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Advanced Anatony & Physiology > Multiple Choive Final > Flashcards

Multiple Choive Final Flashcards

1
Q 
The study of the function of the body and body parts is called:
a.
anatomy
b.
physiology
c.
homeostasis
d.
negative feedback
e.
irritability
A

b.

physiology

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2
Q

Which of the following activities does not represent an anatomical study:
a.
making a section through the heart to observe its interior
b.
examining the surface of a bone
c.
viewing muscle tissue through a microscope
d.
studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses
e.
observing the parts of a reproducing cell

A

d.

studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses

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3
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body:
a.
chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level
b.
chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level
c.
cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level
d.
cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level
e.
cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level

A

a.

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4
Q 
Which of these structures is the most complex:
a.
an organ
b.
a tissue
c.
a molecule
d.
organ system
e.
a cell
A

D

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5
Q

The lymphatic system:
a.
responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands
b.
picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood
c.
synthesizes vitamin D
d.
produces heat
e.
secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells

A

B

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6
Q 
The system that takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide to the exterior is the:
a.
respiratory system
b.
cardiovascular system
c.
reproductive system
d.
muscular system
e.
urinary system
A

A

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7
Q 
The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the:
a.
integumentary system
b.
skeletal system
c.
nervous system
d.
endocrine system
e.
digestive system
A

D

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8
Q 
8.	The muscular system consists of the:
a.
skeletal muscles
b.
muscles of the heart
c.
muscles in the walls of hollow organs
d.
skeletal muscles and the muscles of the heart
e.
muscles of the heart and those in the walls of the hollow organs
A

A

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9
Q 
The ovary is part of which of the following two systems:
a.
digestive and endocrine systems
b.
digestive and respiratory systems
c.
reproductive and endocrine systems
d.
reproductive and respiratory systems
e.
endocrine and respiratory systems
A

C

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10
Q 
Which system covers the external surface of the body and manufactures vitamin D:
a.
endocrine system
b.
integumentary system
c.
nervous system
d.
lymphatic system
e.
skeletal system
A

B

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11
Q 
Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the:
a.
digestive system
b.
urinary system
c.
respiratory system
d.
digestive and urinary systems
e.
digestive and respiratory systems
A

B

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12
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function:
a.
maintaining boundaries
b.
movement
c.
responsiveness
d.
nutrients
e.
metabolism
A

D

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13
Q 
Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides:
a.
integumentary system - movement
b.
nervous system - excretion
c.
muscular system - maintaining boundaries
d.
nervous system - responsiveness
e.
respiratory system - digestion
A

D

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14
Q 
Which of these is NOT a survival need:
a.
nutrients
b.
oxygen
c.
water
d.
reproduction
e.
body temperature
A

D

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15
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system:
a.
receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response
b.
receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response
c.
effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response
d.
stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response
e.
stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response

A

D

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16
Q 
Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change:
a.
control center
b.
stimulus
c.
effector
d.
receptor
e.
efferent pathway
A

D

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17
Q

Positive feedback systems:
a.
regulate heart and breathing rates
b.
operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases
c.
operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced
d.
regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases
e.
regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced

A

B

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18
Q 
Your body thermostat is located in a part of the brain called the hypothalamus. Which of the following elements of a control system does this area in the brain represent:
a.
control center
b.
stimulus
c.
effector
d.
efferent pathway
e.
afferent pathway
A

A

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19
Q

In anatomical position:
a.
the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing backward
b.
the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward
c.
the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward
d.
the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward
e.
the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing forward

A

B

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20
Q 
Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans):
a.
superior and caudal
b.
inferior and cranial
c.
inferior and cephalad
d.
anterior and ventral
e.
anterior and dorsal
A

D

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21
Q 
Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans):
a.
superficial and proximal
b.
distal and proximal
c.
medial and distal
d.
medial and anterior
e.
posterior and intermediate
A

