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BOARDS: Musculoskeletal > Muscles, actions, and corresponding cord segments > Flashcards

Muscles, actions, and corresponding cord segments Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the nerve to levator scap?

A

dorsal scapular

- also supplies rhomboids

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2
Q

If the long thoracic muscle is cut with a surgery, what muscle(s) will be damaged?

A

serratus anterior

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3
Q

Do the rhomboids do upward or downward shoulder rotation?

A

downward (serratus and upper trap do upward)

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4
Q

What muscles do scapular downward rotation?

A

pec minor, levator scapula, and rhomboids

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5
Q

What muscles do lateral rotation?

A

infra

teres minor

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6
Q

What are the roles of levator scapula? What cord segment corresponds?

A

scapular downward rotation and elevation

C5

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7
Q

What muscles do shoulder abduction?

A

supraspinatus and deltoid

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8
Q

What are the roles of pec major and minor, and what cord segment and nerve correspond?

A

horizontal adduction of shoulder

  • C5-8 and T1
  • medial/lateral pectoral n.
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9
Q

Medial pectoral nerve innervates what pec(s)?

A

medial does both

lateral just does pec major

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10
Q

What muscle innervates supraspinatus? Infraspinatus? What are the corresponding cord segments?

A

supra and infra are both innervated by suprascapular (C4-6)

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11
Q

What does axillary nerve innervate?

A

deltoid and teres minor

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12
Q

Which rotator cuff muscle is innervated by axillary nerve?

A

teres minor

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13
Q

What does musculocutaneous nerve innervate? (3)

A

biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, brachialis

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14
Q

What is the C6 myotome?

A

biceps

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15
Q

What is the C5 myotome?

A

shoulder abduction

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16
Q

What is the C4 myotome?

A

shoulder shrug

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17
Q

What are the actions of pec minor? It’s innervation? Corresponding cord segments?

A

shoulder horizontal adduction, downward rotation

  • nerve = medial pectoral
  • cord = C8-T1
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18
Q

Name the four superficial muscles of the anterior forearm.

A

1) pronator teres
2) flexor carpi radialis
3) palmaris longus
4) flexor carpi ulnaris

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19
Q

How many muscles are in the anterior forearm?

A

8 (4 superficial, 1 middle, 3 deep)

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20
Q

What is the middle-layer muscle in the anterior forearm?

A

flexor digitorum superficialis (attaching to PIP)

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21
Q

What are the 3 deep muscles of the forearm?

A

1) flexor digitorum profundus
2) flexor pollicus longus
3) pronator quadratus

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22
Q

What are the anterior muscles of the forearm innervated by?

A

all except FCU and ulnar half of profundus are median

- FCU and ulnar half of profundus is ulnar n.

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23
Q

What are the hand muscles innervated by?

A

1/2 LOAF = median

  • 2nd and 3rd lumbricals
  • opponens, abductor, and flexor hallicus

ALL else ulnar

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24
Q

What are the PADs and DABs of the hand innervated by?

A

ulnar

PADs = palmar adductors
DABs = dorsal abductors
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25
Q

How many muscles are on the posterior arm?

A

12 (6 superficial, 6 deep)

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26
Q

What does brachioradialis do?

A

flexion of the elbow in pronation position

pronation

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27
Q

What are the 6 superficial muscles of the posterior forearm? (hint: remember the numbers)

A

brachioradialis
extensor carpi radialis longus
extensor carpi radialis brevis
4) extensor digitorum (to all four fingers)
5) extensor digiti minimi (to pinky finger)
extensor carpi ulnaris

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28
Q

What muscle that flexes the elbow is found on the posterior forearm?

A

brachioradialis (C5-6), radial n.

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29
Q

What are the 6 deep muscles of the posterior forearm? (hint: running down the arm)

A

anconeus
supinator
*snuff box: APL, EPB, EPL,
extensor indices

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30
Q

What innervates the lumbricals?

A

ulnar half = ulnar

radial half = radial

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31
Q

What muscles do forearm pronation?

A

pronator teres
pronator quadratus

  • both median, C6-7
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32
Q

What muscles do thumb extension?

A

EPL/EPB (part of snuff box)

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33
Q

What ligaments reinforce the AC joint?

A

coracoacromial lig (not true ligament, since it’s same bone -> same bone)

coracoclavicular lig - trapezoid, conoid

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34
Q

What ligaments help reinforce the glenohumeral joint?

