Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Integrated Systems 1 > Muscoskeletal Pathology > Flashcards

Muscoskeletal Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Produce osteoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Osteocytes

A

Osteoblasts within bone in a lacuna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Osteoclast

A

Multinucleated Resorts bone Reside in Howsips lacunae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain signaling for bone resorption

A

RANKL and Macrophage stimulating factor expressed by osteoblasts bind with macrophages to convert them into osteoclasts Osteoprotegrin can block RANKL and prevent osteoclast formation and bone resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the 6 categories of bone lesions

A

Congenital

Acquired

Fractures

Osteonecrosis

Osteomyelitis

Tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name the 4 Congenital Lesion

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Anchodroplasia

Osteopetrosis

Fibrous Dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name the 5 Accquired Lesions

A

Osteoporosis

Paget Disease

Rickets Osteomalacia

Hyperparathyrodism

Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the 2 Osteomyelitis Lesions

A

Pyogenic

Tuberculous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the 3 Tumors of the bone

A

Bone-forming

Cartilage forming

Miscellaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

What causes it

2 examples

A
  • Mutations of collagen type 1 (alpha 1 and alpha 2)
    • Autosomal Dominant
  • Multiple fractures
  • Blue Sclera
  • Hearing loss
  • Dentinogenesis Imperfecta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Achondroplasia

A
  • FGFR3 Mutation
    • Chondrocyte proliferation inhibition
    • Growth of normal epiphyseal plates is repressed
    • Autosomal dominant
  • Avg life span
  • Affects all bone that develop via endochondral ossification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Osteopetrosis

A
  • Reduced osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
    • defective bone remodeling
    • abnormally dense but brittle
  • both autosomal recessive and dominant
  • can cause many issues in infants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fibrous Dysplasia

A
  • Replacement of bone with connective tissue
  • None malignant
  • 3 types
    • Monostotic
    • Polyostotic
    • McCune Albright Syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osteoporosis

A
  • Reduced bone mass
  • Existing bone has normal mineral content
  • 5 main factors contributing
    • Menopause
    • Aging
    • Nutrition
    • Decreased physical activity
    • Endocrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Paget Disease

A
  • Random excess bone formation
  • Repetitive episodes of frenzied regional osteoclast activity and resorption
    • Osteolytic Stage
  • Exuberant bone formation
    • Mixed osteoclatic-osteoblastic stage
  • Exhaustion of cellular activity
    • Osteosclerotic stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ricketts Osteomalacia

A
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Inadequate mineralization of bone
  • Rickets: kids- epiphyseal plates open
  • Osteomalacia:Adults- plates closed
  • Weak tooth enamel, increased caries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Parathyroid Hormine increase

A
  • Overall it increases plasma calcium concentration
  • Causes
    • Ca out of kidney tubule
    • Inc Ca release from bones into plasma
    • Stimulates kidney to activate Vit D
    • Lowers plasma phosphate concentration by increasing renal excretion of phosphate- preventing Ca to precipitate back into bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is PTH secretion regulated

A
  • Inhibited by calcium concentration
  • Inhibited by active vitamin D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hyperparathyrodism

A
  • Primary
    • Excess secretion of PTH
  • Secondary
    • Increase in PTH from a chronic disease that causes hypocalcemia
    • Ex Renal Failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Scurvy

A
  • Deficiency in Vit C
  • Leads to impaired osteoid matrix formation
  • Manifestations
    • Bleeding gums
    • Subperiosteal hemorrhage
    • Osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis

A
  • A grp of disorders that exhibit histiocyte-like Langerhans cells that cause bone lesions
  • 3 types
    • Letterer-Siwe Disease
    • Hand-Schuller Christian Disease
    • Eosinophilic Granuloma of bone
22
Q

Osteonecrosis

A
  • Ischemia causes loss of bone
    • no infection
  • Result of
    • trauma
    • bone infraction
    • Corticosteroids
23
Q

Bisphosphonate- Associated Osteonecrosis

A
  • Osteonecrosis in patient with history of bisphosphonate use
    • drugs aimed at neutralizing osteoclasts
    • Effects are highest in bones with active remodeling like the jaw
  • BON develops after manipulation of bone, extraction, implant, perio, endo
  • Caution and inform patient over the age of 3
24
Q

Osteomyelitis- Pyogenic

A
  • Inflammation of bone and marrow
  • Most are caused by bacteria (S. aureus)
    • Hematogenous dissemination ( spread via blood)
    • Contigous infection spread (back to back infections)
    • Traumatic implantation (fractures)
25
Q

