygenated and the other is not

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20
Q

Chronic stable vs unstable angina?

A

Chronic:
- Chest pain that does NOT change in frequency or severity in 2-month period

Unstable:
- Chest pain increasing in frequency and/or severity without increase in cardiac biomarkers (troponin, cp-k)
- If elevated cardiac biomarkers but no EKG changes, then probably NSTEMI
- typically lasts >10 minutes

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21
Q

Chest pain differential chart:

What are the most dangerous ones we would treat first?

A

Aortic dissection, PE, MI

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22
Q

Pneumothorax causes:

A

Trauma
Spontaneous

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23
Q

Diagnostic tools for chest pain:

Which one is the gold standard?

A

12 lead EKG
Exercise stress test
Nuclear stress imaging
Echo
Coronary angiography (gold standard)

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24
Q

When is an echo useful?

A

Pts with a LBBB or an abnormal EKG in whom the diagnosis of AMI is uncertain

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25
Q

You will see what type of abnormality on an echo in pts with an AMI?

A

Regional wall motion

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26
Q

How fast does a troponin jump in an MI? How long is it elevated for?

A

3-4 hours
up to 2 weeks

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27
Q

What type of EKG change is a characteristic of subendocardial ischemia?

What else may accompany this?

A

ST segment depression

transient T wave inversion

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28
Q

Pts with chronically inverted _____ waves resulting from previous MI may show a return of the _____ waves to normal upright position during MI.

What is this called

A

T waves (for both blanks)

Pseudonormalization of the T wave

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29
Q

What is an exercise stress test useful for?

A

Detecting signs of myocardial ischemia and establishing their relationship to chest pain and determining the relationship to exercise capacity

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30
Q

Exercise testing if often combined with what imaging studies?

A

Nuclear
Echo
MRI

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31
Q

Why is exercise testing not always feasible?

A

Inability of the pt to exercise, d/t peripheral vascular or MS disease, deconditioning, dyspnea on exertion, prior stroke, or the presence of chest pain at rest or with minimal activity

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32
Q

The _____ the degree of ST segment depression, the _____ the likelihood of significant CAD

A

Greater (for both)

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33
Q

At least ___ mm of horizontal or downscoping ST segment depression during or within ___ minutes after exercise indicates CAD

A

1 mm
4 min

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34
Q

What is the overall sensitivity of the exercise test?

A

around 75%

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35
Q

What test has a greater sensitivity than exercise testing for detection of IHD?

A

Nuclear stress imaging

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36
Q

During a nuclear stress test, what will cause tracer activity to be LESS present?

A

A significant coronary obstructive lesion causing a reduction in blood flow

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37
Q

What are the tracers in a nuclear stress test made of?

A

Thallium
Technetium

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38
Q

What is the most important indicator of the significance of the coronary artery disease detected?

A

The size of the perfusion abnormality

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39
Q

What can you administer to produce rapid heart rate to create cardiac stress during nuclear testing?

A

Atropine
Dobutamine
Institution of artificial cardiac pacing

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40
Q

Cardiac stress can be produced by administration of what?

A

Coronary vasodilator such as adenosine or dipyridamole

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41
Q

What is an echo used for?

A

Wall motion abnormalities
Valvular function

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42
Q

_____ provides the best information about the condition of the coronary arteries

A

Stress echocardiography

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43
Q

Who is a stress echocardiography indicated in?

A
  • patients with known or possible angina pectoris who have survived sudden cardiac death
  • those who continue to have angina pectoris despite maximal medical therapy
  • those who are being considered for coronary revascularization
  • those who develop a recurrence of symptoms after coronary revascularization
  • those with chest pain of uncertain cause
  • those with a cardiomyopathy of unknown cause
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44
Q

What is a coronary spasm?

What does this result in?

A

a sudden, temporary narrowing or tightening of a small part of an artery

a temporary situation where the heart does not get enough blood

45
Q

What is variant angina?

How is this diagnosed?

A

angina that results from coronary vasospasm rather than occlusive coronary artery disease

diagnosed by ST-segment elevation during an episode of angina pectoris.

46
Q

What is a vulnerable plaque?

What are the characteristics of this?

A

those most likely to rupture and form an occlusive thrombus

a thin fibrous cap and a large lipid core containing a large number of macrophages

47
Q

T/F
The presence of vulnerable plaque predicts a greater risk of MI regardless of the degree of coronary artery stenosis.

48
Q

AMI most often results from rupture of a plaque that had produced less than ___% stenosis of a coronary artery

49
Q

Prevention of IHD

A
  • Smoking cessation
  • Ideal body weight
  • Low fat, low cholesterol diet (statins if not)
  • Regular aerobic exercise
  • HTN treatment
  • GLP-1 agonists
50
Q

Losing ____ % of body weight decreased CAD risk by _____ %

51
Q

When is drug treatment recommended baed on LDL?

What is the goal?

A

LDL exceeds 160 mg/dl

Goal is >50% reduction or <70 mg/dl

52
Q

HTN increases risk of coronary events, such as what?

A

direct vascular injury
left ventricular hypertrophy
increased myocardial oxygen demand

53
Q

Drug therapy for IHD includes:

A
  • ASA
  • Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists
  • Thienopyridines (P2Y12 inhibitors)
  • Nitrates
  • Beta blockers
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • ACE inhibitors
  • statins
54
Q

MOA of ASA?
What is the dose?

A

Inhibits COX-1… thromboxane A2
- Irreversible, platelet life span

75-235 mg/day

55
Q

What is the alternative for AMI pts who are allergic to aspirin?

A

P2Y12 inhibitors

56
Q

What is TXA2?

A

Thromboxane A2 (TXA2) is a type of thromboxane that is produced by activated platelets during hemostasis and has prothrombotic properties: it stimulates activation of new platelets as well as increases platelet aggregation.

57
Q

What is the platelet lifespan?

58
Q

What are examples of Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists?

MOA?

A

abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban

Inhibit platelet activation, adhesion, and aggregation

59
Q

What are examples of P2Y12 inhibitors?

MOA?

A

Clopidogrel, prasugrel

Inhibits ADP receptor P2Y12 and platelet aggregation

60
Q

P2Y12 inhibitors can be a prodrug. What is the % of people that are hypo/hyper responsive?

61
Q

Between clopidogrel and prasugrel, which has a higher risk of bleeding?

62
Q

What type of drug can affect the enzyme that metabolizes clopidogrel to its active compound and thereby can reduce the effectiveness of it?

63
Q

What are two common blood tests to check platelet function?

A

P2Y12 panels
TEG

64
Q

Nitrates decrease what 3 things about angina

A

frequency, duration, and severity

65
Q

Antianginal effects of nitrates are greater when these drugs are used in combination with what other two drug classes?

A

Beta blockers
Calcium channel blockers

66
Q

What do nitrates do?

A
  • Dilate coronary arteries and collaterals
  • Decrease peripheral vascular resistance
  • Decreases preload
  • Potential anti-thrombotic effects
67
Q

T/F
People taking chronic nitrates respond to sublingual nitrates just as well

A

False!
Will have to have IV nitrates before they respond appropriately

68
Q

What are nitrates contraindicated in?

A

aortic stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

69
Q

What is the only drug to prolong life in CAD pts?

A

Beta blockers

70
Q

What are the 3 main purposes of beta blockers??

A

Anti-ischemic, anti-hypertensive, anti-dysrhythmic

71
Q

If someone is on beta blockers, do we continue them or d/c them for surgery?

A

Continue them or at least give a dose

72
Q

What is a consideration of beta blockers with anesthesia induction?

A

They have an exaggerated hypotensive response

73
Q

What is the difference in blockade of B1 vs B2?

What are the different drugs?

A

Beta 1: atenolol, metoprolol, acebutolol, or bisoprolol
- Heart rate
- Diastolic time
- Myocardial contractility
- Myocardial oxygen demand

Beta 2: propranolol, nadolol
- Increased risk of bronchospasm in reactive airway disease

74
Q

What are two other things that propranolol is used for?

A

anxiety
tremors

75
Q

Which beta blocker do we give in the OR most often?

A

Labetolol
- We give this one because it affects both heart rate and blood pressure

76
Q

Esmolol affects ____, but not _____

A

Heart rate
Contractility

77
Q

Metoprolol affects ______, but not ____

A

Contractility
Heart rate

78
Q

Calcium channel blockers are uniquely effective for what?

A

Decreasing frequency/severity of spasm

79
Q

What are CCB used for?

A

Dilate coronary arteries

Decrease
- Vascular smooth muscle tone
- Contractility
- Oxygen consumption
- Systemic BP

80
Q

Which works better in decreasing incidence of MI, CCB or BB?

A

BB

CCB do a good job of controlling symptoms but not at reducing mortality

81
Q

Angiotensin pathway picture

82
Q

Angiotensin II increases what 4 things?

A
  • Myocardial hypertrophy
  • Interstitial myocardial fibrosis
  • Coronary vasoconstriction
  • Inflammatory responses
83
Q

ACE inhibitors are used to treat what 3 things?

A

Hypertension
Heart failure
Cardioprotective

84
Q

Statins decrease what 4 things?

A

Lipid oxidation
Inflammation
Matrix metalloproteinase
Cell death

85
Q

When is revascularization indicated?

A

Failure of medical therapy
> 50% L main coronary artery
> 70% epicardial coronary artery
Impaired EF <40%

86
Q

When is CABG preferred over PCI?

A
  • patients with significant left main coronary artery disease,
  • those with three-vessel coronary artery disease
  • patients with diabetes mellitus who have two- or three-vessel coronary artery disease.
87
Q

What is angioplasty?

A

Putting balloon in plaque to push it back against the walls

88
Q

What is transluminal intervention?

A

devices uses net and grinder to grind plaque off vessel and it catches pieces of plaque off vessel – potentially could replace CABG
– also seen in cerebral interventions

89
Q

What 4 things happen in acute coronary syndrome?

A
  • Focal disruption of atheromatous plaque
  • Triggers coagulation cascade
  • Thrombin generation
  • Arterial occlusion by a thrombus
90
Q

Define acute coronary syndrome

A

Acute or worsening imbalance of myocardial oxygen supply to demand

91
Q

What are the 3 categories of ACS?

What are these based on?

A

STEMI
NSTEMI
Unstable angina

12 lead EKG or cardiac specific biomarkers (troponin)

92
Q

Decision tree picture for ACS

93
Q

T/F
Some cardiac ischemia may not show up with cardiac biomarkers or EKG changes

94
Q

What happens in a STEMI?

A

Coronary blood flow decreases abruptly

Acute thrombus formation
- Vulnerable plaques

Thrombogenesis
- Collagen, ADP, epinephrine, serotonin
- Thromboxane A2
- Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
- Fibrin deposit

95
Q

What are the majority of STEMIS caused by?

In rare cases, what else can they be caused by?

A

Thrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery

coronary emboli, congenital abnormalities, coronary spasm, or inflammatory diseases

96
Q

STEMI plaque pathway

(This card is stupid long, I’m sorry lol)

A
  • A platelet monolayer forms at the site of ruptured plaque, and various chemical mediators such as collagen, ADP, epinephrine, and serotonin stimulate platelet aggregation.
  • The potent vasoconstrictor thromboxane A2 is released, which further compromises coronary blood flow.
  • Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on the platelets are activated, which enhances the ability of platelets to interact with adhesive proteins and other platelets and causes growth and stabilization of the thrombus.
  • Further activation of coagulation leads to strengthening of the clot by fibrin deposition. This makes the clot more resistant to thrombolysis
  • Plaques that rupture and lead to acute coronary occlusion are rarely of a size that causes significant coronary obstruction. - - By contrast, flow-restrictive plaques that produce chronic stable angina and stimulate development of collateral circulation are less likely to rupture.
97
Q

STEMI diagnosis picture

98
Q

What fraction of pts describe new-onset angina pectoris or a change in their anginal pattern during the 30 days preceding an AMI?

99
Q

About a quarter of patients, especially the elderly and those with diabetes, have what type of pain at the time of AMI?

A

None or mild

100
Q

How does a STEMI pt usually present on physical exam?

A

anxious, pale, and diaphoretic

  • Sinus tachycardia is usually present.
  • Hypotension caused by left or right ventricular dysfunction
  • cardiac dysrhythmias may be present
101
Q

What is the development of a Q wave on EKG more dependent on?

A

volume of the infarcted tissue

102
Q

What two diagnostic test are powerful predictors of adverse cardiac events in patients with anginal pain?

A

Elevated troponins
EKG

103
Q

The _____ the level of troponin, the _____ the MI is

A

Greater
Larger

104
Q

Drug therapy for STEMIS include:

A

MONA
P2Y12 inhibitors (clopidogrel, prasugrel, or ticagrelor)
Platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
Unfractionated heparin
β blockers
RAAS

105
Q

What is the primary goal in management of a STEMI?

A

reestablish blood flow in the obstructed coronary artery as soon as possible

106
Q

Why is MONA necessary in STEMI treatment?

A

to reduce catecholamine release and the resultant increase in myocardial oxygen requirements.

107
Q

What type of drugs should be avoided in a STEMI?

A

Glucocorticoids
NSAIDS

108
Q

The time from ______ to ______ strongly influences the outcome of an acute STEMI.

A

Onset of symptoms
Reperfusion

109
Q

Reperfusion therapy includes:

A

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), streptokinase, reteplase, or tenecteplase

110
Q

When should thrombolytic therapy for STEMI be initiated?

A

Within 30-60 minutes of hospital arrival and within 12 hours of symptom onset