A

glenohumeral ligaments (superior, middle, inferior)

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35
Q

What’s the purpose of the coracohumeral ligament?

A

reinforce biceps tendon, reinforce superior capsule, prevent caudal dislocation

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36
Q

What ligament supporting the AC joint is most important, because when that’s torn, usually the AC comes apart?

A

coracoclavicular

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37
Q

What muscle is the glenoid labrum attached to?

A

superiorly is attached to long tendon of the biceps brachaii

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38
Q

What bursae is most commonly implicated in pathology of the shoulder?

A

subacromial (lies right above supraspinatus, right below acromion)

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39
Q

What motion has to occur at the GH joint so that compression of the greater tubercle on the acromion doesn’t occur?

A

ER at 75deg of elevation

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40
Q

Your patient isn’t able to achieve full shoulder elevation. What events should you look for to make sure they’re occuring? (6: hint - think shoulder motions but also beyond just shoulder joint)

A
  • effective inferior glide of humerus
  • scapular stabilization
  • ER of humerus
  • posterior rotation of clavicle
  • scapular abduction and lateral rotation of AC
  • straightening of thoracic kyphosis
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41
Q

The trochlear notch is on what bone?

A

ulna

- trochlea is on distal humerus

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42
Q

Where is the capitulum?

A

distal radius, articulates with head of radius

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43
Q

What ligaments reinforce the proximal elbow joint?

A

lateral collateral ligament
medial collateral ligament
annular ligament

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44
Q

Your patient is having difficulty with pushups, noting pain at the elbow with descent. What motions might you check to ensure arthrokinematics are occuring?

A

closed chain elbow flexion: convex on concave

- anterior roll with posterior slide needs to occur

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45
Q

What’s the screw home mechanism for the elbow?

A

slight internal rotation (pronation) of ulna with extension

slight ER with flexion

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46
Q

What are the bones of the hand in the proximal row, listing from laterally to medially?

A

some - scaphoid
lovers - lunate
try - triquetrum
positions - pisiform

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47
Q

List the distal row of carpal bones, laterally to medially.

A

that - trapezium
they - trapezoid
can’t - capitate
handle - hamate

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48
Q

Is the ulna convex or concave at the distal end?

A

convex

- radius is biconcave

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49
Q

What is the thumb joint called? Describe its articular surfaces.

A

CMC - carpometacarpal joint trapezium on metacarpal

- trapezium is convex in medial/lateral direction, while it’s concave in anterior/posterior direction

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50
Q

With abduction of the thumb, what direction are the rolls and slides?

A

roll and slide in opposite directions convex metacarpal on concave thumb

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51
Q

With flexion of the thumb, what direction are the roll and slide?

A

roll and slide in SAME direction

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52
Q

If a patient is lacking flexion of the CMC joint, what direction should you mobilize?

A

mobilize metacarpal in medial direction (following flexion)

- since rolls and slides are in the same direction

53
Q

What is a slide in the volar direction?

A

palmar slide

54
Q

When mobilizing for a patient that’s lacking CMC abduction, what direction should you mobilize?

A

dorsal slide (since roll and slide are in opposite directions)

55
Q

When are the volar plates of the fingers taut?

A

volar plates are on palmar aspect of MCP/PIP/DIP joints

- taught in extension -> prevent hyperextension

56
Q

What is the purpose of the extensor hood?

A

fibrous expansion of each extensor digitorum tendon

- assists with PIP/DIP extension (but remember it’s non-contractile)

57
Q

What nerve innervates the thenar eminence?

A

ulnar

58
Q

During opposition, what motion must happen with the metacarpal?

A

ulnar rotation

59
Q

What kind of glide do you need to achieve wrist flexion?

A

dorsal glide of scaphoid and lunate

- so volar glide for ext.

60
Q

What kind of glide must occur for radial deviation?

A

ulnar glide of proximal row

61
Q

Angle of inclination at the femur is typically what?

A

115-125deg

62
Q

Greater than 125deg of inclination at the femur is called what?

A

coxa valga

- coxa vara is <115deg

63
Q

What’s the typical anteversion angle of the hip? What angles are considered excessive anteversion or retroversion?

A

typical anteversion: 10-15deg

  • excessive anteversion is > 25-30deg
  • retroversion is <10deg anteverted
64
Q

What ligaments reinforce the hip joint?

