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Entrance Prep > Multiple Choice Questions- bio > Flashcards

Multiple Choice Questions- bio Flashcards

1
Q

In the formation of the secondary structure of a protein, which of the following are most responsible for holding an alpha-helix region in its helical form?

A. Ionic bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Hydrophobic interactions
D. Van der waals interactions

A

B. Hydrogen bonds

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2
Q

Which of the following is an anticodon?

A. The part of a DNA molecule that codes for chain termination
B. A 3-nucleotide sequence of an mRNA molecule
C. A specific part of a tRNA molecule
D. A nucleotide triplet of an rRNA molecule

A

C. A specific part of a tRNA molecule

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3
Q

Which of the following is not a polymer?

A. Glucose
B. Starch
C. Cellulose
D. DNA

A

A. Glucose

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4
Q

Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?

A. Peptide bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Phosphodiester bonds

A

A. Peptide bonds

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5
Q

What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?

A. Peptide bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Disulphide bonds
D. Phosphodiester bonds

A

B. Hydrogen bonds

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6
Q

If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 80

A

C. 40

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7
Q

Which of the following statements best summarises the structural differences between DNA and RNA?

A. RNA is a protein, whereas DNA is a nucleic acid
B. DNA is a protein, whereas RNA is a nucleic acid
C. DNA nucleotides contain different sugar than RNA nucleotides
D. RNA is double helix but DNA is single stranded

A

C. DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides

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8
Q

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

A. Sugar phosphate backbone
B. Complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases
C. Disulphide bonding( bridging) of the two helixes
D. Twisting of the molecule to form an a helix

A

B. Complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases

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9
Q

Enzymes are ..

A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acids

A

C. Proteins

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10
Q

Polypeptides are assembled from

A. Hexoses
B. Glycerol
C. Nucleotides
D. Amino acids

A

D. Amino acids

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11
Q

What is the name given to the processes in which the information encoded in a strand of mRNA is used to construct a protein?

A. RNA processing
B. Gene expression
C. Transcription
D. Translation

A

D. Translation

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12
Q

What is the name given to the processes in which a strand of DNA is used as a template for the manufacture of a strand of pre-mRNA?

A. RNA processing
B. Polypeptide formation
C. Transcription
D. Translation

A

C. Transcription

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13
Q

Which of the following is a false statement regarding deoxyribonucleic acid( DNA)?

A. Each deoxyribonucleic acid molecule is composed of two long chains of nucleotides arranged in a double helix
B. Genes are composed of deoxyribonucleic acid
C. DNA is composed of chemical building blocks called nucleotides
D. DNA is an enzyme that puts together amino acids to make a protein

A

D. DNA is an enzyme that puts together amino acids to make a protein

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14
Q

A type of protein critical to all cells is an organic catalyst called

A. Vitamin
B. Enzyme
C. Metabolite
D. Nutrient

A

B. Enzyme

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15
Q

What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

A. Hydrolysis
B. Dehydration reactions
C. Ionic bonding of monomers
D. The formation of disulphide bridges between monomers

A

B. Dehydration reactions

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16
Q

There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?

A. Different carboxyl groups attached to an alpha carbon
B. Different amino groups attached to an alpha carbon
C. Different side chains( R groups) attached to an alpha carbon
D. Different alpha carbons

A

C. Different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha carbons

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17
Q

Polysaccharides, lipids and proteins are similar in that they

A. Are synthesised from monomers by the process of hydrolysis
B. Are synthesised from monomers by dehydration reactions
C. Are synthesised as a result of a peptide bond formation between monomers
D. Are decomposed into their subunits by dehydration reactions

A

B. Are synthesised from monomers by dehydration reactions

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18
Q

Which type of interaction stabilises the alpha helix and the beta sheet?

A. Nonpolar covalent binds
B. Ionic bonds
C. Hydrogen bonds
D. Peptide bonds

A

C. Hydrogen bonds

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19
Q

The alpha helix and beta sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of the protein structure?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

A

B. Secondary

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20
Q

The tertiary structure of a protein is the

A. Bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds
B. Order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain
C. Unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide chain
D. Organisation of a polypeptide chain into an alpha helix or beta pleated sheet

A

C. Unique three dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide chain into an alpha helix or beta pleated sheet

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?