B

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22
Q 
Which of the following regional terms means the anterior surface of the elbow:
a.
calcaneal region
b.
scapular region
c.
gluteal region
d.
vertebral region
e.
antecubital region
A

E

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23
Q 
Sarah fell while ice skating and broke a bone in her carpal region. Where is this region?
a.
hip
b.
lower leg
c.
wrist
d.
shoulder
e.
knee
A

C

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24
Q

In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions:
a.
the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region
b.
the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region
c.
the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region
d.
the patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region
e.
the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region

A

E

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25
Q

In describing the relationship of the thoracic and spinal cavities:
a.
the thoracic cavity is superior to the spinal cavity
b.
the thoracic cavity is inferior to the spinal cavity
c.
the thoracic cavity is proximal to the spinal cavity
d.
the thoracic cavity is medial to the spinal cavity
e.
the thoracic cavity is ventral to the spinal cavity

A

E

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26
Q 
The lungs and heart are in the \_\_\_\_\_ body cavity.
a.
dorsal
b.
spinal
c.
thoracic
d.
cranial
e.
abdominopelvic
A

C

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27
Q 
The gluteal region is the:
a.
buttock
b.
shoulder blade region
c.
posterior knee area
d.
posterior surface of the head
e.
curve of the shoulder
A

A

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28
Q 
The region that contains the navel is the:
a.
carpal region
b.
umbilical region
c.
inguinal region
d.
orbital region
e.
anterior knee
A

B

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29
Q 
The dorsal body cavity houses the:
a.
urinary and reproductive organs
b.
heart and lungs
c.
digestive and reproductive organs
d.
tongue
e.
spinal cord and brain
A

E

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30
Q 
Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm:
a.
femoral, popliteal, patellar
b.
brachial, antecubital, carpal
c.
nasal, oral, occipital
d.
acromial, sacral, gluteal
e.
pelvic, pubic, inguinal
A

B

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31
Q 
Which of these regions are NOT associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head:
a.
buccal
b.
oral
c.
orbital
d.
occiptal
e.
nasal
A

D

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32
Q 
A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into equal right and left parts is called:
a.
median (midsagittal)
b.
frontal
c.
transverse
d.
oblique
e.
coronal
A

A

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33
Q 
Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity:
a.
coronal
b.
sagittal
c.
dorsal
d.
ventral
e.
transverse
A

E

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34
Q 
Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection:
a.
thoracic
b.
pelvic
c.
abdominal
d.
cranial
e.
spinal
A

C

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35
Q

Which of these regions in the abdominopelvic cavity are medial:
a.
umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar regions
b.
epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions
c.
iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric regions
d.
epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac regions
e.
right and left iliac (inguinal), and hypogastric regions

A

B

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36
Q 
The stomach, liver, intestines, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs are housed in the:
a.
cranial cavity
b.
spinal cavity
c.
dorsal cavity
d.
abdominopelvic cavity
e.
thoracic cavity
A

D

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37
Q 
The ribs are located in the:
a.
right and left iliac regions
b.
right and left lumbar regions
c.
right and left pubic regions
d.
right and left hypochondriac regions
e.
right and left inguinal regions
A

D

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38
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and stomach:
a.
both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant
b.
both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant
c.
the spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right upper quadrant
d.
the spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant
e.
both of these organs are located medially

A

A

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39
Q 
The term central nervous system refers to the:
a.
autonomic and peripheral nervous systems
b.
brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves
c.
brain and cranial nerves
d.
spinal cord and spinal nerves
e.
brain and spinal cord
A

E

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40
Q 
The peripheral nervous system consists of:
a.
spinal nerves only
b.
the brain only
c.
cranial nerves only
d.
the brain and spinal cord
e.
the spinal and cranial nerves
A

E

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41
Q 
Which of these cells are not a type of neuroglia found in the CNS:
a.
astrocytes
b.
microglia
c.
Schwann cells
d.
ependymal cells
e.
oligodendrocytes
A

C

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42
Q 
The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath around the:
a.
dendrites
b.
cell body
c.
nucleus
d.
axon
e.
nodes of Ranvier
A

D

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43
Q 
The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:
a.
axons
b.
dendrites
c.
neurolemmas
d.
Schwann cells
e.
satellite cells
A

B

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44
Q 
Collections of nerve cell bodies inside the CNS are called:
a.
ganglia
b.
tracts
c.
nerves
d.
nuclei
e.
tracts or ganglia
A

A

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45
Q

Which one of the following best describes the waxy-appearing material called myelin:
a.
an outer membrane on a neuroglial cell
b.
a lipid-protein (lipoprotein) cell membrane on the outside of axons
c.
a mass of white lipid material that surrounds the cell body of a neuron
d.
a mass of white lipid material that insulates the axon of a neuron
e.
a mass of white lipid material that surrounds the dendrites of a neuron

A

D

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46
Q 
Which of the following sensory receptors is a touch receptor:
a.
Golgi tendon organ
b.
Meissner's corpuscle
c.
Pacinian corpuscle
d.
naked nerve endings
e.
muscle spindles
A

B

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47
Q 
A neuron with a cell body located in the CNS whose primary function is connecting other neurons is called a(n):
a.
efferent neuron
b.
afferent neuron
c.
association neuron
d.
glial cell
e.
satellite cell
A

C

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48
Q 
White matters refers to myelinated fibers in the:
a.
CNS
b.
PNS
c.
ANS
d.
SNS
e.
both ANS and SNS
A

A

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49
Q 
Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are:
a.
myelinated
b.
unmyelinated
c.
sensory
d.
motor
e.
cerebral
A

A

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50
Q 
Bipolar neurons are commonly:
a.
motor neurons
b.
called neuroglia
c.
found in ganglia
d.
found in the eye and nose
e.
more abundant in adults than in children
A

D

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51
Q

An action potential:
a.
is essential for nerve impulse propagation
b.
involves the influx of negative ions to depolarize the membrane
c.
involves the outflux of negative ions to depolarize the membrane
d.
involves the outflux of positive ions to depolarize the membrane
e.
is initiated by potassium ion movements

A

A

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52
Q 
Immediately after an action potential is propagated, which one of the following ions rapidly diffuses out of the cell into the tissue fluid:
a.
sodium
b.
chloride
c.
calcium
d.
potassium
e.
magnesium
A

D

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53
Q 
An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell:
a.
potassium
b.
sodium
c.
calcium
d.
magnesium
e.
both potassium and sodium
A

B

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54
Q 
The ability to respond to a stimulus is termed:
a.
polarized
b.
irritability
c.
depolarized
d.
conductivity
e.
all-or-none response
A

B

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55
Q 
The diffusion of potassium ions out of a neuron causes it to experience:
a.
an action potential
b.
depolarization
c.
repolarization
d.
a graded potential
e.
a nerve impulse
A

C

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56
Q 
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that follows a threshold potential:
1. the membrane becomes depolarized
2. sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse inward
3. the membrane becomes repolarized
4. potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse outward while sodium is actively transported out of the cell
a.
3, 2, 4, 1
b.
2, 1, 4, 3
c.
2, 1, 3, 4
d.
1, 2, 4, 3
e.
4, 1, 3, 2
A

B

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57
Q

Which one of the following describes saltatory conduction:
a.
occurs only if the myelin sheath is continuous
b.
occurs only if nodes of Ranvier are lacking
c.
occurs only in the absence of axon hillocks
d.
is faster than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber
e.
is slower than conduction on an unmyelinated fiber

A

D

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58
Q 
The gap between two communicating neurons is termed:
a.
synaptic cleft
b.
cell body
c.
effector
d.
Schwann cell
e.
node of Ranvier
A

