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NUC0520 MED100c Final Part 2 Study Guide > Multiple Choice Review > Flashcards

Multiple Choice Review Flashcards

1
Q

White blood cell with reddish granules; numbers increase in allergic reactions:

a) lymphocyte
b) eosinophil
c) erythrocyte
d) basophil

A

b) eosinophil

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2
Q

Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:

a) fibrinogen
b) globulin
c) hemoglobin
d) thrombin
e) fibrin

A

e) fibrin

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3
Q

Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:

a) plasmapheresis
b) hemolysis
c) electrophoresis
d) coagulation time
e) leukapheresis

A

c) electrophoresis

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4
Q

Foreign material that invades the body:

a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) antibodies
d) antigens
e) granulocytes

A

d) antigens

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5
Q

Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:

a) serum
b) albumin
c) globulin
d) plasma
e) bilirubin

A

e) bilirubin

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6
Q

An undifferentiated blood cell is called a/an:

a) granulocyte
b) segmented cell
c) hematopoietic stem cell
d) thrombocyte
e) lymphocyte

A

c) hematopoietic stem cell

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7
Q

Anticoagulant found in the blood:

a) heparin
b) prothrombin
c) thrombin
d) gamma globulin
e) vitamin B12

A

a) heparin

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8
Q

A disorder of red blood cell morphology is:

a) multiple myeloma
b) poikilocytosis
c) monocytosis
d) acute myelocytic leukemia
e) hemochromatosis

A

b) poikilocytosis

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9
Q

Deficiency in numbers of white blood cells:

a) neutropenia
b) hypochromia
c) leukocytosis
d) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e) spherocytosis

A

a) neutropenia

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10
Q

Immature red blood cell:

a) thrombocyte
b) monoblast
c) segmented
d) erythroblast
e) megakaryoblast

A

d) erythroblast

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11
Q

Derived from bone marrow:

a) myeloid
b) lymphoid
c) granulocytopenic
d) polymorphonuclear
e) phagocytic

A

a) myeloid

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12
Q

Breakdown of recipient’s red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:

a) erythrocytosis
b) hemolysis
c) embolism
d) anticoagulation
e) erythropoiesis

A

b) hemolysis

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13
Q

Sideropenia occurs causing deficient production of hemoglobin:

a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia

A

b) iron deficiency anemia

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14
Q

Reduction in red cells due to excessive cell destruction:

a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia

A

d) hemolytic anemia

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15
Q

Failure of blood cell production due to absence of formation of cells in the bone marrow:

a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia

A

c) asplastic anemia

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16
Q

Inherited defect in ability to produce hemoglobin:

a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia

A

e) thalassemia

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17
Q

Lack of mature red cells due to inability to absorb vitamin B12 into the body:

a) pernicious anemia
b) iron deficiency anemia
c) asplastic anemia
d) hemolytic anemia
e) thalassemia

A

a) pernicious anemia

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18
Q

Excessive deposits of iron throughout the body:

a) polycythemia vera
b) Cooley anemia
c) purpura
d) hemochromatosis
e) thrombocytopenia

A

d) hemochromatosis

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19
Q

Symptoms of pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of:

a) sickle cell anemia
b) hemostasis
c) acute lymphocytic leukemia
d) chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e) hemoglobinopathy

A

c) acute lymphocytic leukemia

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20
Q

Excessive bleeding caused by congenital lack of factor VIII or IX:

a) autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura
b) granulocytosis
c) polycythemia vera
d) erythremia
e) hemophilia

A

e) hemophilia

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21
Q

Venous blood is clotted in a test tube:

a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology

A

d) coagulation time

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22
Q

Sample of blood is spun in a test tube so that red cells fall to the bottom and percentage of RBCs is taken:

a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology

A

a) hematocrit

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23
Q

Blood smear is examined to determine the shape or form of cells:

a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology

A

e) red blood cell morphology

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24
Q

Leukocytes are stained and counted under a microscope to see numbers of mature and immature forms:

a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology

A

b) white blood cell differential

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25
Q

Venous blood is collected; anticoagulant added and the distance cells fall in a period of time is determined:

a) hematocrit
b) white blood cell differential
c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d) coagulation time
e) red blood cell morphology