A. DNA->RNA->proteins
B. RNA->proteins-> RNA
C. Proteins->DNA->RNA
D. RNA-> DNA-> proteins

A

A. DNA -> RNA-> proteins

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22
Q

The differences between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA

A. Is a six carbon sugar and the sugar in RNA is a five carbon sugar
B. Can form a double stranded molecule
C. Has a six membered ring of carbon and nitrogen atoms
D. Has one less oxygen atom

A

D. Has one less oxygen atom

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23
Q

Which of the following store and transmit hereditary information?

A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic acid

A

D. Nucleic acids

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24
Q

Why does the DNA double helix have a uniform diameter?

A. Purines pair with pyrimidines
B. C nucleotides pair with A nucleotides
C. Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose sugars
D. Nucleotides bind with nucleosides

A

A. Purines pair with pyrimidines

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25
Q

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA which of the following will be found?

A. A=C
B. A=G and C=T
C. A+C = G+T
D. G+C= T+A

A

C. A+C = G+T

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26
Q

What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?

A. Hydrolysis
B. Dehydration reactions
C. Ionic bonding of monomers
D. The formation of disulphide bridges between monomers

A

B. Dehydration reactions

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27
Q

Which of the following synthesises short segments of RNA?

A. Helicase
B. DNA polymerase II
C. Ligase
D. Primase

A

D. Primase

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28
Q

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this one can logically assume all of the following except

A. A gene from an organism could theoretically be expressed by any other organism
B. All organisms have a common ancestor
C. DNA was the first genetic material
D. The same codons in different organisms usually translate into the same amino acids

A

C. DNA was the first genetic material

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29
Q

What is a ribozyme?

A. An enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B. An RNA with enzyme activity
C. An enzyme that synthesises RNA as part of the transcription process
D. An enzyme that synthesises RNA primers during DNA replication

A

B. An RNA with enzymic activity

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30
Q

What are the coding segments of a stretch of eukaryotic DNA called?

A. Introns
B. Exons
C. Codons
D. Replicons

A

B. Exons

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31
Q

What is the most abundant type of RNA?

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. hnRNA

A

C. rRNA

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32
Q

Which of the following is not true of a codon?

A. It consists of three nucleotides
B. It may code for the same amino acid as another codon
C. It never codes for more than one amino acid
D. It extends from one end of a tRNA molecule

A

D. It extends form one of a tRNA molecule

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33
Q

The primary structure of a protein molecule is determined by Sequence of:

A. Single nucleotides in mRNA
B. Nucleotide triplets in tRNA
C. Nucleotide triplets in mRNA
D. Nucleotide in rRNA

A

C. Nucleotide triplets in mRNA

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34
Q

Which of the following statement on the bio synthesis of Nucleic acids and proteins is false?

A. Incorporation of each amino acid into a newly synthesised Polypeptide is defined by a nucleotide triplet in mRNA.
B. The set of rules which match appropriate amino acids to individual codons is known as the genetic code.
C. the end of a translation process is signalled by a termination codon
D. A sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is termed a structural gene

A

D. A sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is termed a structural gene

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35
Q

RNA synthesis takes place in

A. Lysosomes and peroxisomes
B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
C. Ribosomes and centrioles
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts

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36
Q

The most abundant protein in the body is

A. DNA
B. starch
C. Cellulose
D. Collagen

A

D. Collagen

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37
Q

Which of these statement about the polypeptides in cells is wrong?

A. They are a polymer of y-amino acids linked by peptide bonds
B. The sequence of amino acids is determined by instructions in the cell’s DNA
C. They have an amino group at one end of the polymer
D. They are called proteins if they fold into a specific shape

A

A. They are a polymer of y-amino acids linked by peptide bonds

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38
Q

An infectious agent that appears to have no Nucleic acid is a

A. Bacterium
B. Bacteriophage
C. Virus
D. Prion

A

D. Prion

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39
Q

What are prions

A. Misfold versions of normal brain protein
B. Tiny molecules of RNA that infect plants
C. Viruses that invade bacteria
D. A mobile segment of DNA

A

A. Misfolded versions of normal Brain protein

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40
Q

The ability to reproduce themselves is a property that viruses share with living systems. Viruses can therefore replicate

A. In vitro in the presence of nucleotides and amino acids
B. In vitro in the process of nucleotides, amino acids and ATP
C. Both in a living and a dead cell
D. Only in a metabolically active cell

A

D. Only in a metabolically active cell

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41
Q

Which of the statement concerning viruses is true

A. Viruses include only one of Nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA
B. Viruses usually contain all known types of Nucleic acids (DNA, mRNA, rRNA, tRNA)
C. viral particles are capable of ATP synthesis
D. Synthesis of viral proteins takes place on specific viral ribosomes

A

A. Viruses include only one kind of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA

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42
Q

A bacteriophage is

A. Term for a special macrophage
B. A white blood cell capable of phagocytosis of bacteria
C. Virus that lyses bacteria
D, bacterium capable of phagocytosis

A

C. Virus that lyses bacteria

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43
Q

All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

A. DNA
B. A plasma membrane
C. Ribosomes
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

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44
Q

Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct?

A. Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane bound nucleus
B. Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane enclosed organelles
C. Eukaryotic cells contain a membrane bound nucleus
D. DNA or deoxyribonucleic acids is present is both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

A

B. Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane bound organelles

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45
Q

Which statement about the genomes of prokaryotes is correct?

A. Prokaryotic genomes are diploid throughout most of the cell cycle
B. Prokaryotic chromosomes are sometimes called plasmids
C. Prokaryotic cells have multiple chromosomes “packed” with a relatively large amount of protein
D. The prokaryotic chromosomes is not contained within a nucleus but rather is found at the nucleoid region

A

D. The prokaryotic chromosomes is not contained within a nucleus but rather is found in the nucleoid region

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46
Q

Organelles that do not contain dna include

A. Ribosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
D. Nuclei

A

A. Ribosomes

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47
Q

Which structure is common to both plant and animal cells?

A. Chloroplast
B. Wall made of cellulose
C. Mitochondria
D. Centriole

A

C. Mitochondria

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48
Q

Homologous chromosomes

A. Are identical in shape and have different loci
B. Differ in shape and size and have identical loci
C. Pair during meiosis
D. Pair during mitosis

A

C. Pair during meiosis

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49
Q

Which of the following is true?

A. Human cells contain one pair of sex chromosomes and 23 pairs of autosomes
B. Chromosome banding is a procedure for identification of structural abnormalities in single chromosomes
C. Haemophilia is an autosomal dominant trait
D. Chromosomal constitution of the sperm is XY

A

B. Chromosome banding is procedure fo the identification for the structural abnormalities in single chromosomes

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50
Q

Which organelle do not have membrane structure?

A. Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Golgi complex
D. Ribosomes

A

D. Ribosomes

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51
Q

Multinucleated cells are
A. Lymphocytes
B. Grandular epithelial cells
C. Neurones
D. Muscle fibres of skeletal muscles

A

D. Muscle fibres of skeletal muscles

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52
Q

What is a chromatid?

A. A replicate chromosome
B. A chromosome found outside the nucleus
C. A special region that holds two centromeres together
D. Another name for the chromosomes found in genetics

A

A. A replicate chromosome

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53
Q

Which term describes centromeres uncoupling, sister chromatids separating and the two new chromosomes moving to opposite poles of the cell?

A. Telophase
B. Anaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Prophase

A

B. Anaphase

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54
Q

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the functioning of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

A. Anaphase
B. Prophase
C. Telophase
D. Metaphase

A

D. Metaphse

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55
Q

At which stage of mitosis are the chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

A

B. Metaphase

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56
Q

In which of the cell cycle does nuclear dna replicate?

A. G1
B. G2
C. M
D. S

A

D. S

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57
Q

Where does glycolysis take place

A. Mitochondrial matrix
B. Mitochondrial outer membrane
C. Mitochondrial inner membrane
D. Cytosol

A

D. Cytosol

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58
Q

In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis?

A. CO2 and H2O
B. CO2 and pyruvate
C. NADH and pyruvate
D. H2O, FADH2 and citrate

A

C. NADH and pyruvate

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59
Q

Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located?

A, mitochondrial outer membrane
B. Mitochondrial inner membrane
C, mitochondrial intermembrane space
D. Mitochondrial matrix

A

B. Mitochondrial inner membrane

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60
Q

Energy released by the electron transport chain is used to pump H+ ions into which location?

A.Cytosol
B. Mitochondrial inner membrane
C. Mitochondrial intermembrane space
D. Mitochondrial matrix

A

C. Mitochondrial intermembrane space

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61
Q

The direct energy source that drives ATP synthesis during respiratory oxidative phosphorylation is

A. Oxidation of glucose to co2 and water
B. The thermodynamic ally favourable flow of electrons from NADH to the mitochondrial electron transport carriers
C. The final transfer of electrons to oxygen
D. The difference in H+ concentrations on opposite sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

D. The difference in H+ concentrations on opposite sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane

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62
Q

WHere is atp synthase located in the mitochondrion

A. Electron transport chain
B outer membrane
C. Inner membrane
D. Mitochondrial matrix

A

C. Inner membrane

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63
Q

Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell

A. Glycolysis and fermentation
B. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
C. Citric acid cycle
D. Oxidative phosphorylation

A

A. Glycolysis and fermentation

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64
Q

The direct energy source that drives atp synthesis during respiratory oxidative phosphorylation is

A. Oxidation of glucose to co2 and water
B. The thermodynamic ally favourable flow of electrons from NADH to the mitochondrial electron transport carriers
C. The final transfer of electrons to oxygen
D. The difference in H+ concentrations on opposite sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

D. The difference in H+ concentration on opposite sides of the inner mitochondrial membrane

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65
Q

Where is atp synthase located in the mitochondria

A. Electron transport chain
B. Outer membrane
C. Inner membrane
D. Mitochondrial matrix

A

C. Inner membrane

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66
Q

Which of the following occurs in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell

A. Glycolysis and fermentation
B. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA
C. Citric acid cycle
D. Oxidative phosphorylation

A

A. Glycolysis and fermentation

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67
Q

Which metabolic pathway is common to both cellular respiration and fermentation

A. Oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl coA
B.citric acid cycle
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Glycolysis

A

D. Glycolysis

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68
Q

How many different types of gamates could be produced by an individual with the arbitrary genotype of AAbbCCDdEe

A. Two
B. Four
C. Eight
D. More than eight

A

B. Four

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69
Q

If two parents are heterozygous (Aa) at a single locus give rise to offspring that are 25 percent AA, 50 percent Aa, and 25 percent aa, then all the following are true except

A. The parents are diploid organisms
B. The a allele is recessive lethal
C. The alleles assort independently
D. The probability that a given gamete will receive A is one half

A

B. The a allele is recessive lethal

Recessive lethal gene can code for either dominant or recessive traits but they do not actually cause death unless an organism carries two copies of the lethal allele

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70
Q

How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCdEE

A. Four
B. Eight
C. 16
D. 32

A

B. Eight

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71
Q

A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one for tail length(T). It’s genotype is HhTt. Which of the following genotype is possible in a gamete from this organism

A. HT
B. Hh
C. HhTt
D. tt

A

A. HT

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72
Q

Mendel’s observation of the segregation of alleles in a gamete formation has its basis in which of the following phases of cell division

A. Prophase I of meiosis
B. Prophase II of meiosis
C. Metaphase I of meiosis
D. Anaphase I of meiosis

A

D. Anaphase I of meiosis

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73
Q

In certain plants tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant what is the probability that the offspring will be short

A. 1/2
B. 1/4
C. 1/6
D. 0

A

D. 0

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74
Q

In a cross AaBbCc x AaBbCc what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC?

A. 1/8
B. 1/16
C. 1/32
D. 1/64

A

D. 1/64

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75
Q

Of the following which is the most current description of a gene

A. A unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic
B. A dna subunit that codes for a single complete protein
C. A dna sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either rna or polypeptide
D. A discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids

A

C. A dna sequence that is expressed to form a functional product either rna or polypeptide

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76
Q

The number of different phenotypes in F2 generation of dihybrids with complete dominance (AaBb x AaBb) is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

D. 4

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77
Q

One of mendel’s key discoveries was that

A. Organisms had two hereditary factor for all trait
B. Blending was a common occurrence in sexually reproducing organisms
C. Gametes contained two heredity factor for each trait
D. Ova were larger than sperms

A

A. Organisms had two hereditary factors for all traits

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78
Q

All offspring of a white hen and a black rooster are grey. The simplest explanation of this pattern of inheritance is

A. Pleiotropy
B. Sex linkage
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Independent assortment

A

C. Incomplete dominance

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79
Q

A cross between homozygous purple flowered and homozygous white flowered pea plants results in offspring with purple flowers. This demonstrates

A. The blending model of genetics
B. True breeding
C. Dominance
D. A dihybrid cross

A

C. Dominance

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80
Q

Given the parents AABBCc x AabbCc assume simple dominance and independent assortment. What proportion of the progeny will be expected to phenotypically resemble the first parent

A. 1/4
B. 1/8
C. 3/4
D. 3/8

A

C. 3/4

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81
Q

A 1:2:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation of a mono hybrid cross is a sign of

A. Complete dominance
B. Multiple alleles
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Polygenic inheritance

A

C. Incomplete dominance

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82
Q

Skin colour in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. How many different types of gametes would be possible in this system?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

A

B. 4

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83
Q

Which describes the ABO blood group system?

A. Incomplete dominance
B. Multiple alleles
C. Pleiotropy
D. Epistasis

A

B. Multiple alleles

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84
Q

Which describes the ABO blood group system?

A. Incomplete dominance
B. Multiple alleles
C. Pleiotropy
D. Epistasis

A

B. Multiple alleles

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85
Q

Which of the following terms best describe when the phenotype of the hetrozygote differs from the phenotypes of both homozygotes?

A. Incomplete dominance
B. Multiple alleles
C. Pleiotropy
D. Epistasis

A

A. Incomplete dominance

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86
Q

A relationship between A and B alleles for the ABO blood group is

A. Recessive and dominant
B. Semidominance
C. Codominance
D. Superdomomance

A

C. Codominance

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87
Q

Which blood types can be found in the children whose both parents have O blood groups?

A. O
B. O and A
C. O, A and AB
D. O, A, AB, B

A

A. O

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88
Q

Which blood types can be found in the children whose both parents have O blood groups?

A. O
B. O and A
C. O, A and AB
D. O, A, AB, B

A

A. O

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89
Q

What is the chromosomal system for the sex determination in birds?

A. X-O
B. X-X
C. X-Y
D. Z-W

A

D. Z-W

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90
Q

What is the chromosomal system of sex determination in most species of ants and bees?

A. Haploid- diploid
B. X-O
C. X-Y
D. Z-W

A

A. Haploid -diploid

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91
Q

Males are more often affected by sex- linkage trait than female because

A. Males are hemizygous for the X chromosome
B. Female hormones such as oestrogen often compensate for the effects of the mutations on the X
C. X chromosome in males generally have more mutations than X chromosome in female
D. Mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations

A

A. Males are hemizygous for the X chromosome

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92
Q

A Barr body is normally found in the nucleus of which kind of human cell?

A. Unfertilised egg cells only
B. Sperm cells only
C, somatic cells of a female only
D, somatic cells of a male only

A

C. Somatic cells of a female body only

Barr body is condensed inactivated X Chromosomes

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93
Q

The frequency of crossing over between any two linked genes will be which of the following

A. Higher if they are recessive
B. Dependent on how many alleles there are
C. Determined by their relative dominance
D. Proportional to the distance between them

A

D. Proportional to the distance between them

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94
Q

Loss of one nucleotide in a dna molecule has generally

A. Milder effect than nucleotide substitution
B. No effect at al
C. Greater effect than nucleotide substitution
D. Lesser consequence than a loss of three nucleotides

A

C. Greater effect than nucleotide substitution

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95
Q

A cell that has 2n + 1 chromosomes is

A. Trisomic
B. Monosomic
C. Euploid
D. Triploid

A

A. Trisomic

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96
Q

Women with Turner syndrome have a genotype characterised as which of the following

A. Mental retardation and short arms
B. A karyotype of 45, X
C. A karyotype of 47, XXX
D. A deletion of the Y chromosome

A

B, a karyotype of 45, X

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97
Q

The frequency of Down syndrome in the human population is most closely correlated with which of the following

A. Frequency of new meiosis
B. Average of the ages of the mother and father
C. Age of the mother
D. Age of the father

A

C. Age of the mother

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98
Q

A karyotype in Down syndrome is characterised by the presence of an extra copy of genetic material on the

A. Chromosome 21
B. Chromosome 22
C. Chromosome 12
D. Chromosome 18

A

A. Chromosome 21

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99
Q

Plant species A haas a diploid number of 12. Plant species B has a diploid number of16. A new species C arises as an allopolyploid from A and B. The diploid number for species c would probably be

A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 28

A

D. 28

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100
Q

Germ cells

A. In humans contain 46 chromosomes
B. Are diploid
C. Contain XX or XY combinations of sex chromosomes
D. Contain half the number of chromosomes of somatic cells

A

D. Contain half the number of somatic cells

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101
Q

A flagellum composed of micro tubular bundles is responsible for the locomotion of :