A

iliofemoral (Y) = prevents extension and ER
ischiofemoral = prevents IR, abd, extension
pubofemoral = prevents extension, ER, abd.

65
Q

What attachments does the inguinal ligament have?

A

runs from AASIS to pubic tubercle

- forms a tunnel for muscles, arteries, veins, and nerves

66
Q

What is the L2 dermatome? Muscles tested?

A

hip flexion; iliopsoas and sartorius

67
Q

What muscles do hip external rotation?

A

piriformis, quadratus femoris, gemelli, obturator internus, glute max

68
Q

What actions does glute med do?

A

anterior: hip flexion/IR
posterior part: hip extension/ER

Both parts do abduction

69
Q

What does obturator internus do?

A

ER, extension, abduction of hip

70
Q

What does obturator externus do?

A

ER and adduction of hip

71
Q

What muscle does ankle inversion and what it it innervated by?

A

tib posterior -> tibial n.

72
Q

What does sciatic nerve branch into?

A

branches into common fib and tib nerves at the popliteal space

73
Q

What nerve innervates the adductors? (and list adductors)

A

obturator n.

  • adductor magnus/longus/brevis
  • pectineus
  • gracilis
74
Q

What muscle does lower leg medial rotation to unlock knee?

A

popliteus

75
Q

What nerve supplies control to pelvic floor?

A

pudendal n.

76
Q

What muscles get innervation from sciatic?

A

semitendonosis/membranosis

77
Q

How would you stretch the TFL? What’s its innervation?

A

hip extension, ER, and adduction

  • since it does HF, IR, Abd
  • innervated by superior gluteal n.
78
Q

What does superior gluteal n. innervate?

A

glute max and TFL

79
Q

What’s the L4 myotome? What nerve is being tested?

A

dorsiflexion (deep fib innervation)

80
Q

If a patient has poor PF, what nerve could be implicated?

A

tibial

81
Q

What nerves cause toe flexion/ext.?

A

medial/lateral plantar nerves (branch off of tibial)

82
Q

EDL and EHL are innervated by what?

A

deep fibular (same as anterior tib) -> L4-S1

83
Q

What is L5 myotome testing, muscle and nerve?

A

extensor hallicus longus, deep fibular n.

84
Q

What is the S1 myotome?

A

foot inversion/eversion (but we learned PF)

85
Q

Are knee MCL and LCL ligaments taut in extension or flexion?

A

extension

86
Q

What ligament is taut with valgus force to the knee?

A

MCL

- also prevents ER of knee

87
Q

T/F: Medial collateral ligament of knee blends with the capsule.

A

true

88
Q

T/F: LCL of knee prevents knee ER and provides stability against varus forces.

A

true

89
Q

What motion does the ACL prevent?

A

excessive anterior translation of tibia on femur

- also limits IR of tibia during flexion

90
Q

What muscle augments PCL function?

A

PCL prevents posterior translation of tibia on femur

- so muscles that do knee extension augment PCL = quads

91
Q

The oblique popliteal ligament inserts onto what muscle’s tendon?

A

semimembranosus

- it also partially blends with capsule

92
Q

What muscles insert onto pes anserine?

A

S - sartorius
G - gracilis
T - semitendonosis

93
Q

Where does the acuate popliteal ligament attach to?

A

it’s lateral: attaches from lateral fem. condyle to fibular head, strengthening the posterolateral capsule

94
Q

What does the medial meniscus attach to medially?

A

MCL and fibrous capsule

- semimembranosis and medial meniscopatellar ligament also

95
Q

What roles does your meniscus play?

A 
shock absorption
improve congruency at joint
provide stability to joint
reduce friction during movement
improves weight distribution
96
Q

What structures attach to lateral meniscus?

A

popliteus

97
Q

When walking, what is the typical ROM of knee flexion?

A

15deg

98
Q

What is the screw home mechanism of the tibia/femur when in closed chain?

A
  • closed chain: when walking, femur internally rotates to lock knee for more stability
  • open chain: tibia ERs about 5deg
99
Q

With DF of talocrural joint, what motion occurs at the proximal tibfib joint?

A

fib head glides superiorly and posteriorly

  • glides inferiorly and anteriorly for plantarflexion
100
Q

If a patient is having difficulty with DF, what motion could you manipulate their fibular head?

