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VAP II > Musco > Flashcards

Musco Flashcards

1
Q

Describe how individual bones are classified.

A

Long
short
flat
irregular

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2
Q

what is the long bone comprised of

A

epiphysis - end of bone
diaphysis - shaft
metaphysis - growth plate fuses

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3
Q

describe the biomechanical aspects (what pressure can be placed ) of a long bone

A 
compresion 
tension 
shear 
torsion 
compression and tension (bend)
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4
Q

describe the gross anatomical features of skeletal muscle.

A
  • Belly: also called the head. Enveloped in a connective tissue sheath.
  • Tendon: dense regular fibrous connective tissue
  • Origin: proximal attachment
  • Insertion: Distal attachment
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5
Q

classify skeletal muscle based on the orientation of its fibres

A

Pennate (feathering):
Unipennate: (e.g flexor digitorum profundus) Bipennate: (e.g infraspinatus)
Multipennate: (e.g subscapularis)

Strap: (e.g omotransversarius)

  • Fusiform: (e.g biceps brachii)
  • Circular: (e.g orbicularis oris)
  • Sphincter: (e.g anus)
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6
Q

what is Concentric contraction:

A

Muscle shortens, bones become closer together

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7
Q

what is Eccentric contraction

A

Muscle elongates under tension

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8
Q

what is Isometric contraction

A

Both sides contracting with no change in length

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9
Q

Agonist or prime mover muscle what does it do

A

Making movement

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10
Q

what is Antagonist muscle

A

muscle that allows action to happen

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11
Q

Synergists muscle does what ?

A

Muscles that work together (e.g bicep and triceps)

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12
Q

Fibrous connective tissue

- name the types of fibres and the primary cell

A

(proper)- fibroblasts are the primary cell type

  • dense regular
  • dense irregular
  • loose superficial
  • specialised connective tissue
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13
Q

What is made from dense regular tissue

A

tendons, ligaments and aponeuroses (tendon sheets)

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14
Q

What is made from dense irregular tissue

A

deep fascia, joint capsules, tendon sheaths, dermis

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15
Q

what is made from loose superficial tissue

A

superficial fascia, around blood vessels, within organs to provide structure

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16
Q

what is specialised connective tissue

A
  • Bone
  • Cartilage
  • Adipose
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17
Q

what is the mechanical role of connective tissue

A

resist stresses/ forces upon body (compression, tension, torsion, shear, bending)

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18
Q

what is the structural role of connective tissue

A

Originate from the mesenchymal cells of the embryo which are derived from mesoderm
• Composed of cells, ECM, and ground substance

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19
Q

what is ground substance and whats its purpose

A
  • Binds ECM components and cells together
  • Medium for nutrient and waste diffusion
  • Composed of glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), proteoglycans, glycoproteins, water.
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20
Q

what is elastin and whats its purpose

A
  • Protein with elastic properties which allow stretch and recoil to original position -Elastic fibres have cross links
  • Found in arteries, lungs, elastic cartilage, some ligaments/ tendons, dermis of skin
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21
Q

what is collagen and whats its purpose

A
  • Arranged in fibres composed of smaller subunits called fibrils
  • Fibrils are composed of collagen molecules which are a triple helix of alpha chains
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22
Q

what does tendons and ligaments contain that give it the ability to resist tension

A

collagen

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23
Q

what is the primary cell type of cartilage

A

Chondrocyte

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24
Q

what are the types of cartilage and their purpose

A

hyaline

  • joint surfaces to reduce friction
  • fetal bones and trachea

articular

  • within joints
  • avascular allowing it to pass nutrients and blood through synovial fluid

fibrocartilage
- intervertebral discs

elastic
- ears

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25
Q

Describe synovial membrane structure and function

A
  • Clear viscous fluid – honey like if colour and consistency
  • Modified transudate from plasma
  • Rich in proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid
  • Function is lubrication, shock absorption and nourishment of the chondrocytes of articular cartilage
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26
Q

what is the synovium

A
  • Joint capsule is outer layer (connective tissue)
  • High blood supply- plasma is filtered and the modified transudate is passed into the joint cavity.
  • 2 types of synoviocytes: one produces the transudate and looks like a fibroblast and the other is like a tissue macrophage
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27
Q