A

c) erythrocyte sedimentation rate

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26
Q

Blood protein that maintains the proper proportion and concentration of water in blood:

a) bilirubin
b) prothrombin
c) fibrinogen
d) albumin
e) globulin

A

d) albumin

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27
Q

Swelling; fluid leaks out into tissue spaces:

a) petechiae
b) edema
c) ecchymoses
d) dyscrasia
e) autologous transfusion

A

b) edema

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28
Q

IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE:

a) megakaryocytes
b) eosinophils
c) neutrophils
d) stem cells
e) immunoglobulins

A

e) immunoglobulins

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29
Q

Symptoms of disease return:

a) palliative
b) relapse
c) hemoglobinopathy
d) remission
e) spherocytosis

A

b) relapse

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30
Q

Relieving symptoms, but not curing disease:

a) coagulopathy
b) hemostasis
c) hemolysis
d) palliative
e) myelopoiesis

A

d) palliative

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31
Q

Formation of lymph:

a) lymphocytopenia
b) lymphadenitis
c) lymphedema
d) lymphopoiesis
e) lymphoid

A

d) lymphopoiesis

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32
Q

Interstitial fluid contains or is:

a) antibodies produced by white blood cells
b) red and white blood cells
c) found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries
d) connective tissue
e) blood clotting factors

A

c) found in the spaces between cells and becomes lymph when it enters lymph capillaries

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33
Q

All of the following are part of the immune system EXCEPT:

a) lymphocytes
b) platelets
c) monocytes
d) phagocytes
e) antibodies

A

b) platelets

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34
Q

All of the following describe areas of lymph node concentration EXCEPT:

a) inguinal
b) axillary
c) bone marrow
d) mediastinal
e) cervical

A

c) bone marrow

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35
Q

Atopy is:

a) an early stage of AIDS
b) a hypersensitivity or allergic state
c) a type of lymphoma
d) a disease found in tropical areas
e) acute infectious disease caused by Epstein-Barr virus

A

b) a hypersensitivity or allergic state

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36
Q

Helper or suppressor cells are types of:

a) B cells
b) T cells
c) platelets
d) antigens
e) antibiotics

A

b) T cells

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37
Q

Examples of immunoglobulins:

a) IgA, IgG, IgE
b) monocytes
c) lymphocytes
d) hepatocytes
e) clotting factors

A

a) IgA, IgG, IgE

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38
Q

Oropharyngeal lymph tissue:

a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids

A

d) tonsils

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39
Q

Mediastinal T-cell producer:

a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids

A

b) thymus

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40
Q

Nasopharyngeal lymph tissue:

a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids

A

e) adenoids

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41
Q

Abdominal organ that filters erythrocytes and activates lymphocytes:

a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids

A

a) spleen

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42
Q

Produces lymphocytes and monocytes and all other blood cells:

a) spleen
b) thymus
c) bone marrow
d) tonsils
e) adenoids

A

c) bone marrow

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43
Q

Cytotoxic cells are:

a) B cell lymphocytes
b) T-cell lymphocytes
c) platelets
d) thrombocytes
e) eosinophils

A

b) T-cell lymphocytes

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44
Q

Interferons and interleukins are:

a) gamma globulins
b) interstitial fluid
c) antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphocytes
d) produced by B-cell lymphocytes
e) helper cells

A

c) antiviral proteins produced by T-cell lymphocytes

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45
Q

Slight increase in numbers of lymphocytes:

a) lymphocytopenia
b) lymphopoiesis
c) lymphoid
d) lymphocytosis
e) lymphedema

A

d) lymphocytosis

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46
Q

Pertaining to poison:

a) necrotic
b) hypoxic
c) cyanotic
d) toxic
e) stenotic

A

d) toxic

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47
Q

Computerized x-ray imaging in the transverse plane:

a) CT scan
b) lymphangiogram
c) ultrasonography
d) MRI
e) lymphadenectomy

A

a) CT scan

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48
Q

HIV is:

a) a malignancy associated with AIDS
b) a drug used to treat AIDS
c) the virus that causes AIDS
d) the test used to detect AIDS
e) a type of lymphoma

A

c) the virus that causes AIDS

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49
Q

Malignant tumor of lymph nodes:

a) sarcoidosis
b) lymphedema
c) Hodgkin disease
d) hypersplenism
e) lymphocytopenia

A

c) Hodgkin disease

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50
Q

Viral infection causing blisters on skin of lips, nose, or genitals:

a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

A

b) Herpes simplex

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51
Q

Cancer arising from the lining cells of capillaries, producing bluish red skin nodules:

a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

A

a) Kaposi sarcoma

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52
Q

Major lung infection with fever, cough, chest pain, and sputum. Treatment is with Bactrim:

a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

A

e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

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53
Q

Protozoal (parasitic) infection associated with AIDS. Produces pneumonitis, hepatitis, and encephalitis:

a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

A

d) toxoplasmosis

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54
Q

Fungal infection associated with AIDS. Involves brain and meninges, lungs, and skin:

a) Kaposi sarcoma
b) Herpes simplex
c) cryptococcus
d) toxoplasmosis
e) Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia

A

c) cryptococcus

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55
Q

Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called:

a) yellow bone marrow
b) bone fissure
c) compact bone
d) bone sinus
e) cancellous bone

A

e) cancellous bone

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56
Q

Outward extension of the shoulder bone is the:

a) xiphoid process
b) acetabulum
c) acromion
d) vertebral arch
e) patella

A

c) acromion

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57
Q

An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a:

a) fissure
b) sulcus
c) tuberosity
d) foramen
e) fossa

A

d) foramen

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58
Q

The projection of the temporal bone is the:

a) malleolus
b) epiphysis
c) xiphoid process
d) mastoid process
e) tubercle

A

d) mastoid process

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59
Q

Knuckle-like process at the end of a bone is called a:

a) fontanelle
b) tuberosity
c) trochanter
d) xiphoid process
e) condyle

A

e) condyle

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60
Q

Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:

a) face
b) cranium
c) spine
d) pelvis
e) thorax

A

a) face

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61
Q

Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the:

a) face
b) cranium
c) spine
d) pelvis
e) thorax

A

b) cranium

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62
Q

The shaft of a long bone is called a/an:

a) olecranon
b) periosteum
c) osteocast
d) epiphysis
e) diaphysis

A

e) diaphysis

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63
Q

Poor formation of bone:

a) osteolysis
b) osteodystrophy
c) decalcification
d) myelopoiesis
e) osteoclasis

A

b) osteodystrophy

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64
Q

Slipping or subluxation of a vertebra:

a) spondylitis
b) rachitis
c) kyphosis
d) spondylolisthesis
e) lordosis

A

d) spondylolisthesis

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65
Q

Operation performed to relieve the symptoms of a slipped disk:

a) patellapexy
b) arthroscopy
c) osteoclasis
d) laminectomy
e) metacarpectomy

A

d) laminectomy

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66
Q

Lateral curvature of the spinal column:

a) lordosis
b) scoliosis
c) kyphosis
d) spina bifida
e) pubic symphysis

A

b) scoliosis

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67
Q

Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:

a) osteomalacia
b) lumbago
c) osteogenesis imperfecta
d) osteoporosis
e) hypercalcemia

A

a) osteomalacia

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68
Q

Pertaining to the upper arm bone:

a) humeral
b) tibial
c) radial
d) ulnar
e) carpal

A

a) humeral

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69
Q

The shoulder bone is the:

a) patella
b) sternum
c) scapula
d) clavicle
e) vertebra

A

c) scapula

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70
Q

The smaller of the two lower leg bones is the:

a) calcaneus
b) tibia
c) fibula
d) tarsal bone
e) malleolus

A

c) fibula

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71
Q

Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:

a) osteitis fibrosa cystica
b) multiple myeloma
c) osteomyelitis
d) osteoporosis
e) osteochondroma

A

c) osteomyelitis

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72
Q

Clubfoot:

a) exostosis
b) osteogenic sarcoma
c) bunion
d) talipes
e) bursitis

A

d) talipes

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73
Q

A splintered or crushed bone:

a) comminuted fracture
b) greenstick fracture
c) crepitation
d) compression fracture
d) impacted fracture

A

a) comminuted fracture

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74
Q

Surgical repair of a joint:

a) arthroplasty
b) fasciectomy
c) achondroplasia
d) tenorrhaphy
e) arthrosis

A

a) arthroplasty

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75
Q

Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint:

a) hemarthrosis
b) fibrositis
c) bursitis
d) kyphosis
e) ankylosis

A

e) ankylosis

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76
Q

Chronic inflammation of bones and joints due to degenerative changes in cartilage:

a) ankylosing spondylitis
b) rheumatoid arthritis
c) chondromalacia
d) osteoarthritis
e) systemic lupus erythematosus

A

d) osteoarthritis

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77
Q

Inflammation of joints caused by excessive uric acid accumulation:

a) bunion
b) bursitis
c) gouty arthritis
d) sciatica
e) myositis

A

c) gouty arthritis

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78
Q

Malignant tumor of smooth muscle:

a) rhabdomyosarcoma
b) leiomyosarcoma
c) rhabdomyoma
d) leiomyoma
e) myorrhaphy

A

b) leiomyosarcoma

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79
Q

Wasting away (no development) of muscle:

a) myasthenia
b) myalgia
c) hypertrophy
d) atrophy
e) myositis

A

d) atrophy

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80
Q

A type of epithelial cell in the epidermis is a:

a) adipocyte
b) neuron
c) chondrocyte
d) histocyte
e) squamous cell

A

e) squamous cell

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81
Q

Dermis:

a) basal layer of skin
b) middle layer of skin
c) epithelial layer
d) above the epidermis
e) subcutaneous tissue

A

b) middle layer of skin

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82
Q

A hair protein material found in the epidermis:

a) melanin
b) sebum
c) keratin
d) collagen
e) cerumen

A

c) keratin

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83
Q

Structural protein found in skin and connective tissue:

a) cartilage
b) collagen
c) cerumen
d) melanin
e) sebum

A

b) collagen

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84
Q

xer/x means:

a) dry
b) scaly
c) thick
d) yellow
e) white

A

a) dry

85
Q

Pertaining to under a nail:

a) hypodermic
b) hypoglossal
c) epidermis
d) subcutaneous
e) subungual

A

e) subungual

86
Q

What is a combining form meaning skin?

a) ichthy/o
b) adip/o
c) cutane/o
d) pachy/o
e) xanth/o

A

c) cutane/o

87
Q

Absence of pigment in skin:

a) erythroderma
b) melanism
c) xanthoderma
d) dermatitis
e) albinism

A

e) albinism

88
Q

Inflammation of the soft tissue around a nail:

a) onychomycosis
b) erythema
c) epidermolysis
d) paronychia
e) dermatitis

A

d) paronychia

89
Q

Profuse sweating:

a) anhidrosis
b) diaphoresis
c) hidradenitis
d) seborrhea
e) keratosis

A

b) diaphoresis

90
Q

Fungal infection:

a) leukoderma
b) keratosis
c) erythema
d) trichomycosis
e) seborrhea

A

d) trichomycosis

91
Q

Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:

a) steatoma
b) lipoma
c) pilosebaceous
d) onychophagia
e) verrucae

A

a) steatoma

92
Q

A wheal is a/an:

a) macule
b) wart
c) polyp
d) ulcer
e) hive

A

e) hive

93
Q

Bullae:

a) papules
b) macules
c) fissures
d) large blisters
e) nodules

A

d) large blisters

94
Q

Pustule:

a) cyst
b) pruritis
c) urticaria
d) small abscess
e) ecchymoses

A

d) small abscess

95
Q

Itching:

a) pruritis
b) petechiae
c) alopecia
d) purpura
e) pruritis

A

e) pruritis

96
Q

Keloid:

a) thickened scar
b) leukoplakia
c) comedo
d) callus
e) wart

A

a) thickened scar

97
Q

Inflammatory disease of the joints and collagen of the skin; can affect other organs of the body:

a) impetigo
b) systemic lupus erythematosus
c) mycosis fungoides
d) actinic keratosis
e) eczema

A

b) systemic lupus erythematosus

98
Q

Moles that can develop into malignant melanoma:

a) basal cell carcinomas
b) squamous cell carcinomas
c) verrucae
d) dysplastic nevi
e) polyps

A

d) dysplastic nevi

99
Q

Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:

a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma

A

d) decubitus ulcer

100
Q

Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:

a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma

A

b) psoriasis

101
Q

A dermatomycosis:

a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma

A

c) tinea

102
Q

White patches on a mucous membrane of tongue or cheek:

a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma

A

a) leukoplakia

103
Q

Connective tissue in the skin hardens:

a) leukoplakia
b) psoriasis
c) tinea
d) decubitus ulcer
e) scleroderma

A

e) scleroderma

104
Q

Layers of growth are removed and examined microscopically:

a) fungal test
b) scratch test
c) Mohs surgery
d) cryosurgery
e) punch biopsy

A

c) Mohs surgery

105
Q

Fibrous layer of clear tissue that extends over the anterior portion of the eye and is continuous with the white of the eye:

a) fundus
b) ciliary body
c) pupil
d) cornea
e) iris

A

d) cornea

106
Q

Yellowish region in the retina; contains the fovea centralis:

a) optic disc
b) posterior chamber
c) macula lutea
d) sclera
e) choroid

A

c) macula lutea

107
Q

What eye structure is transparent, biconvex, and focuses light on the retina?

a) conjunctiva
b) lens
c) vitreous body
d) aqueous humor
e) sclera

A

b) lens

108
Q

Place where optic nerve fibers cross in the brain:

a) optic disc
b) optic chiasma
c) retina
d) olfactory lobe
e) cerebral cortex

A

b) optic chiasma

109
Q

Adjustment of the lens by the ciliary body:

a) accommodation
b) refraction
c) binocular vision
d) photophobia
e) ambylopia

A

a) accommodation

110
Q

Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of colour possible:

a) rods
b) cones
c) megakaryocyte
d) optic disc
e) optic chiasm

A

b) cones

111
Q

The combining form for cornea is:

a) ocul/o
b) opt/o
c) scler/o
d) choroid/o
e) kerat/o

A

e) kerat/o

112
Q

The combining form for the ciliary body is:

a) phak/o
b) lacrim/o
c) irid/o
d) cycl/o
e) dacry/o

A

d) cycl/o

113
Q

The meaning of palpebr/o is:

a) eyelid
b) cornea
c) tear gland
d) lens of the eye
e) optic disc

A

a) eyelid

114
Q

An eye inflammation commonly called “pinkeye” is:

a) iritis
b) conjunctivitis
c) dacryoadenitis
d) scleritis
e) uveitis

A

b) conjunctivitis

115
Q

Impairment of vision due to old age:

a) emmetropia
b) diplopia
c) esotropia
d) presbyopia
e) anisocoria

A

d) presbyopia

116
Q

Myopia:

a) nearsightedness
b) farsightedness
c) astigmatism
d) strabismus
e) glaucoma

A

a) nearsightedness

117
Q

Astigmatism:

a) localized purulent infection of the eye
b) atrophy of the retina
c) esotropia
d) exotropia
e) defective curvature of the cornea or lens

A

e) defective curvature of the cornea or lens

118
Q

Glaucoma is primarily diagnosed by:

a) tonometry
b) ophthalmoscopy
c) slit-lamp biomicroscopy
d) fluorescein angiography
e) visual field exam

A

a) tonometry

119
Q

A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area of normal vision:

a) nyctalopia
b) exotropia
c) scotoma
d) esotropia
e) strabismus

A

c) scotoma

120
Q

Macular degeneration produces:

a) loss of central vision
b) hemianopia
c) retinal detachment
d) nystagmus
e) cataracts

A

a) loss of central vision

121
Q

Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed form a sebaceous gland enlargement:

a) scleral buckle
b) blepharochalasis
c) chalazion
d) cataract
e) steatoma

A

c) chalazion

122
Q

Snail-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the:

a) auricle
b) cochlea
c) auditory meatus
d) utricle
e) pinna

A

b) cochlea

123
Q

Channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:

a) organ of Corti
b) semicircular canal
c) labyrinth
d) eustachian tube
e) oval window

A

d) eustachian tube

124
Q

myring/o means:

a) cerumen
b) tympanic membrane
c) stapes
d) auditory canal
e) semicircular canals

A

b) tympanic membrane

125
Q

Bacterial infection of the middle ear:

a) serous otitis media
b) cholesteatoma
c) mastoiditis
d) barotitis
e) suppurative otitis media

A

e) suppurative otitis media

126
Q

Tinnitus:

a) hearing loss occurring with old age
b) dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c) ringing sound in ears
d) dysphonia
e) aural discharge

A

c) ringing sound in ears

127
Q

Visual examination of the ear:

a) audiometry
b) otoscopy
c) tympanometry
d) tuning fork test
e) ophthalmoscopy

A

b) otoscopy

128
Q

Nerve deafness occurring with aging:

a) vertigo
b) Meniere disease
c) acoustic neuroma
d) presbycusis
e) otopyorrhea

A

d) presbycusis

129
Q

Fungal infection of the ear:

a) macrotia
b) salpingitis
c) otomycosis
d) cholesteatoma
e) labyrinthitis

A

c) otomycosis

130
Q

Which is a function of the thyroid gland?

a) secretes immunologic substances
b) secretes thymosin
c) secretes corticosteroids
d) secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone
e) secretes thyroxine

A

e) secretes thyroxine

131
Q

What is another name for the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

a) hypophysis
b) hypothalamus
c) adenohypophysis
d) neurohypophysis
e) thalamus

A

c) adenohypophysis

132
Q

Which of the following secretes cortisol?

a) testes
b) ovaries
c) adrenal medulla
d) adrenal cortex
e) pituitary gland

A

d) adrenal cortex

133
Q

Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas?

a) estrogen
b) insulin
c) vasopressin
d) epinephrine
e) glucose

A

b) insulin

134
Q

Which hormone regulates calcium in the blood and bones?

a) parathyroid hormone
b) thyroxine
c) thyroid-stimulating hormone
d) prolactin
e) prostaglandins

A

a) parathyroid hormone

135
Q

Which hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete hormones?

a) growth hormone
b) ADH
c) ACTH
d) cortisone
e) secretin

A

c) ACTH

136
Q

Which is an example of an electrolyte?

a) insulin
b) sodium
c) renin
d) glucagon
e) steroid

A

b) sodium

137
Q

Which is an element that is present in thyroxine?

a) iron
b) calcium
c) vitamin D
d) glucose
e) iodine

A

e) iodine

138
Q

Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex?

a) follicle-stimulating hormone
b) luteinizing hormone
c) androgen
d) estrogen
e) oxytocin

A

d) estrogen

139
Q

Which is a description of gonadotropins?

a) secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
b) stimulate the growth of long bones
c) stimulate glucose uptake in cells
d) secreted by the testes
e) stimulate the secretion of milk

A

a) secreted by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

140
Q

What is the term for excessive development of mammary tissue in a male?

a) homeostasis
b) hypogonadism
c) galactorrhea
d) gynecomastia
e) hypernatremia

A

d) gynecomastia

141
Q

kal/i is a combining form for which substance?

a) phosphorus
b) sodium
c) calcium
d) milk
e) potassium

A

e) potassium

142
Q

Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:

a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema

A

b) diabetes mellitus

143
Q

A group of symptoms produced by excess of cortisol from the adrenal cortex:

a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema

A

c) Cushing syndrome

144
Q

Advanced hypothyroidism in adulthood:

a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema

A

e) myxedema

145
Q

Post-puberty hypersecretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland:

a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema

A

d) acromegaly

146
Q

Thyrotoxicosis; hypersecretion of the thyroid gland:

a) Graves disease
b) diabetes mellitus
c) Cushing syndrome
d) acromegaly
e) myxedema

A

a) Graves disease

147
Q

Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?

a) hypergonadism
b) euthyroid
c) goiter
d) hypophyseal enlargement
e) tetany

A

c) goiter

148
Q

Exophthalmos is a symptom of which endocrine disorder?

a) endemic goiter
b) thyroid carcinoma
c) Graves disease
d) nodular goiter
e) pituitary gland hypertrophy

A

c) Graves disease

149
Q

Which is a description of tetany?

a) constant muscle contraction
b) increased bone growth
c) hypercalcemia
d) hypokalemia
e) hypernatremia

A

a) constant muscle contraction

150
Q

natr/o is the combining form for which substance?

a) sugar
b) milk
c) sodium
d) iodine
e) potassium

A

c) sodium

151
Q

Characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a) gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic
b) ketoacidosis seldom occurs
c) treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents
d) little or not insulin produced
e) usually occurs after age 30

A

d) little or not insulin produced

152
Q

Which of the following is associated with neuropathy, nephropathy, and retinopathy?

a) hyperthyroidism
b) deficient ADH secretion
c) secondary complications of diabetes mellitus
d) hypergonadism
e) panhypopituitarism

A

c) secondary complications of diabetes mellitus

153
Q

Which is a description of achondroplasia?

a) enlargement of the extremities
b) defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
c) tumor of the sella turcica
d) abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult
e) hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland

A

b) defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth

154
Q

Which is a description of a thyroid scan?

a) CT image of thyroid gland
b) radioimmunoassay of thyroxine in the bloodstream
c) ultrasound image of the neck
d) skull x-ray of the brain
e) administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules

A

e) administration of radioactive compound and visualization with a scanner to detect tumors or nodules

155
Q

Which term describes the spread of malignant tumors to a distant location?

a) metastasis
b) anaplasia
c) infiltration
d) invasion
e) encapsulation

A

a) metastasis

156
Q

Which is an example of a solid tumor derived from epithelial tissue?

a) leiomyoma
b) rhabdomyoma
c) chondrosarcoma
d) adenocarcinoma of the lung
e) Ewing sarcoma

A

d) adenocarcinoma of the lung

157
Q

Which is a description of a fungating tumor?

a) open, exposed surface on the tumor
b) containing dead tissue
c) characterized by inflammation
d) large, soft, flesh tumor
e) mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other

A

e) mushrooming pattern of growth as tumor cells pile on top of each other

158
Q

Which term includes sessile and pedunculated types of growths?

a) polypoid
b) cystic
c) medullary
d) verrucous
e) necrotic

A

a) polypoid

159
Q

What term describes localized tumor growth?

a) metastasis
b) carcinoma in situ
c) pleomorphic
d) anaplastic
e) sarcoma

A

b) carcinoma in situ

160
Q

Which is a description of scirrhous-type tumors?

a) form small nipple-like projections
b) form microscopic glandular-type sacs
c) hard densely packed tumor cells
d) resemble squamous epithelial cells
e) contain a variety of tumor cells

A

c) hard densely packed tumor cells

161
Q

What does staging a tumor mean?

a) assessing the degree of differentiation
b) analyzing the microscopic appearance of tumor cells
c) the tumor has spread
d) assessing the extent of tumor spread
e) treatment involves radiotherapy

A

d) assessing the extent of tumor spread

162
Q

What does mutagenic mean?

a) producing a change in the DNA of a cell
b) increased cell growth
c) new growth in numbers of cells
d) tumors are large and fleshy
e) cells are very differentiated

A

a) producing a change in the DNA of a cell

163
Q

What does the notation T1N2M0 mean?

a) tumor is localized and no lymph nodes are involved
b) tumor cannot be assessed
c) lymph nodes are not demonstrably abnormal
d) tumor is present with palpable regional lymph nodes and no metastases
e) metastasis to distant lymph nodes is detectable

A

d) tumor is present with palpable regional lymph nodes and no metastases

164
Q

What is the definition of a mutation?

a) inheritable change in a cell
b) specialization of cells
c) plan for treatment of an illness
d) cell division
e) giving radiation in small doses

A

a) inheritable change in a cell

165
Q

Which is an example of genetic material that causes cancer?

a) vinyl chloride
b) hydrocarbons
c) diethylstilbestrol
d) alkylating agents
e) oncogenes

A

e) oncogenes

166
Q

Which is a description of exenteration?

a) malignant tissue is frozen
b) cells are scraped from region
c) tumors are burned
d) wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue
e) material is taken from the vagina or cervix and analyzed microscopically

A

d) wide resection of tumor and removal of surrounding tissue

167
Q

What is the meaning of fulguration?

a) destruction of tissue by electric sparks
b) treatment with drugs
c) treatment with radiation
d) tumor is removed by surgical excision
e) aspiration biopsy technique

A

a) destruction of tissue by electric sparks

168
Q

Which is an example of a known type of inherited cancer?

a) bone cancer
b) lung cancer
c) retinoblastoma
d) basal cell carcinoma
e) adenocarcinoma of the cervix

A

c) retinoblastoma

169
Q

What is a definition of modality?

a) method of treatment
b) damage to normal tissue
c) change in genetic material
d) description of the diagnosis
e) death of cells

A

a) method of treatment

170
Q

Which is a definition of a radioresistant tumor?

a) tumor is completely eradicated by chemical therapy
b) tumor requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells
c) tumor in which irradiation causes death of cancer cells without damage to surrounding tissue
d) tumor is not significantly affected by drug treatment
e) tumor is resistant to surgical intervention

A

b) tumor requires large doses of radiation to produce death of cells

171
Q

Which is a description of cauterization?

a) treating a tumor with freezing temperatures
b) treating tissue with heat
c) drying tissue electrically
d) surgical puncture to remove fluid
e) removing cells by scraping the walls of an organ

A

b) treating tissue with heat

172
Q

What is apoptosis?

a) type of ionizing radiation
b) programmed cell death
c) prolapse of an eyelid
d) use of drugs to increase to sensitivity to tumors of x-rays
e) abnormal growth of cells

A

b) programmed cell death

173
Q

What term means assisting or aiding?

a) lethal
b) fractionation
c) aspiration
d) adjuvant
e) grading

A

d) adjuvant

174
Q

Which term is used in treatment of tumors with radiation?

a) steroid
b) antibiotic
c) antimetabolite
d) linear accelerator
e) plant alkaloid

A

d) linear accelerator

175
Q

Which is a description of an estrogen receptor assay?

a) tests for the presence of carcinoembryonic antigen in the blood
b) tests for a portion of human chorionic gonadotropin in serum of patients
c) tests of presence of a protein antigen in serum of liver and testicular cancer patients
d) tests the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of breast cancer patients
e) tests for the amount of carcinogenic hormones in the bloodstream of cancer patients

A

d) tests the concentration of hormone receptor sites in cells of breast cancer patients

176
Q

Which best describes a wide surgical incision of the abdomen to detect disease?

a) staging laparotomy
b) liver and spleen scan
c) peritoneoscopy
d) bone marrow biopsy
e) laparoscopy

A

a) staging laparotomy

177
Q

What best describes interferon?

a) carcinogen
b) molecularly targeted drug
c) alkylating agent used for chemotherapy
d) type of electron beam
e) biological response modifier

A

e) biological response modifier

178
Q

What term means return of symptoms of disease?

a) remission
b) mutation
c) metastasis
d) relapse
e) differentiation

A

d) relapse

179
Q

Which term means cancerous tumor derived from bone?

