Multiple Choice Review Flashcards
White blood cell with reddish granules; numbers increase in allergic reactions:
a) lymphocyte
b) eosinophil
c) erythrocyte
d) basophil
b) eosinophil
Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:
a) fibrinogen
b) globulin
c) hemoglobin
d) thrombin
e) fibrin
e) fibrin
Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:
a) plasmapheresis
b) hemolysis
c) electrophoresis
d) coagulation time
e) leukapheresis
c) electrophoresis
Foreign material that invades the body:
a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) antibodies
d) antigens
e) granulocytes
d) antigens
Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:
a) serum
b) albumin
c) globulin
d) plasma
e) bilirubin
e) bilirubin
An undifferentiated blood cell is called a/an:
a) granulocyte
b) segmented cell
c) hematopoietic stem cell
d) thrombocyte
e) lymphocyte
c) hematopoietic stem cell
Anticoagulant found in the blood:
a) heparin
b) prothrombin
c) thrombin
d) gamma globulin
e) vitamin B12
a) heparin
A disorder of red blood cell morphology is:
a) multiple myeloma
b) poikilocytosis
c) monocytosis
d) acute myelocytic leukemia
e) hemochromatosis
b) poikilocytosis
Deficiency in numbers of white blood cells:
a) neutropenia
b) hypochromia
c) leukocytosis
d) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e) spherocytosis
a) neutropenia
Immature red blood cell:
a) thrombocyte
b) monoblast
c) segmented
d) erythroblast
e) megakaryoblast
d) erythroblast
Derived from bone marrow:
a) myeloid
b) lymphoid
c) granulocytopenic
d) polymorphonuclear
e) phagocytic
a) myeloid
Breakdown of recipient’s red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:
a) erythrocytosis
b) hemolysis
c) embolism
d) anticoagulation
e) erythropoiesis
b) hemolysis
Sideropenia occurs causing deficient production of hemoglobin:
a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
Reduction in red cells due to excessive cell destruction:
a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia
d) hemolytic anemia
Failure of blood cell production due to absence of formation of cells in the bone marrow:
a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia
c) asplastic anemia
Inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin:
a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia
e) thalassemia
Lack of mature red cells due to inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the body:
a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia
a) pernicious anemia
Excessive deposits of iron throughout the body:
a) polycythemia vera
b) Cooley anemia
c) purpura
d) hemochromatosis
e) thrombocytopenia
d) hemochromatosis
Symptoms of pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of:
a) sickle cell anemia
b) hemostasis
c) acute lymphocytic leukemia
d) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e) hemoglobinopathy
c) acute lymphocytic leukemia
Excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor VIII or IX:
a) autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
b) granulocytosis
c) polycythemia vera
d) erythremia
e) hemophilia
e) hemophilia
Venous blood is clotted in a test tube:
a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology
d) coagulation time
Sample of blood is spun in a test tube so that red cells fall to the bottom and percentage of RBCs is taken:
a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology
a) hematocrit
Blood smear is examined to determine the shape or form of cells:
a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology
e) red blood cell morphology
Leukocytes are stained and counted under a microscope to see numbers of mature and immature forms:
a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology
b) white blood cell differential
Venous blood is collected; anticoagulant added and the distance cells fall in a period of time is determined:
a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
Blood protein that maintains the proper proportion and concentration of water in blood:
a) bilirubin
b) prothrombin
c) fibrinogen
d) albumin
e) globulin
d) albumin
Swelling; fluid leaks out into tissue spaces:
a) petechiae
b) edema
c) ecchymoses
d) dyscrasia
e) autologous transfusion
b) edema
IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE:
a) megakaryocytes
b) eosinophils
c) neutrophils
d) stem cells
e) immunoglobulins
e) immunoglobulins
Symptoms of disease return:
a) palliative
b) relapse
c) hemoglobinopathy
d) remission
e) spherocytosis
b) relapse
Relieving symptoms, but not curing disease:
a) coagulopathy