A

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59
Q 
The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called:
a.
an ion
b.
nerve glue
c.
a neurotransmitter
d.
the sodium-potassium pump
e.
an action potential
A

C

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60
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical reflex arc:
a.
effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
b.
receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
c.
effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
d.
receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
e.
receptor, afferent neuron, efferent neuron, integration center, effector

A

B

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61
Q 
Muscles and glands are:
a.
receptors
b.
effectors
c.
myelinated
d.
part of the peripheral nervous system
e.
part of the central nervous system
A

B

62
Q

The three major parts of the brain stem are the:
a.
cerebrum, cerebellum, and diencephalon
b.
thalamus, epithalamus, and hypothalamus
c.
dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater
d.
midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
e.
basal nuclei, pineal body, and choroid plexus

A

D

63
Q 
The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as \_\_\_\_\_ while the shallow grooves are termed \_\_\_\_\_.
a.
sulci; gyri
b.
gyri; sulci
c.
ganglia; gyri
d.
tracts; ganglia
e.
receptors; effectors
A

B

64
Q 
The olfactory area is found within the:
a.
occipital lobe
b.
temporal lobe
c.
frontal lobe
d.
parietal lobe
e.
pyramidal tract
A

B

65
Q 
Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can't vocalize the words. The part of her brain that deals with the ability to speak is the:
a.
longitudinal fissure
b.
gyrus
c.
central sulcus
d.
Broca's area
e.
primary motor area
A

D

66
Q 
The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the:
a.
diencephalon
b.
hypothalamus
c.
brain stem
d.
pineal gland
e.
cerebellum
A

C

67
Q 
Lobe that contains the primary motor area that enables voluntary control of skeletal muscle movements:
a.
parietal lobe
b.
temporal lobe
c.
occipital lobe
d.
frontal lobe
e.
diencephalon
A

D

68
Q 
The pituitary gland is most closely associated with the:
a.
hypothalamus
b.
thalamus
c.
pineal gland
d.
midbrain
e.
medulla oblongata
A

A

69
Q 
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates through all of the following except:
a.
subarachnoid space
b.
corpus callosum
c.
cerebral aqueduct
d.
fourth ventricle
e.
lateral ventricles
A

B

70
Q 
The area of the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep cycles is the:
a.
thalamus
b.
reticular activating system (RAS)
c.
pineal gland
d.
limbic system
e.
cerebellum
A

B

71
Q 
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst are functions associated with the:
a.
medulla oblongata
b.
cerebellum
c.
hypothalamus
d.
thalamus
e.
cerebrum
A

C

72
Q 
The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the:
a.
pons
b.
medulla oblongata
c.
midbrain
d.
cerebrum
e.
hypothalamus
A

B

73
Q 
Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the:
a.
cerebrum
b.
hypothalamus
c.
cerebellum
d.
thalamus
e.
midbrain
A

C

74
Q 
Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost layers of the meninges:
a.
pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
b.
pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
c.
arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
d.
dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
e.
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
A

E

75
Q 
The subarachnoid space lies directly between the:
a.
arachnoid mater and dura mater
b.
arachnoid mater and pia mater
c.
skull and arachnoid mater
d.
arachnoid mater and cerebrum
e.
arachnoid mater and cerebellum
A

B

76
Q

The cerebrospinal fluid:
a.
is secreted by the arachnoid villi
b.
enters the four ventricles after filling and circulating through the subarachnoid space
c.
is secreted mostly by the ependymal cells lining the brain ventricles
d.
is continually formed mostly by the choroid plexuses
e.
is identical in composition to whole blood

A

D

77
Q 
The blood-brain barrier is effective against the passage of:
a.
water
b.
nutrients such as glucose
c.
alcohol
d.
anesthetics
e.
metabolic waste such as urea
A

E

78
Q 
Which of the following is a traumatic brain injury:
a.
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
b.
Alzheimer's disease
c.
aphasia
d.
cerebral edema
e.
Parkinson's disease
A

D

79
Q

The gray matter of the spinal cord:
a.
surrounds the central canal
b.
contains myelinated fiber tracts
c.
is made up of the dorsal, lateral, and ventral columns
d.
surrounds the white matter of the spinal cord
e.
always carries sensory information to the brain

A

A

80
Q

Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in:
a.
the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
b.
the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
c.
the thalamus
d.
the hypothalamus
e.
sympathetic ganglia

A

A

81
Q

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, going from superior to inferior:
a.
thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
b.
cervical spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
c.
thoracic spinal nerves, cervical spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
d.
cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves
e.
cervical spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves

A

E

82
Q 
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from outermost to innermost layer:
a.
epineurium, endoneurium, perineurium
b.
epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium
c.
perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium
d.
perineurium, endoneurium, epineurium
e.
endoneurium, epineurium, perineurium
A

B

83
Q 
Afferent nerves are called \_\_\_\_\_, and motor nerves are called \_\_\_\_\_.
a.
motor nerves; sensory nerves
b.
peripheral nerves; cranial nerves
c.
mixed nerves; motor nerves
d.
sensory nerves; efferent nerves
e.
cranial nerves; peripheral nerves
A

D

84
Q 
The function of the olfactory nerve concerns:
a.
hearing
b.
vision
c.
chewing
d.
smell
e.
eye movement
A

D

85
Q 
The nerve that contains sensory fibers that are involved in hearing is:
a.
cranial nerve II
b.
cranial nerve III
c.
cranial nerve V
d.
cranial nerve VIII
e.
cranial nerve IX
A

D

86
Q 
Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the:
a.
lumbar plexus
b.
femoral plexus
c.
sacral plexus
d.
thoracic plexus
e.
obturator plexus
A

C

87
Q 
Damage to this nerve results in "wristdrop," the inability to extend the hand at the wrist:
a.
phrenic
b.
axillary
c.
obturator
d.
radial
e.
femoral
A

D

88
Q 
Which of the nerves plexuses originates from ventral rami L1-L4:
a.
sacral
b.
spinal
c.
lumbar
d.
brachial
e.
cervical
A

C

89
Q 
Which of the nerve plexuses serves the shoulder and arm:
a.
sacral
b.
phrenic
c.
lumbar
d.
brachial
e.
cervical
A

D

90
Q 
The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body resulting from a combination of which two nerves:
a.
pudendal and femoral nerves
b.
femoral and tibial nerves
c.
pudendal and common peroneal nerves
d.
common fibular and tibial nerves
e.
pudendal and tibial nerves
A

D

91
Q 
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the:
a.
central nervous system
b.
voluntary nervous system
c.
autonomic nervous system
d.
somatic nervous system
e.
peripheral nervous system
A

C

92
Q 
In contrast to the somatic nervous system, the autonomic nervous system:
a.
has two motor neurons
b.
has two afferent neurons
c.
stimulates its effector cells
d.
has both afferent and efferent fibers
e.
has centers in the brain and spinal cord
A

A

93
Q 
Which one of these effectors is NOT directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system:
a.
smooth muscle
b.
cardiac muscle
c.
skeletal muscle
d.
most glands
e.
abdominal organs
A

C

94
Q 
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response during threatening situations is the role of the:
a.
sympathetic nervous system
b.
cerebrum
c.
parasympathetic nervous system
d.
somatic nervous system
e.
afferent nervous system
A

A

95
Q

Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system:
a.
decreases activity of the digestive system
b.
stimulates sweat glands to produce perspiration
c.
decreases urine output
d.
increases metabolic rate
e.
decreases heart rate

A

E

96
Q 
The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the:
a.
central nervous system
b.
parasympathetic nervous system
c.
autonomic nervous system
d.
motor division
e.
sensory division
A

B

97
Q

Sympathetic division fibers leave the spinal cord in the:
a.
craniosacral regions, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
b.
thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
c.
craniosacral region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete acetylcholine
d.
thoracolumbar region, and the postganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine
e.
craniosacral region, and the preganglionic fibers secrete norepinephrine

A

D

98
Q

Sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes:
a.
decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
b.
increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
c.
increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
d.
decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
e.
decreased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure

A

C

99
Q

Which one of the following statements about aging is most accurate:
a.
the brain reaches its maximum weight around the seventh decade of life
b.
synaptic connections are too fixed to permit a great deal of learning after the age of 35
c.
despite some neuronal loss, an unlimited number of neural pathways are available and ready to be developed; therefore, additional learning can occur throughout life
d.
learning throughout the adult and aging years is supported primarily by glial proliferation
e.
increased efficiency of the sympathetic nervous system enhances the ability to learn

A

C

100
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT one of the major processes controlled by hormones:
a.
body coordination
b.
mobilizing body defenses against stressors
c.
maintaining electrolyte balance
d.
regulating cellular metabolism
e.
growth and development
A

A

101
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT typical of the changes that follow the binding of a hormone to its target cells:
a.
plasma membrane permeability changes
b.
cellular mutations occur
c.
enzymes are activated or inactivated
d.
mitosis is stimulated
e.
proteins are synthesized in the cell
A

B

102
Q

Being lipid soluble, steroids can do all the following EXCEPT:
a.
diffuse through the plasma membranes of target cells
b.
catalyze cyclic AMP
c.
enter the nucleus
d.
bind to receptor proteins within the nucleus
e.
activate genes to transcribe mRNA for protein synthesis

A

B

103
Q 
Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is called:
a.
hormonal stimulus
b.
humoral stimulus
c.
neural stimulus
d.
receptor-mediated stimulus
e.
steroid stimulus
A

A

104
Q 
Growth hormone:
a.
is secreted by the thymus gland
b.
prevents urine production
c.
promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles
d.
is produced by the thyroid gland
e.
results in Cushing's disease if produced in excess
A

C

105
Q 
The hormone that triggers ovulation of an egg from the female ovary is:
a.
luteinizing hormone
b.
prolactin
c.
follicle-stimulating hormone
d.
progesterone
e.
interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
A

A

106
Q 
The hypothalamus is most closely associated with the:
a.
pineal gland
b.
pituitary gland
c.
thymus gland
d.
thyroid gland
e.
pancreas
A

B

107
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT a function of oxytocin:
a.
stimulation of uterine contractions
b.
stimulation of breast milk ejection
c.
stimulation of menstruation
d.
postpartum bleeding control
e.
labor induction
A

C

108
Q 
Which one of the following hormones exerts its primary effects on the reproductive organs:
a.
follicle-stimulating hormone
b.
adrenocorticotropic hormone
c.
prolactin
d.
thyroid-stimulating hormone
e.
growth hormone
A

A

109
Q 
The thyroid gland is located:
a.
above the kidneys
b.
below the Adam's apple
c.
within the mediastinum
d.
within the pancreas
e.
within the parathyroid glands
A

B

110
Q 
The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is:
a.
sodium
b.
potassium
c.
calcium
d.
iodine
e.
bromine
A

D

111
Q 
Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body:
a.
T3 and T4
b.
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
c.
oxytocin and prolactin
d.
insulin and glucagon
e.
melatonin and glucocorticoids
A

B

112
Q 
Which of these hormones is released by the adrenal medulla:
a.
sex hormones
b.
aldosterone
c.
cortisone
d.
glucocorticoids
e.
epinephrine
A

E

113
Q 
Tetany resulting from uncontrolled muscle spasms may indicate a malfunction of the:
a.
pineal gland
b.
thymus
c.
parathyroid glands
d.
adrenal cortex
e.
posterior pituitary
A

C

114
Q 
Glucocorticoids do all of the following EXCEPT:
a.
help resist long-term stress
b.
increase blood glucose levels
c.
decrease edema
d.
suppress inflammation
e.
regulate salt content of the blood
A

E

115
Q 
The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of:
a.
ADH
b.
prolactin
c.
growth hormone
d.
epinephrine
e.
melatonin
A

D

116
Q 
Insulin is produced by cells of the pancreatic islets called:
a.
alpha cells
b.
beta cells
c.
delta cells
d.
gamma cells
e.
theta cells
A

B

117
Q

Insulin causes:
a.
a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose
b.
an increase in the concentration of blood glucose
c.
an increase in blood pressure
d.
an increase in the production of glucagon
e.
a decrease in blood pressure

A

A

118
Q 
The pineal gland produces
a.
thymosin
b.
melatonin
c.
estrogen
d.
insulin
e.
cortisol
A

B

119
Q 
The hormone responsible for the maturation of white blood cells known as T lymphocytes is:
a.
thymosin
b.
melatonin
c.
aldosterone
d.
progesterone
e.
thyroxine
A

A

120
Q 
Which of these hormones does NOT play a role in reproduction:
a.
antidiuretic hormone
b.
follicle-stimulating hormone
c.
luteinizing hormone
d.
testosterone
e.
estrogen
A

A

121
Q 
The cells in the testes that produce testosterone are called:
a.
interstitial cells
b.
alpha cells
c.
beta cells
d.
pancreatic islet cells
e.
gonadotropic cells
A

A

122
Q 
Which hormone works with estrogen to bring about the menstual cycle:
a.
human chorionic gonadotropin
b.
progesterone
c.
testosterone
d.
prolactin
e.
oxytocin
A

B

123
Q 
The fibrous connective tissue enclosing each testis is the:
a.
eminiferous tubule
b.
tunica albuginea
c.
interstitial cells
d.
ductus deferens
e.
spermatic cord
A

A

124
Q 
The actual "sperm-forming factories" of the male reproductive system that empty sperm into the rete testes are called the:
a.
interstitial cells
b.
epididymis
c.
ductus deferens
d.
bulbourethral glands
e.
seminiferous tubules
A

E

125
Q

The correct descending order of the male duct system (from inside to outside) is:
a.
epididymis, ductus deferens, urethra, ejaculatory duct
b.
ejaculatory duct, epididymis, ductus deferens, urethra
c.
ductus deferens, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, urethra
d.
epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra
e.
ejaculatory duct, ductus deferens, epididymis, urethra

A

D

126
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT true of the spermatic cord:
a.
it is a connective tissue sheath
b.
it encloses the ductus deferens
c.
it encloses the epididymis
d.
it contains nerves
e.
it contains blood vessels
A

C

127
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT a component of semen:
a.
sperm
b.
seminal fluid
c.
prostatic fluid
d.
bulbourethral fluid
e.
epididymal fluid
A

E

128
Q 
Milky-colored fluid secreted from the prostate:
a.
nourish sperm
b.
activate sperm
c.
cleanse the urethra
d.
neutralize urine
e.
are endocrine only
A

B

129
Q 
Pregnancy is generally improbable with a sperm count:
a.
under 20,000 per milliliter
b.
under 1 million per milliliter
c.
under 5 million per milliliter
d.
under 20 million per milliliter
e.
under 100 million per milliliter
A

D

130
Q 
The primitive stem cell of spermatogenesis, which is found on the periphery of each seminiferous tubule, is called:
a.
spermatogonia
b.
spermatid
c.
primary spermatocyte
d.
secondary spermatocyte
e.
sperm
A

A

131
Q 
The final outcome of meiosis within both the testicles and the ovaries is:
a.
the formation of two identical daughter cells
b.
one gamete
c.
two gametes
d.
three gametes
e.
four gametes
A

E

132
Q 
The process in which sperm are streamlined into a head, midpiece, and tail is called:
a.
spermatogenesis
b.
acrosomal reaction
c.
oogenesis
d.
spermiogenesis
e.
ovulation
A

D

133
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT one of the secondary sex characteristics typical of males:
a.
deepening voice
b.
increased growth of body hair
c.
enlargement of skeletal muscle mass
d.
increased sex drive
e.
thickening of bones
A

D

134
Q 
The process by which a mature egg is ejected from the ovary is called:
a.
ejaculation
b.
menses
c.
fertilization
d.
ovulation
e.
erection
A

D

135
Q 
The superior rounded region of the uterus above the entrance of the uterine tubes is called the:
a.
body
b.
fundus
c.
cervix
d.
corpus
e.
mons pubis
A

B

136
Q 
The external female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the:
a.
cervix
b.
vagina
c.
clitoris
d.
perineum
e.
labia majora
A

C

137
Q 
The inner mucosal layer of the uterus that is sloughed off approximately every 28 days is called the:
a.
endometrium
b.
myometrium
c.
perimetrium
d.
epimetrium
e.
hypometrium
A

A

138
Q 
Which one of the following is NOT an option for prostate problems:
a.
microwaves to shrink the prostate
b.
surgery
c.
coitus interruptus
d.
drugs such as finasteride
e.
incineration of excess prostate tissue by radiation
A

C

139
Q 
The menstrual cycle is:
a.
7 days long
b.
14 days long
c.
28 days long
d.
40 days long
e.
60 days long
A

C

140
Q

Which one of the following is NOT true of the proliferative state of the menstrual cycle:
a.
it is stimulated by rising estrogen levels
b.
the basal layer of the endometrium regenerates
c.
glands are formed in the endometrium
d.
endometrial blood supply is increased
e.
the endometrium becomes thin and shiny in appearance

A

E

141
Q 
The corpus luteum is a special glandular structure of the ovaries that primarily produces:
a.
estrogen
b.
progesterone
c.
testosterone
d.
interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
e.
luteinizing hormone
A

B

142
Q 
The clusters of specific glands that produce milk when a woman is lactating are called:
a.
lactiferous ducts
b.
areolar glands
c.
mammary glands
d.
alveolar glands
e.
lactating glands
A

D

143
Q 
For a sperm cell to fertilize an ovum, sexual intercourse must occur no more than \_\_\_\_\_ hours before ovulation.
a.
12
b.
24
c.
48
d.
72
e.
90
A

C

144
Q 
The tiny ball of 16 cells found freely floating in the uterine cavity is called a:
a.
blastocyte
b.
zygote
c.
morula
d.
placenta
e.
trophoblast
A

C

145
Q 
Many home pregnancy tests assay for \_\_\_\_\_ within a woman's urine.
a.
human chorionic gonadotropin
b.
estrogen
c.
progesterone
d.
luteinizing hormone
e.
testosterone
A

A

146
Q 
All the organ systems are laid down, at least in rudimentary form, and the embryo looks distinctly human by the \_\_\_\_\_ of embryonic development.
a.
first week
b.
second week
c.
fourth week
d.
eighth week
e.
twelfth week
A

D

147
Q 
Parturition is another term for:
a.
menopause
b.
menses
c.
fertilization
d.
menstruation
e.
childbirth
A

E

148
Q 
Irregular uterine contractions called Braxton Hicks:
a.
signal impending labor
b.
are also known as false labor
c.
are a symptom of placenta previa
d.
are a symptom of abruptio placenta
e.
are a symptom of toxemia
A

B

149
Q 
The stage of labor that involves the delivery of the infant is the:
a.
dilation stage
b.
expulsion stage
c.
secretory phase
d.
placental stage
e.
postpartum stage
A

B

150
Q 
The first menstrual period, which usually occurs at approximately age 13, is called:
a.
menses
b.
menstruation
c.
menopause
d.
menarche
e.
menogen
A

D

Advanced Anatony & Physiology (4 decks)

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