a) adenocarcinoma
b) osteogenic sarcoma
c) osteoma
d) chondrosarcoma
e) Wilms tumor

A

b) osteogenic sarcoma

180
Q

A side effect of radiation therapy (redness of skin):

a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema

A

e) erythema

181
Q

A side effect of chemotherapy or radiotherapy (hair loss):

a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema

A

a) alopecia

182
Q

A side effect of radiation therapy to the lungs (abnormal growth of connective tissue):

a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema

A

d) fibrosis

183
Q

Hypoplasia of bone marrow:

a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema

A

b) myelosuppression

184
Q

Inflammation of the inner lining of an organ:

a) alopecia
b) myelosuppression
c) mucositis
d) fibrosis
e) erythema

A

c) mucositis

185
Q

A forensic psychiatrist specializes in:

a) educational psychology
b) psychoanalysis
c) child psychiatry
d) experimental psychiatry
e) legal aspects of psychiatry

A

e) legal aspects of psychiatry

186
Q

Which of the following is a mood disorder?

a) phobia
b) panic attack
c) obsessive-compulsive behaviour
d) psychogenic amnesia
e) manic-depressive illness

A

e) manic-depressive illness

187
Q

A term that describes an exaggerated feeling of well-being is:

a) autism
b) paranoia
c) labile
d) euphoria
e) delusion

A

d) euphoria

188
Q

An uncontrollable urge to perform an act repeatedly is a/an:

a) conversion
b) compulsion
c) hypochondriasis
d) mania
e) paranoia

A

b) compulsion

189
Q

Preoccupation with one’s self and lack of responsiveness to others is a characteristic of:

a) dissociation
b) dysphoria
c) delusion
d) apathy
e) autism

A

e) autism

190
Q

False or unreal sensory perceptions are called:

a) obsessions
b) dissociations
c) hallucinations
d) phobias
e) panic disorders

A

c) hallucinations

191
Q

What best describes repression?

a) defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious
b) a mild depression
c) repetitive acts
d) an involuntary, persistent idea, emotion, or urge
e) delusions of persecution

A

a) defense mechanism in which unacceptable thoughts are pushed into the unconscious

192
Q

Fear of leaving one’s home is:

a) acrophobia
b) agoraphobia
c) claustrophobia
d) necrophobia
e) social phobia

A

b) agoraphobia

193
Q

Which of the following psychotherapies uses free association and transference?

a) hyponosis
b) behaviour therapy
c) psychodrama
d) psychoanalysis
e) sex therapy

A

d) psychoanalysis

194
Q

Alternating moods of exalted feelings and excitement with moods of extreme sadness and decreased activity:

a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder

A

c) bipolar disorder

195
Q

Short depressive periods and moods with no psychotic features:

a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder

A

e) dysthymic disorder

196
Q

Numerous periods of mania and depression, but not of long duration; no psychotic features:

a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder

A

b) cyclothymic disorder

197
Q

Resembling mania, but not as severe:

a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder

A

d) hypomania

198
Q

Severe dysphoric mood with psychotic features:

a) major depression
b) cyclothymic disorder
c) bipolar disorder
d) hypomania
e) dysthymic disorder

A

a) major depression

199
Q

Grandiose sense of self-importance and preoccupation with fantasies of success and power:

a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid

A

d) narcissistic

200
Q

Continually suspicious and mistrustful of other people:

a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid

A

b) paranoid

201
Q

No loyalty or concern for others; without moral standards:

a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid

A

a) antisocial

202
Q

Emotionally cold and aloof; indifferent to praise or criticism and to the feelings of other:

a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid

A

e) schizoid

203
Q

Emotional, immature, and dependent; irrational outbursts and flamboyant behaviour:

a) antisocial
b) paranoid
c) histrionic
d) narcissistic
e) schizoid

A

c) histrionic

204
Q

Mental symptoms such as amnesia hide the pain and anxiety of unconscious conflicts:

a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder

A

e) dissociative disorder

205
Q

Physical symptoms appear as a defense against overwhelming anxiety:

a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder

A

b) conversion disorder

206
Q

General preoccupation with bodily aches and pains and irrational fear about one’s health:

a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder

A

a) hypochondriasis

207
Q

Psychological factors such as anxiety, anger, and fear produce unrealistic body image and reluctance to eat:

a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder

A

c) anorexia nervosa

208
Q

Fear of obesity in which binge eating is followed by induced vomiting:

a) hypochondriasis
b) conversion disorder
c) anorexia nervosa
d) bulimia nervosa
e) dissociative disorder

A

d) bulimia nervosa

NUC0520 MED100c Final Part 2 Study Guide (6 decks)

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