b) hemostasis
c) hemolysis
d) palliative
e) myelopoiesis
d) palliative
Formation of lymph:
a) lymphocytopenia
b) lymphadenitis
c) lymphedema
d) lymphopoiesis
e) lymphoid
d) lymphopoiesis
Interstitial fluid contains or is:
a) antibodies produced by white blood cells
b) red and white blood cells
c) found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries
d) connective tissue
e) blood clotting factors
c) found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries
All of the following are part of the immune system EXCEPT:
a) lymphocytes
b) platelets
c) monocytes
d) phagocytes
e) antibodies
b) platelets
All of the following describe areas of lymph node concentration EXCEPT:
a) inguinal
b) axillary
c) bone marrow
d) mediastinal
e) cervical
c) bone marrow
Atopy is:
a) an early stage of AIDS
b) a hypersensitivity or allergic state
c) a type of lymphoma
d) a disease found in tropical areas
e) acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus
b) a hypersensitivity or allergic state
Helper or suppressor cells are types of:
a) B cells
b) T cells
c) platelets
d) antigens
e) antibiotics
b) T cells
Examples of immunoglobulins:
a) IgA, IgG, IgE
b) monocytes
c) lymphocytes
d) hepatocytes
e) clotting factors
a) IgA, IgG, IgE
Oropharyngeal lymph tissue:
a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids
d) tonsils
Mediastinal T-cell producer:
a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids
b) thymus
Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue:
a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids
e) adenoids
Abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes:
a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids
a) spleen
Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells:
a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids
c) bone marrow
Cytotoxic cells are:
a) B cell lymphocytes
b) T-cell lymphocytes
c) platelets
d) thrombocytes
e) eosinophils
b) T-cell lymphocytes
Interferons and interleukins are:
a) gamma globulins
b) interstitial fluid
c) antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphocytes
d) produced by B-cell lymphocytes
e) helper cells
c) antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphocytes
Slight increase in numbers of lymphocytes:
a) lymphocytopenia
b) lymphopoiesis
c) lymphoid
d) lymphocytosis
e) lymphedema
d) lymphocytosis
Pertaining to poison:
a) necrotic
b) hypoxic
c) cyanotic
d) toxic
e) stenotic
d) toxic
Computerized x-ray imaging in the transverse plane:
a) CT scan
b) lymphangiogram
c) ultrasonography
d) MRI
e) lymphadenectomy
a) CT scan
HIV is:
a) a malignancy associated with AIDS
b) a drug used to treat AIDS
c) the virus that causes AIDS
d) the test used to detect AIDS
e) a type of lymphoma
c) the virus that causes AIDS
Malignant tumor of lymph nodes:
a) sarcoidosis
b) lymphedema
c) Hodgkin disease
d) hypersplenism
e) lymphocytopenia
c) Hodgkin disease
Viral infection causing blisters on skin of lips, nose, or genitals:
a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
b) Herpes simplex
Cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries, producing bluish red skin nodules:
a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
a) Kaposi sarcoma
Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum. Treatment is with Bactrim:
a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Protozoal (parasitic) infection associated with AIDS. Produces pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis:
a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
d) toxoplasmosis
Fungal infection associated with AIDS. Involves brain and meninges, lungs, and skin:
a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
c) cryptococcus
Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called:
a) yellow bone marrow
b) bone fissure
c) compact bone
d) bone sinus
e) cancellous bone
e) cancellous bone
Outward extension of the shoulder bone is the:
a) xiphoid process
b) acetabulum
c) acromion
d) vertebral arch
e) patella
c) acromion
An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a:
a) fissure
b) sulcus
c) tuberosity
d) foramen
e) fossa
d) foramen
The projection of the temporal bone is the:
a) malleolus
b) epiphysis
c) xiphoid process
d) mastoid process
e) tubercle
d) mastoid process
Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone is called a:
a) fontanelle
b) tuberosity
c) trochanter
d) xiphoid process
e) condyle
e) condyle
Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:
a) face
b) cranium
c) spine
d) pelvis
e) thorax
a) face
Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the:
a) face
b) cranium
c) spine
d) pelvis
e) thorax
b) cranium
The shaft of a long bone is called a/an:
a) olecranon
b) periosteum
c) osteocast
d) epiphysis
e) diaphysis
e) diaphysis
Poor formation of bone:
a) osteolysis
b) osteodystrophy
c) decalcification
d) myelopoiesis
e) osteoclasis
b) osteodystrophy
Slipping or subluxation of a vertebra:
a) spondylitis
b) rachitis
c) kyphosis
d) spondylolisthesis
e) lordosis
d) spondylolisthesis
Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk:
a) patellapexy
b) arthroscopy
c) osteoclasis
d) laminectomy
e) metacarpectomy
d) laminectomy
Lateral curvature of the spinal column:
a) lordosis
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) spina bifida
e) pubic symphysis
b) scoliosis
Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:
a) osteomalacia
b) lumbago
c) osteogenesis imperfecta
d) osteoporosis
e) hypercalcemia
a) osteomalacia
Pertaining to the upper arm bone:
a) humeral
b) tibial
c) radial
d) ulnar
e) carpal
a) humeral
The shoulder bone is the:
a) patella
b) sternum
c) scapula
d) clavicle
e) vertebra
c) scapula
The smaller of the two lower leg bones is the:
a) calcaneus
b) tibia
c) fibula
d) tarsal bone
e) malleolus
c) fibula
Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:
a) osteitis fibrosa cystica
b) multiple myeloma
c) osteomyelitis
d) osteoporosis
e) osteochondroma
c) osteomyelitis
Clubfoot:
a) exostosis
b) osteogenic sarcoma
c) bunion
d) talipes
e) bursitis
d) talipes
A splintered or crushed bone:
a) comminuted fracture
b) greenstick fracture
c) crepitation
d) compression fracture
d) impacted fracture
a) comminuted fracture
Surgical repair of a joint:
a) arthroplasty
b) fasciectomy
c) achondroplasia
d) tenorrhaphy
e) arthrosis
a) arthroplasty
Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint:
a) hemarthrosis
b) fibrositis
c) bursitis
d) kyphosis
e) ankylosis
e) ankylosis
Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage:
a) ankylosing spondylitis
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) chondromalacia
d) osteoarthritis
e) systemic lupus erythematosus
d) osteoarthritis
Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation:
a) bunion
b) bursitis
c) gouty arthritis
d) sciatica
e) myositis
c) gouty arthritis
Malignant tumor of smooth muscle:
a) rhabdomyosarcoma
b) leiomyosarcoma
c) rhabdomyoma
d) leiomyoma
e) myorrhaphy
b) leiomyosarcoma
Wasting away (no development) of muscle:
a) myasthenia
b) myalgia
c) hypertrophy
d) atrophy
e) myositis
d) atrophy
A type of epithelial cell in the epidermis is a:
a) adipocyte
b) neuron
c) chondrocyte
d) histocyte
e) squamous cell
e) squamous cell
Dermis:
a) basal layer of skin
b) middle layer of skin
c) epithelial layer
d) above the epidermis
e) subcutaneous tissue
b) middle layer of skin
A hair protein material found in the epidermis:
a) melanin
b) sebum
c) keratin
d) collagen
e) cerumen
c) keratin
Structural protein found in skin and connective tissue:
a) cartilage
b) collagen
c) cerumen
d) melanin
e) sebum
b) collagen
xer/x means:
a) dry
b) scaly
c) thick
d) yellow
e) white
a) dry
Pertaining to under a nail:
a) hypodermic
b) hypoglossal
c) epidermis
d) subcutaneous
e) subungual
e) subungual
What is a combining form meaning skin?
a) ichthy/o
b) adip/o
c) cutane/o
d) pachy/o
e) xanth/o
c) cutane/o
Absence of pigment in skin:
a) erythroderma
b) melanism
c) xanthoderma
d) dermatitis
e) albinism
e) albinism
Inflammation of the soft tissue around a nail:
a) onychomycosis
b) erythema
c) epidermolysis
d) paronychia
e) dermatitis
d) paronychia
Profuse sweating:
a) anhidrosis
b) diaphoresis
c) hidradenitis
d) seborrhea
e) keratosis
b) diaphoresis
Fungal infection:
a) leukoderma
b) keratosis
c) erythema
d) trichomycosis
e) seborrhea
d) trichomycosis
Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:
a) steatoma
b) lipoma
c) pilosebaceous
d) onychophagia
e) verrucae
a) steatoma
A wheal is a/an:
a) macule
b) wart
c) polyp
d) ulcer
e) hive
e) hive
Bullae:
a) papules
b) macules
c) fissures
d) large blisters
e) nodules
d) large blisters
Pustule:
a) cyst
b) pruritis
c) urticaria
d) small abscess
e) ecchymoses
d) small abscess
Itching:
a) pruritis
b) petechiae
c) alopecia
d) purpura
e) pruritis
e) pruritis
Keloid:
a) thickened scar
b) leukoplakia
c) comedo
d) callus
e) wart
a) thickened scar
Inflammatory disease of the joints and collagen of the skin; can affect other organs of the body:
a) impetigo
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) mycosis fungoides
d) actinic keratosis
e) eczema