A

superior/posterior

101
Q

What three things make up the talocrural joint?

A

medial malleolus of tibia
lateral malleolus of fibula
trochlear surface of talus

102
Q

Why do you MWM at the ankle in the way you do? (think OSU sports clinical, give arthrokinematic reason)

A

in weightbearing, concave surface of tibia is moving on convex surface of fibula
- so an anterior slide of tibia has to occur; by holding down talus and pushing posteriorly, you’re allowing this anterior slide

103
Q

Where is the cuboid in the foot?

A

lateral, proximal to 5th metatarsal

104
Q

Where are the cuneiforms in the foot?

A

beginning medially, just distal to 1st through 3rd metatarsals

105
Q

What does the talus articulate with?

A

with the calcaneus (inferiorly) and the navicular (distal to talus, on medial side of foot)

talus -> navicular -> cuneiforms -> 1st three metatarsals

106
Q

What does the calcaneus articulate with?

A

talus (superiorly)
cuboid (distally, on lateral side of foot)

calcaneus -> cuboid -> 5th met

107
Q

What bone is the key to the lateral arch?

A

cuboid

108
Q

What does the calcaneal tilt test check for?

A

excessive motion at calcaneofibular ligament

109
Q

What is the spring ligament?

A

calcaneonavicular ligament

110
Q

When is the plantaraponeurosis at maximal tightness?

A

windlass effect: DF of MTP joint

- causes supination of calcaneus and inversion of subtalar joint, creating a rigid lever for push off

111
Q

What foot position results from the windlass effect?

A

calcaneal supination, inversion of subtalar joint

112
Q

What do the uncinate joints limit, motion wise?

A

limit lateral cervical flexion at C3-7

113
Q

What is the rule of 3?

A
  • TP of T1-3 are even with the SP of same level
  • TP of T4-6 are found 1/2 level above SP of same level
  • TP of T7-9 are one full level above SP of same level
114
Q

To locate the TP of T9, how would you palpate to do this?

A

go one level up to T8 SP and then laterally for T9’s TP

115
Q

Where are the TP of T10-12 located?

A

TP of…

  • T10 = one level up (T9)
  • T11 = one half level up (between T10 and T11)
  • T12 = level with T12
116
Q

What is the joint that performs the “no” head motion?

A

atlanto-axial joint (AA)

  • dens of C2 and anterior arch of C1
  • most of head rotation comes from this joint
117
Q

What’s the difference between the AO and AA joints?

A 
AO = occiput and C1 (yes joint)
AA = C1 and C2 (no joint)
118
Q

Describe the anatomy of a disc.

A

annulus fibrosis = collagen and fibrocartilage, 65% H20O
Nucleus pulposis = gel
- vertebral endplate provides nutrients

119
Q

What nerves are involved with inspriation?

A

phrenic

intercostal

120
Q

What comes first in the spine, the root or the rami?

A

ventral and dorsal roots off of spinal cord -> join to become spinal nerve -> divide into ventral/dorsal rami

121
Q

If a patient rotates to the R, are they gapping or approximating their R L4/5 facet joint?

A

gapping ipsilaterally
approximating contralaterally

so, they’re gapping

122
Q

When you rotate R, what coupling motion happens at C2-7?

A

side bending to R
- coupling of side bend and rotation from C2-7

OPPOSITE for occiput and C1: occiput sidebends, C1 rotates in opposite direction

123
Q

With a patient who can’t rotate their neck fully to the R, what may not be happening at their facet joints that should be?

A

R superior facets should be moving posteriorly and inferiorly
- also, recall that in C-spine, rotation causes approximation ipsilaterally (converse in lumbar/thoracic spine)

124
Q

What coupling occurs in lumbar spine (neutral spine vs flexion spine)?

A

neutral: lumbar segments will side bend and rotate in opposite directions (ex. side bend R will result in segment rotating L)

Flexion: they move together

125
Q

What is nutation?

A

flexion of sacrum and posterior counter-rotation of ilium

126
Q

If the sacrum is stuck in extension, it’s said to be stuck in what position?

A

counternutation

- sacrum extended, ilium anteriorly rotated

127
Q

T/F: TMJ articular surfaces are covered with hyaline cartilage.

A

false, covered with dense fibrous connective tissue

128
Q

What’s the functional range of opening of the TMJ?

A

40mm

BOARDS: Musculoskeletal (10 decks)

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