Describe the structure and functions of yellow adipose tissue

A

Functions: Insulation, energy source during starvation, padding of vital structures (i.e shock absorption)

  • Found under skin, in diaphysis of adult bones, amongst connective tissue, in digital and metacarpal/ tarsal pads
  • adipocyte is the primary cell type -appear which histologically
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28
Q

Describe the structure and functions of brown adipose tissue

A

Functions: heat production in hibernation and newborns -Abundant mitochondria and small lipid droplets within cells

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29
Q

what are the functions of bone

A
  1. Mechanical
  2. Protection of vital organs
  3. Calcium reservoir
  4. Bone marrow for production of blood cells
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30
Q

what are the three types of cells are found in bones and what do they do

A
  1. Osteoblasts: Bone producing cells
  2. Osteocytes: Mature osteoblasts which maintain bone matrix
  3. Osteoclasts: Bone degrading cells
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31
Q

describe compact bone

A 
found in diaphysis 
high strength 
bone is arranged in lamelle
centre of lamelle = osteon 
centre of lamella contains haversarian canal
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32
Q

describe spongey bone

A

found in epiphysis
decreases weight of bone
red bone marrow in trabeculae
provides resistance to compression

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33
Q

what are the two lining layers of compact bone

A

periosteum - outer surface

endosteum - inner surface

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34
Q

what is the process of Intramembranous ossification

A
  • Occurs in flat bones
  • Connective tissue precursor becomes mineralised
  • Mineralised bone matrix is deposited into connective tissue model
  • Osteoblasts in the periosteum produce matrix- first osteoid, then hydroxyapatite -Organised into thin compact bone cortex surrounding spongy bone
  • Growth is appositional to increase size during maturation of animal
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35
Q

describe the process of Endochondral ossification

A
  • Cartilage precursors of bones
  • Long bones, short bones, vertebrae, ribs
  • Hyaline cartilage bone model is gradually replaced by mineralised bone matrix -Cartilage model starts to become mineralised at the primary ossification centre (centre of the bone), secondary ossification centres then develop in the epiphyses
  • Long bones have a physis at each end between the epiphysis and metaphysis. This physeal cartilage allows long bones to increase in length in growing animals
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36
Q

what direction does Endochondral ossification cause bone to grow in

A

length ways

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37
Q

what direction does inter membranous ossification cause bone to grown in

A

increases in width

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38
Q

how is bone remodelled

A

Spongy bone has greatest capacity for remodelling

Wolff’s Law: Bone responds to the stresses placed upon it due to changes in function/ use

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39
Q

how does bone heal

A

Periosteal osteoblasts deposit new bone over fractured site

-For bone healing to occur there must be gap bridging, dequate blood supply, no movement, no infection, weight bearing.

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40
Q

what is a synarthrosis joint and how can it move

A

immoveable joint

fibrous joint

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41
Q

what is a amphiarthrosis joint and how can it move

A

slight moveable joint

cartilaginous joint

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42
Q

what is a diarthrosis joint and how can it move

A

unrestricted movement

synovial, articular

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43
Q

what are the two tissue types in the CNS

A

Grey matter= Areas of nerve cell bodies (nuclei of neurons) White matter= Regions of neuron axons only

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44
Q

what are the brains components and functions

A

input and output to the body
-Voluntary movement
-Sensory stimuli: vision, hearing
-Involuntary functions: heart rate, gut functions
Brain neurons connect to the spinal cord to send messages to the body via nerves.
• Cerebrum: Interpretation of vision and sound, decision making, initiation of movement, memory.
• Cerebellum: co-ordination of movement
• Brainstem: Monitoring of visceral functions

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45
Q

what is the function of the spinal cord

A

-Neurons and their axons are found in the

spinal cord -Transfer messages to and from the brain

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46
Q

what is the role of the PNS

A

-Peripheral nerves connect the spinal cord to the body -Nerves carry information to and from the body

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47
Q

what is the function of a neuron

A

-Changes in intracellular K and Na ion concentrations along axon causes depolarisation called action potentials

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48
Q

what is an action potential

A

-Neurotransmitter chemical release at synapse to next neuron

49
Q

describe and afferent nerve

A

Afferent (incoming) neurons

-sensory nerves carry messages back to the spinal cord and then to brain -pain, temperature, position, pressure

50
Q

describe an efferent nerve

A

Efferent (outgoing) neurons
Somatic efferent ‘motor neurons’: to skeletal muscle
Autonomic efferent neurons: to cardiorespiratory, gastrointestinal, urogenital

51
Q

what are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

Sympathetic nervous system

Parasympathetic nervous system

52
Q

what is the response of the Parasympathetic nervous system

A

Rest and digest response

-Increases gut smooth muscle and glandular function, increases blood flow to gut, lowers heart rate and blood pressure

53
Q

what is the response of the Sympathetic nervous system

A

Fight or flight response

-Increase heart rate, dilate airways, increases blood pressure, increases blood flow to muscles, adrenaline release

54
Q

describe the classification and function of skeletal muscle

A

striated
voluntary
function = movement and heat production

55
Q

describe the classification and function of cardiac muscle

A

striates
involuntary

function = pump blood

56
Q

describe the classification and function of smooth muscle

A

non striated
involuntary
function = movement and organ size

57
Q

explain the structure of skeletal muscle

A
  • long bundles of cylindrical muscle fibres
  • groups of fibres are bindle together to form fascicle
  • connective tissue surround the outside of the the bundles
58
Q

name the 3 connective tissue layer in skeletal muscle fibre and what they hold together

A 
individual fibres (endomysium),
 fascicles (Perimysium) 
whole muscles (Epimysium).
59
Q

what are myofibrils

A

each muscle fibre is divided into myofibril
myofilaments, consisting of contractile proteins.
-Myofilaments are arranges into repeating units (Sarcomeres)

60
Q

myofibrils are composed of ….

A

thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments

61
Q

what is the role of the sarcomere

A

functional unit of the contractile process

62
Q

what is the interaction of actin and myosin

A

interaction between the myosin globular heads is regulated by proteins tropomyosin and troponin

63
Q

why is titin useful

A

Elastic and helps sarcomeres spring back when stretched Nebulin: inelastic, stabilises actin

64
Q

explain the sliding filament theory

A
  • When a muscle fibre contracts the thick and thin filaments do not shorten but slide over one another.
  • Cross bridges are formed by the thick filaments attaching to the thin filaments and pulling them towards the centre of the sarcomere
65
Q

what is the 2 role of ATP in the cross bridge cycle

A
  1. Energy source: ATP hydrolysis provides the energy for cross-bridge movement- enables myosin head to become cocked.
  2. Allosteric regulator: Binding of ATP to myosin breaks the link between actin and myosin. This allows the cycle to be repeated
66
Q

what is the role of calcium in the cross bridge cycle

A

-When calcium binds to troponin its conformation is altered causing tropomyosin to change position and expose the binding site for myosin
-Calcium is a key factor in control of contraction
ca is released from the tubules over the sarcoplasmic reticulum

67
Q

name the two regulatory proteins in the cross bridge cycle

A

troponin & tropomyosin

68
Q

what is the role of troponin & tropomyosin in the cross bridge cycle

A

In resting muscle, binding sites for myosin are masked by tropomyosin.
calcium binds to troponin its conformation is altered causing tropomyosin to change position and expose the binding site for myosin

69
Q

what is excitation coupling

A
  • Excitation coupling describes the relationship between depolarisation and contraction. -Action potentials triggers muscle contractions
  • Excitation at the motor end plate initiates propagation of an action potential down the sarcomere and T-tubular system, triggering the release of calcium into the sarcoplasm from the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
70
Q

define motor unit

A

Motor neuron + muscle fibre it innervates

71
Q

how many muscle fibres are innervated by a motor neurone

A

Each skeletal muscle fibre is innervated by a motor neuron

72
Q

how is an action potential generated in skeletal muscle

A
  • Binding of acetylcholine results in opening of sodium channelsàdepolarisation of motor end plate
  • Depolarisation of motor endplate results in depolarisation of adjacent regions of the membrane through activation of voltage gated sodium channels which allows rapid influx of sodium.
  • Sodium channels are rapidly inactivated and the cell repolarises towards the resting membrane potential.
  • repolarisation is prompted by opening of additional potassium channels.
  • Arrival of AP in skeletal muscle causes release of calcium from SR which intitates contraction
73
Q

what occurs when the action potential arrives at the motor end plate

A
  • Arrival of Ap causes acetylcholine to be released from vesicles
  • Ach binds to nicotinic receptors in the endplate and causes opening of ion channels in the posy synaptic membrane
  • Ap is transmitted down T tubules and causes calcium release from SR
74
Q

what occurs during ,muscle contraction

A
  • When AP is terminates, release of calcium ceases. -Calcium is pumped back into SR
  • ATP is required to pump calcium back into SR
75
Q

how many cervical bones are in the vertebral column

A

Cervical: 7 common to all mammals

76
Q

how many Thoracic bones are in the vertebral column of the horse and dog

A

Thoracic: 13 in dog, 18 in horse

77
Q

how many lumbar bones are in the vertebral column of the horse and dog

A

Lumbar: 7 in dog, 6 in horses

78
Q

how many sacral bones are in the vertebral column of the horse and dog

A

Sacral: 3 fused vertebrae in dogs, 5 in horse

79
Q

how many caudal bones are in the vertebral column of the horse and dog

A

Caudal: about 20 in dogs and horse

80
Q

what does the intervebral disc have that allows it to act in the way to does

A
  • Fibrocartilaginous
  • Acts as shock absorbers
  • Cartilaginous joint
  • Annulus fibrosus (tough outer fibrous connective tissue)
81
Q

Describe the atlantoaxial joint.

A 
Pivot joint (rotates)
Synovial
82
Q

what do short ligaments do

A

connect adjacent vertebrae

83
Q

what do long ligaments do

A

pass over several vertebrae

84
Q

what is isometric contraction and explain sarcomeres response

A

same length contraction

Sarcomeres shorten slightly and elastic components stretch

85
Q

what is isotonic concentric contraction and explain sarcomeres response

A

sotonic concentric contraction:
-Muscle shortens while the load remains constant
Sarcomeres shorten significantly and elastic elements stretch

86
Q

what is isotonic eccentric contraction and explain the sarcomere response

A

Isotonic eccentric contraction:

  • Load exceeds muscle tension
  • Load pulls muscle to a longer length
  • Sarcomeres are lengthening while generating force
87
Q

what is a muscle twitch

A

mechanical response of a muscle to a single action potential.

88
Q

what are the three phases of a muscle twitch

A

latent period,
contraction phase,
relaxation phase.

89
Q

what does the frequency of an action potential do to a muscles fibre

A

determines the force developed by a muscle fibre

90
Q

what does low frequency stimulation do to a muscle fibre

A

allows muscle fibres to relax completely before the next contraction.

91
Q

what is summation

A

further stimulus is applied before the muscle has completely relaxed, causing the muscle to unfused tenanus

92
Q

what does high frequency stimulation of a muscle fibre result in

A

tetanus

93
Q

what does sarcomere length (muscle length) do to force of contraction

A

Maximum tension is achieved when muscle is set at lengths near its normal relaxed length

94
Q

what are the two way force of contraction is regulated

A
  1. Increasing frequency of stimulation (only increases 3-5x)

2. Increasing the number of motor units activated (recruitment)

95
Q

what is motor unit recruitment how does it impact on muscle contraction

A

Increasing recruitment of further motor units will increase the velocity of the movement

96
Q

how does work relate to distance

A

Work= Force (N) x Distance (m)

97
Q

what is work

A

the amount of work a muscle can do depends on its volume

98
Q

what does muscle force depend on

A
  • Muscle force depends on cross-sectional area

- Length of muscle does not contribute to force but is important in determining the amount of work done.