Osteomyelitis- Tuberculous

A
  • Mycobacterial infection of the bone
  • Bone infections accompany 1-3% of pulmonary tuberculosis
  • Long bones and vertebrae are favored
26
Q

Bone forming tumors Benign

A
  • Osteoma
  • Osteoid Osteoma
  • Osteoblastoma
27
Q

Bone forming Tumors, Malignant

A
  • Primary Osteosarcoma
  • Secondary Osteosarcoma
28
Q

Cartilage forming bone tumors, Benign 2

A

Osteochondroma

Enchondroma

29
Q

Cartilage forming bone tumrs, Malignant 1

A

Chondrosarcoma

30
Q

Miscellaneous bone tumors

A

Giant Cell Tumor of bone

Ewing Sarcoma

31
Q

List the 6 types of joint arthritis

A
  • Osteoarthritis
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Juvenile theumatoid arthritis
  • Seronegative spondyloarthropathies
  • Gout
  • Pseudogout
  • Infectious arthritis
32
Q

List the 2 joint tumors

A

Ganglion and synovial cysts

Tenosynovial gian cell tumor

33
Q

Osteoarthritis

A
  • Most common joint disorder
  • Common in 65+
  • Degeneration of the articular cartilage
34
Q

Osteoarthritis Primary and Secondary

A
  • Primary
    • Appears gradually with age
    • No apparent Cause
  • Secondary
    • Common in youth
    • Caused by trauma, deformity, diseases
35
Q

Evolution of Osteoarthritis

A

Thinning of cartilage

Cartilage remnant

Destruction of cartilage

36
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • Systemic, chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease
  • Rare, common in women
  • Occurs bilaterally
  • Likely combination of genetics and enviroment
37
Q

Progression of Rheumatoid Arthritis

A
  • Initiating event–> Synovitis and Pannus
  • CD4 helper T cells lead to
    • Pain and stiffness
    • Joint space narrowing and joint erosions
38
Q

Atlanto-axial dislocation

A

Form of RA

Instability at joint btw C1-C2

Due to laxity of ligaments and cartilage destruction with RA

39
Q

Juvenile RA

A

Similar to RA but in youth

Strong genetic component (HLA and PTPN22)

40
Q

Seronegative Spondyloarthropathies

A
  • Used to be considered RA
  • Pathologic changes that originate in the ligamentous attachment (not synovium)
  • No rheumatoid factor
  • HLA associated
41
Q

Gout

A

Uric acid accural in tissues

Monosodium urate crystals precipitate from supersaturated body fluids

Induce inflammation

42
Q

Hyperuricemia

A
  1. Precipitation of urate crystals in joints
  2. Complement activation
  3. Phagocytosis of crystals
  4. Lysis and activation of neutrophils
  5. Release of crystals
  6. Release of lysosomal enzymes
  • Precipitation of urate crystals in joints
  • Phagocytosis by monocytes
  • Release of cytokines
43
Q

Primary and Secondary Gout

A
  • Primary
    • Hyperuricemia in the abscence of other disease
      • enzyme defects
    • altered high or low uric acid renal secretion
  • Secondary
    • Known cause of hyperuricemia
      • Leukemia
      • Renal disease
      • Metabolic defects
  • Symptoms
    • joint pain, renal failure, urate stones
44
Q

Pseudogout

A
  • Chondrocalcinosis
  • Calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition
  • 50+ years
  • Crystal deposits in joint and triggger inflammation (similar to gout)
45
Q

Infectious arthritis

A
  • Bacteria lodge in joints during hematogenous dissemination
  • 2 types
    • Suppurative arthritis
    • Lyme arthritis
46
Q

Supporative Arthritis

A

H. influenzae in kids

S aureaus and N gonorrhea in adults

Those with deficient complement are more susceptible

Joint aspiration yields purulent fluid

47
Q

Lyme arthritis

A

Infection B burgdorferi

Advances in stages

  • Tick passes spirochetes
  • Spirochetes spread
  • 2-3 years later symptoms appear as arthritis
48
Q

Ganglion Tumors of joints

A

Small tendon cyst (fluid filled)

Often near wrist

Bible therapy

49
Q

Synovial cyst tumors of joints

A

Herniation of synovium thru joint capsule

50
Q

Tenosynovial giant cell tumor

A

Catchall term for several benign neoplasms of synovium

51
Q

Name the 6 types of tumors in soft tissues

A

Adipose

Fibrous

Fibrohistiocytic

Skeletal Muscle

Smooth muscle

Synovial

52
Q

Name the 3 types of Skeletal muscle disorders

A

Inherited

Acquired

Autoimmune

Integrated Systems 1 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions