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Small Animal Surgery > Muscle/Tendon Injuries & Bone Tumors > Flashcards

Muscle/Tendon Injuries & Bone Tumors Flashcards

1
Q

The stretching or tearing of a ligament is a ____.

A

Sprain

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2
Q

True or False: Ligaments heal slowly.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Sprains take about ___-___ weeks for initial healing.

A

6-10 weeks

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4
Q

Sprains take about ___-___ months for maximal stability to develop.

A

3-6 months

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5
Q

Put the following in order from best to worst, in terms of a strain: 1st, 2nd, 3rd.

A

1st –> 2nd –> 3rd

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6
Q

A second degree sprain is the ___ disruption of a ligament.

A

Partial

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7
Q

A third-degree sprain is complete ___, ___, or avulsion of ligament from bone.

A

A third-degree sprain is complete RUPTURE, LACERATION, or avulsion of ligament from bone.

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8
Q

With which type of sprain is function completely lost?

A

Third-degree

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9
Q

Vigorous treatment is needed to restore function from a third-degree sprain. Spontaneous healing by ____ often leads to an unstable joint.

A

Fibroplasia

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10
Q

____ tissue healing is no where near as strong as ligamentous tissue.

A

Scar tissue

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11
Q

Which of the ligament suture patterns place knots at the cut surface may prevent complete healing: Far-near-near-far, Bunnell-Mayer technique, 3-loop pulley, Locking loop?

A
  1. Bunnell-mayer technique

2. Locking loop

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12
Q

A sprain involving complete loss of function is what degree of sprain?

A

3rd

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13
Q

What is: a bruise of the muscle with varying degrees of hemorrhage and fiber disruption?

A

Muscle contusion

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14
Q

What is: a longitudinal stretching or tearing of muscle fibers or groups of fibers?

A

Strain

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15
Q

What is: a partial or complete sharp transection or a tendon or muscle?

A

Laceration

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16
Q

Categorize the following as a 1st, 2nd, or 3rd degree strain: Minimal lameness and minimal pain or swelling.

A

1st degree (mild)

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17
Q

Categorize the following as a 1st, 2nd, or 3rd degree strain: obvious lameness, significant soft tissue swelling, rapid progressive pain.

A

3rd degree (severe)

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18
Q

Categorize the following as a 1st, 2nd, or 3rd degree strain: obvious lameness, soft tissue swelling, pin point pain.

A

2nd degree (moderate)

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19
Q

The majority of acute, mild-moderate strains resolve with ___ ___.

A

Conservative management

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20
Q

What are 4 examples of conservative management for a strain?

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Rest
  3. Ice packing
  4. Warm packing
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21
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with a 3rd degree strain?

A

Unable to actively flex/extend a joint or even stand

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22
Q

What type of treatment would a 3rd degree strain require?

A
  1. Surgical repair

2. External support during healing

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23
Q

In treating a 3rd degree strain, you aim for apposition of the muscle or tendon. Minimal gap and tension = ___ ___.

A

Less scar

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24
Q

If too much scar tissue forms, ___ may occur.

A

Contracture

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25
Q

What are the 5 components of the common calcaneon tendon?

A
  1. Gastrocnemius tendon
  2. Superficial digital flexor tendon
  3. Tendon of biceps femoris muscle
  4. Tendon of semitendinosis muscle
  5. Tendon of gracillis muscle
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26
Q

What is the difference between a gastrocnemeus tendon tear alone and a tear of all the tendons of the common calcaneon?

A

Gastroc tear only = bear claw

All tendon tear = flat foot

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27
Q

What are the 3 radiographic signs of a strain?

A
  1. Soft tissue swelling in the tendon region
  2. Mineralization in tendon
  3. Periosteal reaction on tuber calcaneus
28
Q

What are the 2 clinical signs of a gastrocnemius tendon rupture?

A
  1. Dropped hock

2. Curling of the toes (“Bear claw” stance)

29
Q

What are the 3 treatment strategies of a common calcaneon tendon strain?

A
  1. NSAIDS and enforced rest
  2. Surgical repair
  3. Spint or case (6-12 weeks)
30
Q

Which type of contracture is IRREVERSIBLE?

A

Quadriceps muscle contracture (there is no cure)

31
Q

What is the best treatment option for a contracted quadriceps muscle?

A

Amputation

32
Q

What causes contracture of the quadriceps muscle?

A

Femur fracture, causing trauma to the quadriceps muscle and contracture of the vastus intermedius

33
Q

___ ___ is very important in rehab after femur fracture repair.

A

Physical therapy

34
Q

What are: neoplastic cells which arise from cells located within the bone tissue.

A

Primary bone tumor

35
Q

Primary bone tumors are ___% of all canine neoplasias.

A

5%

36
Q

Of those 5%, which is the most common type of primary bone tumor?

A

Osteosarcoma (>80%)

37
Q

Osteosarcoma arises from ___ bone cells.

A

Mesynchymal

38
Q

75% of osteosarcomas originate in the ____ skeleton.

A

Appendicular

39
Q

What are the predilection sites for osteosarcoma?

A

Away from the elbow (proximal humerus & distal radius), towards the knee (distal femur & proximal tibia)

40
Q

For osteosarcoma, metastasis is ___.

A

Common

41
Q

With osteosarcoma, about ___% of patients have micrometastases.

A

90%

42
Q

True or False: Osteosarcomas metastasize very early on in the disease.

A

TRUE

43
Q

Which type of bones do chondrosarcomas affect?

A

Flat bones (rib, skull, the axial skeleton)

44
Q

Chondrosarcomas are malignant and ___ to metastasize.

A

Slow

45
Q

Which type of primary bone tumor is not responsive to chemotherapy?

A

Chondrosarcoma

46
Q

Which bones do fibrosarcomas affect?

A

Axial skeletal bones

47
Q

Fibrosarcomas are slow or fast to metastasize?

A

Slow

48
Q

True or False: Excision of a fibrosarcoma is rarely curative.

A

FALSE: excision can be curative

49
Q

Metastatic bone tumor: neoplastic cells originate from a ___ area.

A

Remote

50
Q

What are the 2 common sites for metastatic bone tumors?

A
  1. Lumbar vertebrae

2. Pelvis

51
Q

True or False: Primary bone tumors can cross the joint.

A

FALSE: primary bone tumors do NOT cross the joint.

52
Q

What are the differential diagnoses to bone tumors? (6 listed here)

A
  1. Infection (osteomyelitis )
  2. Multiple myeloma
  3. Metastatic neoplasia
  4. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy
  5. Trauma
  6. Aneurismal bone cysts
53
Q

What are 4 ways to get a definitive diagnosis of bone tumor?

A
  1. Jamshidi biopsy
  2. Histopathology after amputation
  3. Fine needle aspirate
  4. Wedge biopsy
54
Q

What is: aiming to provide comfort?

A

Palliative care

55
Q

What is: aiming to remove all tumor cells from the body?

A

Curative intent

56
Q

What are the 5 options for treatment of a primary bone tumor?

A
  1. Tumor excision (amputation)
  2. Tumor excision and chemotherapy
  3. Palliative radiation
  4. Palliative analgesia
  5. Euthanasia
57
Q

True or False: Limb spare surgery does not improve survival time.

A

TRUE

58
Q

What is chemotherapy used to treat and successful at treating?

A

Micrometastases

59
Q

True or False: Chemotherapy prolongs survival.

A

TRUE

60
Q

Palliative radiation is used to diminish ___ ___.

A

Bone pain

61
Q

Does palliative radiation affect metastasis or median survival time?

A

No

62
Q

What is the median survival time with palliative care of OSA in dogs?

A

3-5 months

63
Q

What is the median survival time with curative intent of OSA in dogs?

A

10-14 months

64
Q

In cats, ___-___% of bone tumors are osteosarcoma.

A

70-80%

65
Q

What is the median survival time of a cat after diagnosis with osteosarcoma?

A

24 months

66
Q

For osteosarcoma, is the prognosis better in dogs or cats?

A

Cats

Small Animal Surgery (11 decks)

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