99
Q

what pathway create ATP of muscle contraction

A

mitochondrion

  • Fatty acid synthesis
  • pryruvate from glucose

cytosol
- glucose from glycogen store

100
Q

how does anaerobic catabolism supply muscles with energy

A

Anaerobic phosphorylation of ADP using high energy phosphate stores in muscle

101
Q

what is is used to make energy in anaerobic glycolysis

A

-Pyruvate converted to lactate

102
Q

explain the benefits of anaerobic glycolysis

A
  • Anaerobic energy production is fast but inefficient -Useful when energy is needed quickly
  • Leads to significant depletion of muscle glycogen stores
103
Q

how does aerobic energy supply the body with ATP

A

. Aerobic (oxidative) phosphorylation of ADP using CHO stores

  • Glycolysis
  • TCA cycle
  • Electron Transport Chain
104
Q

how much ATP is yielded from aerobic metabolism

A

Complete aerobic metabolism of glycogen yields 37-39 molecules of ATP Complete aerobic metabolism of glucose yields 36-38 ATP

105
Q

explain the beta oxidation of fatty acids

A
  • Fat is energy dense and yields more ATP than the same mass of CHO -Requires more oxygen
  • Slower energy release
106
Q

what is the benefit of protein for energy metabolism

A
  • Provides energy is cases of extreme exhaustion, starvation or disease.
  • Amino acids are deaminated, enter the urea cycle and eventually metabolised to enter the TCA cycle at various points
107
Q

what is energy partitioning

A

Energy supply during exercise is not derived from one source. There is an integration of aerobic and anaerobic pathways

108
Q

what do type 1 muscle fibre do

A

slow contraction

- endurance

109
Q

what do type 2a muscle fibre do

A

fast contracting

- endurance and stamina

110
Q

what do type 2b muscle fibre do

A

fast contracting

- sprinting and strength

111
Q

explain muscle fibre recruitment

A
  • ensure smooth locomotion
  • dependant on gait, speed, workload, duration
    as speed nd power increase more type 2 fibres are recruited
112
Q

how are cardiac muscle fibres arranged

A

Striated due to the way myofibrils are organised into sarcomeres

113
Q

what is the benefit of increased mitochondria in cardiac muscle fibres

A

Rich in mitochondria (aerobic metabolism provide ATP)

114
Q

what are the two types of cellist skeletal muscle fibres

A

Contractile (action potential is needed)
• Autorhythmic (pacemaker) = spontaneously depolarise cause and AP which
simulates a heart beat and sets the rate

115
Q

why are AP so long in cardiac muscle fibres

A

leaky sodium channels
• Ap and contraction are similar in length
• This ensures coordinated relaxation and refilling between beats
• Summation (joining of stimulus to produce a stronger contraction) cannot occur in
cardiac muscle

116
Q

what is the difference in smooth muscle arrangement

A

Actin and myosin (diagonal bundles) but not organised into sarcomeres
• No striations

117
Q

what are the two types of smooth muscle and what do they do

A

Visceral

  • connected via gap junction
  • hormonal control (stretch sensitive)
  • GI tract

multi unit

  • synaptic connections (not gap junctions)
  • contract independently
  • autonomic nerve control
  • hormone control (not stretch sensitive)
118
Q

how are contractions initiated in smooth muscle

A
  • cross bridge cycle
  • lower frequency of of the cycle but longer lasting
  • irregular arrangement of myofibrils = max force
119
Q

what is excitation coupling

A

-No troponin thus binding sites for myosin are not masked
Activations come from Ca2+ to a calcium modulated protein (calmodulin) = regulation
• This is activated and binds to enzyme myosin light chain kinase thus activating it
• This the hydrolyses ATP and phosphorylates proteins

VAP II (3 decks)

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