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
Moles that can develop into malignant melanoma:
a) basal cell carcinomas
b) squamous cell carcinomas
c) verrucae
d) dysplastic nevi
e) polyps
d) dysplastic nevi
Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:
a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma
d) decubitus ulcer
Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:
a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma
b) psoriasis
A dermatomycosis:
a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma
c) tinea
White patches on a mucous membrane of tongue or cheek:
a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma
a) leukoplakia
Connective tissue in the skin hardens:
a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma
e) scleroderma
Layers of growth are removed and examined microscopically:
a) fungal test
b) scratch test
c) Mohs surgery
d) cryosurgery
e) punch biopsy
c) Mohs surgery
Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eye and is continuous with the white of the eye:
a) fundus
b) ciliary body
c) pupil
d) cornea
e) iris
d) cornea
Yellowish region in the retina; contains the fovea centralis:
a) optic disc
b) posterior chamber
c) macula lutea
d) sclera
e) choroid
c) macula lutea
What eye structure is transparent, biconvex, and focuses light on the retina?
a) conjunctiva
b) lens
c) vitreous body
d) aqueous humor
e) sclera
b) lens
Place where optic nerve fibers cross in the brain:
a) optic disc
b) optic chiasma
c) retina
d) olfactory lobe
e) cerebral cortex
b) optic chiasma
Adjustment of the lens by the ciliary body:
a) accommodation
b) refraction
c) binocular vision
d) photophobia
e) ambylopia
a) accommodation
Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of colour possible:
a) rods
b) cones
c) megakaryocyte
d) optic disc
e) optic chiasm
b) cones
The combining form for cornea is:
a) ocul/o
b) opt/o
c) scler/o
d) choroid/o
e) kerat/o
e) kerat/o
The combining form for the ciliary body is:
a) phak/o
b) lacrim/o
c) irid/o
d) cycl/o
e) dacry/o
d) cycl/o
The meaning of palpebr/o is:
a) eyelid
b) cornea
c) tear gland
d) lens of the eye
e) optic disc
a) eyelid
An eye inflammation commonly called “pinkeye” is:
a) iritis
b) conjunctivitis
c) dacryoadenitis
d) scleritis
e) uveitis
b) conjunctivitis
Impairment of vision due to old age:
a) emmetropia
b) diplopia
c) esotropia
d) presbyopia
e) anisocoria
d) presbyopia
Myopia:
a) nearsightedness
b) farsightedness
c) astigmatism
d) strabismus
e) glaucoma
a) nearsightedness
Astigmatism:
a) localized purulent infection of the eye
b) atrophy of the retina
c) esotropia
d) exotropia
e) defective curvature of the cornea or lens
e) defective curvature of the cornea or lens
Glaucoma is primarily diagnosed by:
a) tonometry
b) ophthalmoscopy
c) slit-lamp biomicroscopy
d) fluorescein angiography
e) visual field exam
a) tonometry
A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area of normal vision:
a) nyctalopia
b) exotropia
c) scotoma
d) esotropia
e) strabismus
c) scotoma
Macular degeneration produces:
a) loss of central vision
b) hemianopia
c) retinal detachment
d) nystagmus
e) cataracts
a) loss of central vision
Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed form a sebaceous gland enlargement:
a) scleral buckle
b) blepharochalasis
c) chalazion
d) cataract
e) steatoma
c) chalazion
Snail-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the:
a) auricle
b) cochlea
c) auditory meatus
d) utricle
e) pinna
b) cochlea
Channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:
a) organ of Corti
b) semicircular canal
c) labyrinth
d) eustachian tube
e) oval window
d) eustachian tube
myring/o means:
a) cerumen
b) tympanic membrane
c) stapes
d) auditory canal
e) semicircular canals
b) tympanic membrane
Bacterial infection of the middle ear:
a) serous otitis media
b) cholesteatoma
c) mastoiditis
d) barotitis
e) suppurative otitis media
e) suppurative otitis media
Tinnitus:
a) hearing loss occurring with old age
b) dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c) ringing sound in ears
d) dysphonia
e) aural discharge
c) ringing sound in ears
Visual examination of the ear:
a) audiometry
b) otoscopy
c) tympanometry
d) tuning fork test
e) ophthalmoscopy
b) otoscopy
Nerve deafness occurring with aging:
a) vertigo
b) Meniere disease
c) acoustic neuroma
d) presbycusis
e) otopyorrhea
d) presbycusis
Fungal infection of the ear:
a) macrotia
b) salpingitis
c) otomycosis
d) cholesteatoma
e) labyrinthitis
c) otomycosis
Which is a function of the thyroid gland?
a) secretes immunologic substances
b) secretes thymosin
c) secretes corticosteroids
d) secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone
e) secretes thyroxine
e) secretes thyroxine
What is another name for the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
a) hypophysis
b) hypothalamus
c) adenohypophysis
d) neurohypophysis
e) thalamus
c) adenohypophysis
Which of the following secretes cortisol?
a) testes
b) ovaries
c) adrenal medulla
d) adrenal cortex
e) pituitary gland
d) adrenal cortex
Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas?
a) estrogen
b) insulin
c) vasopressin
d) epinephrine
e) glucose
b) insulin
Which hormone regulates calcium in the blood and bones?
a) parathyroid hormone
b) thyroxine
c) thyroid-stimulating hormone
d) prolactin
e) prostaglandins
a) parathyroid hormone
Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones?
a) growth hormone
b) ADH
c) ACTH
d) cortisone
e) secretin
c) ACTH
Which is an example of an electrolyte?
a) insulin
b) sodium
c) renin
d) glucagon
e) steroid
b) sodium
Which is an element that is present in thyroxine?
a) iron
b) calcium
c) vitamin D
d) glucose
e) iodine
e) iodine
Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex?
a) follicle-stimulating hormone
b) luteinizing hormone
c) androgen
d) estrogen
e) oxytocin
d) estrogen
Which is a description of gonadotropins?
a) secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
b) stimulate the growth of long bones
c) stimulate glucose uptake in cells
d) secreted by the testes
e) stimulate the secretion of milk
a) secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
What is the term for excessive development of mammary tissue in a male?
a) homeostasis
b) hypogonadism
c) galactorrhea
d) gynecomastia
e) hypernatremia
d) gynecomastia
kal/i is a combining form for which substance?
a) phosphorus
b) sodium
c) calcium
d) milk
e) potassium
e) potassium
Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:
a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema
b) diabetes mellitus
A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex:
a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema
c) Cushing syndrome
Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood:
a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema
e) myxedema
Post-puberty hypersecretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland:
a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema
d) acromegaly
Thyrotoxicosis; hypersecretion of the thyroid gland:
a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema
a) Graves disease
Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?
a) hypergonadism
b) euthyroid
c) goiter
d) hypophyseal enlargement
e) tetany
c) goiter
Exophthalmos is a symptom of which endocrine disorder?
a) endemic goiter
b) thyroid carcinoma
c) Graves disease
d) nodular goiter
e) pituitary gland hypertrophy
c) Graves disease
Which is a description of tetany?
a) constant muscle contraction
b) increased bone growth
c) hypercalcemia
d) hypokalemia
e) hypernatremia
a) constant muscle contraction
natr/o is the combining form for which substance?
a) sugar
b) milk
c) sodium
d) iodine
e) potassium
c) sodium
Characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
a) gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic
b) ketoacidosis seldom occurs
c) treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents
d) little or not insulin produced
e) usually occurs after age 30
d) little or not insulin produced
Which of the following is associated with neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy?
a) hyperthyroidism
b) deficient ADH secretion
c) secondary complications of diabetes mellitus
d) hypergonadism
e) panhypopituitarism
c) secondary complications of diabetes mellitus
Which is a description of achondroplasia?
a) enlargement of the extremities
b) defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
c) tumor of the sella turcica
d) abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult
e) hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland
b) defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
Which is a description of a thyroid scan?
a) CT image of thyroid gland
b) radioimmunoassay of thyroxine in the bloodstream
c) ultrasound image of the neck
d) skull x-ray of the brain
e) administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules
e) administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules
Which term describes the spread of malignant tumors to a distant location?
a) metastasis
b) anaplasia
c) infiltration
d) invasion
e) encapsulation
a) metastasis
Which is an example of a solid tumor derived from epithelial tissue?
a) leiomyoma
b) rhabdomyoma
c) chondrosarcoma
d) adenocarcinoma of the lung
e) Ewing sarcoma
d) adenocarcinoma of the lung
Which is a description of a fungating tumor?
a) open, exposed surface on the tumor
b) containing dead tissue
c) characterized by inflammation
d) large, soft, flesh tumor
e) mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
e) mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other
Which term includes sessile and pedunculated types of growths?
a) polypoid
b) cystic
c) medullary
d) verrucous
e) necrotic
a) polypoid
What term describes localized tumor growth?
a) metastasis
b) carcinoma in situ
c) pleomorphic
d) anaplastic
e) sarcoma
b) carcinoma in situ
Which is a description of scirrhous-type tumors?
a) form small nipple-like projections
b) form microscopic glandular-type sacs
c) hard densely packed tumor cells
d) resemble squamous epithelial cells
e) contain a variety of tumor cells
c) hard densely packed tumor cells
What does staging a tumor mean?
a) assessing the degree of differentiation
b) analyzing the microscopic appearance of tumor cells
c) the tumor has spread
d) assessing the extent of tumor spread
e) treatment involves radiotherapy
d) assessing the extent of tumor spread
What does mutagenic mean?
a) producing a change in the DNA of a cell
b) increased cell growth
c) new growth in numbers of cells
d) tumors are large and fleshy
e) cells are very differentiated
a) producing a change in the DNA of a cell
What does the notation T1N2M0 mean?
a) tumor is localized and no lymph nodes are involved
b) tumor cannot be assessed
c) lymph nodes are not demonstrably abnormal
d) tumor is present with palpable regional lymph nodes and no metastases
e) metastasis to distant lymph nodes is detectable
d) tumor is present with palpable regional lymph nodes and no metastases
What is the definition of a mutation?
a) inheritable change in a cell
b) specialization of cells
c) plan for treatment of an illness
d) cell division
e) giving radiation in small doses
a) inheritable change in a cell
Which is an example of genetic material that causes cancer?
a) vinyl chloride
b) hydrocarbons
c) diethylstilbestrol
d) alkylating agents
e) oncogenes
e) oncogenes
Which is a description of exenteration?
a) malignant tissue is frozen
b) cells are scraped from region
c) tumors are burned
d) wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue
e) material is taken from the vagina or cervix and analyzed microscopically
d) wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue
What is the meaning of fulguration?
a) destruction of tissue by electric sparks
b) treatment with drugs
c) treatment with radiation
d) tumor is removed by surgical excision
e) aspiration biopsy technique
a) destruction of tissue by electric sparks
Which is an example of a known type of inherited cancer?
a) bone cancer
b) lung cancer
c) retinoblastoma
d) basal cell carcinoma
e) adenocarcinoma of the cervix
c) retinoblastoma
What is a definition of modality?
a) method of treatment
b) damage to normal tissue
c) change in genetic material
d) description of the diagnosis
e) death of cells
a) method of treatment
Which is a definition of a radioresistant tumor?
a) tumor is completely eradicated by chemical therapy
b) tumor requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells
c) tumor in which irradiation causes death of cancer cells without damage to surrounding tissue
d) tumor is not significantly affected by drug treatment
e) tumor is resistant to surgical intervention
b) tumor requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells
Which is a description of cauterization?
a) treating a tumor with freezing temperatures
b) treating tissue with heat
c) drying tissue electrically
d) surgical puncture to remove fluid
e) removing cells by scraping the walls of an organ
b) treating tissue with heat
What is apoptosis?
a) type of ionizing radiation
b) programmed cell death
c) prolapse of an eyelid
d) use of drugs to increase to sensitivity to tumors of x-rays
e) abnormal growth of cells
b) programmed cell death
What term means assisting or aiding?
a) lethal
b) fractionation
c) aspiration
d) adjuvant
e) grading
d) adjuvant
Which term is used in treatment of tumors with radiation?
a) steroid
b) antibiotic
c) antimetabolite
d) linear accelerator
e) plant alkaloid
d) linear accelerator
Which is a description of an estrogen receptor assay?
a) tests for the presence of carcinoembryonic antigen in the blood
b) tests for a portion of human chorionic gonadotropin in serum of patients
c) tests of presence of a protein antigen in serum of liver and testicular cancer patients
d) tests the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of breast cancer patients
e) tests for the amount of carcinogenic hormones in the bloodstream of cancer patients
d) tests the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of breast cancer patients
Which best describes a wide surgical incision of the abdomen to detect disease?
a) staging laparotomy
b) liver and spleen scan
c) peritoneoscopy
d) bone marrow biopsy
e) laparoscopy
a) staging laparotomy
What best describes interferon?
a) carcinogen
b) molecularly targeted drug
c) alkylating agent used for chemotherapy
d) type of electron beam
e) biological response modifier
e) biological response modifier
What term means return of symptoms of disease?
a) remission
b) mutation
c) metastasis
d) relapse
e) differentiation
d) relapse
Which term means cancerous tumor derived from bone?
a) adenocarcinoma
b) osteogenic sarcoma
c) osteoma
d) chondrosarcoma
e) Wilms tumor
b) osteogenic sarcoma
A side effect of radiation therapy (redness of skin):
a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema
e) erythema
A side effect of chemotherapy or radiotherapy (hair loss):
a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema
a) alopecia
A side effect of radiation therapy to the lungs (abnormal growth of connective tissue):
a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema
d) fibrosis
Hypoplasia of bone marrow:
a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema
b) myelosuppression
Inflammation of the inner lining of an organ:
a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema
c) mucositis
A forensic psychiatrist specializes in:
a) educational psychology
b) psychoanalysis
c) child psychiatry
d) experimental psychiatry
e) legal aspects of psychiatry
e) legal aspects of psychiatry
Which of the following is a mood disorder?
a) phobia
b) panic attack
c) obsessive-compulsive behaviour
d) psychogenic amnesia
e) manic-depressive illness
e) manic-depressive illness
A term that describes an exaggerated feeling of well-being is:
a) autism
b) paranoia
c) labile
d) euphoria
e) delusion
d) euphoria
An uncontrollable urge to perform an act repeatedly is a/an:
a) conversion
b) compulsion
c) hypochondriasis
d) mania
e) paranoia
b) compulsion
Preoccupation with one’s self and lack of responsiveness to others is a characteristic of:
a) dissociation
b) dysphoria
c) delusion
d) apathy
e) autism
e) autism
False or unreal sensory perceptions are called:
a) obsessions
b) dissociations
c) hallucinations
d) phobias
e) panic disorders
c) hallucinations
What best describes repression?
a) defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
b) a mild depression
c) repetitive acts
d) an involuntary, persistent idea, emotion, or urge
e) delusions of persecution
a) defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
Fear of leaving one’s home is:
a) acrophobia
b) agoraphobia
c) claustrophobia
d) necrophobia
e) social phobia
b) agoraphobia
Which of the following psychotherapies uses free association and transference?
a) hyponosis
b) behaviour therapy
c) psychodrama
d) psychoanalysis
e) sex therapy
d) psychoanalysis
Alternating moods of exalted feelings and excitement with moods of extreme sadness and decreased activity:
a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
Short depressive periods and moods with no psychotic features:
a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder
e) dysthymic disorder
Numerous periods of mania and depression, but not of long duration; no psychotic features:
a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder
b) cyclothymic disorder
Resembling mania, but not as severe:
a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder
d) hypomania
Severe dysphoric mood with psychotic features:
a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder
a) major depression
Grandiose sense of self-importance and preoccupation with fantasies of success and power:
a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid
d) narcissistic
Continually suspicious and mistrustful of other people:
a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid
b) paranoid
No loyalty or concern for others; without moral standards:
a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid
a) antisocial
Emotionally cold and aloof; indifferent to praise or criticism and to the feelings of other:
a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid
e) schizoid
Emotional, immature, and dependent; irrational outbursts and flamboyant behaviour:
a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid
c) histrionic
Mental symptoms such as amnesia hide the pain and anxiety of unconscious conflicts:
a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder
e) dissociative disorder
Physical symptoms appear as a defense against overwhelming anxiety:
a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder
b) conversion disorder
General preoccupation with bodily aches and pains and irrational fear about one’s health:
a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder
a) hypochondriasis
Psychological factors such as anxiety, anger, and fear produce unrealistic body image and reluctance to eat:
a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
Fear of obesity in which binge eating is followed by induced vomiting:
a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder
d) bulimia nervosa