A. Bacteriophages
B. Sperm cells
C. Bacteria
D. Amoebae

A

B. Sperm cells

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102
Q

Parthenogenesis is a form of

A. Sexual reproduction in ciliate Protozoa
B. Sexual reproduction in hermaphrodites
C. Asexual reproduction in which females produce eggs that develop without fertilisation
D. Asexual reproduction in lower organisms by which progeny arises by fragmentation of a parent organism

A

C. Asexual reproduction in which females produces eggs that develop without fertilisation

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103
Q

Which of following is true for a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16

A. The species is diploid with 3w chromosomes per cell
B. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell
C. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs
D. A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes

A

C. Each cell has 8 homologous pairs

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104
Q

which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis?

a. homologous chromosomes are separated
b. the chromosome number per cell is conserved
c. sister chromatids are separated
d. four daughter cells are formed

A

a. homologous chromosomes are separated

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105
Q

homologous chromosomes synapse and crossing over occurs

a. the statement is only true for mitosis only
b. the statement is true for meiosis I only
c. the statement is true for meiosis II only
d. the statement is true for mitosis and meiosis

A

b. the statement is true for meiosis I only

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106
Q

chromatids are separated from each other

a. the statement is true for meiosis I only
b. the statement is true for meiosis II only
c. the statement is true for mitosis and meiosis I
D. the statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II

A

D. the statement is true for mitosis and meiosis II

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107
Q

the independent assortment of chromosomes occurs

a. the statement is true for mitosis only
b. the statement is true for meiosis I only
c. the statement is true for meiosis II only
d. the statement is true for mitosis and meiosis

A

b. the statement is true for meiosis I only

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108
Q

a human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is

a. a sperm
b. an egg
c. a zygote
d. a somatic cell

A

a. a sperm

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109
Q

Homologous chromosomes move toward opposite poles of a dividing cell during

A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis I
C. Meiosis II
D. Fertilisation

A

B. Meiosis I

110
Q

Which one is not an embryonic layer

A. Mesoderm
B. Periderm
C. Endoderm
D. Ectoderm

A

B. Periderm

111
Q

The lifespan is

A. A species attribute that is not encoded in the genetic program of each individual
B. A species attribute that is encoded in the genetic program of each individual
C. An individual attribute that is not encoded in the genetic program
D. None of these

A

B. A species attribute that is encoded in the genetic program of each individual

112
Q

An example of a connective tissue is the

A. skin
B. nerves
C. blood
D. smooth muscles

A

c. blood

113
Q

connective tissue have

A. many densely packed cells without an extracellular matrix
B. an epithelial origin
C. relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix
D. the ability to transmit electrochemical impulses

A

c. relatively few cells and a large amount of extracellular matrix

114
Q

blood is classified as a connective tissue because

A. its cells can be separate from each other by an extracellular matrix
B. it contains more than one type of cell
C. it is contained in vessels that connect different parts of an organism’s body
D. it is found within all the organs of the body

A

A. its cells can be separated from each other by an extracellular matrix

115
Q

With its abundance of collagenous fibres, cartilage is an example of

A. connective tissue
B. reproductive tissue
C. nervous tissue
D. epithelial tissue

A

A. connective tissue

116
Q

all types of muscles tissue have

A. striated banding pattern seen under the microscope
B. cells that lengthen when appropriately stimulated
C. a response that can be consciously controlled
D. interactions between actin and myosin

A

D. interactions between actin and myosin

117
Q

all skeletal muscles fibres are both

A. smooth and involuntary
B. striated and voluntary
C. smooth and voluntary
D. striated and involuntary

A

B. striated and voluntary

118
Q

cardiac muscle is both

A. striated and involuntary
B. smooth and voluntary
C. striated and voluntary
D. smooth and involuntary

A

A. striated and involuntary

119
Q

the human spinal column consists of the following vertebrae:

A. 5 cervical, 12 thoracic, 7lumbar, sacrum and coccyx
B. 7 cervical, 10 thoracic, 7 lumbar, sacrum and coccyx
C. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, sacrum and coccyx
D. 7 cervical, 12 lumbar, 7 lumbar, sacrum and coccyx

A

C. 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, sacrum and coccyx

120
Q

which of the following statement is false

A. the human hand has five metacarpal bones
B. the human hand has eight carpal bones
C. the human skeleton is made up of more than 300 bones of all shapes and sizes
D. there are seven metatarsal bones

A

D. there are seven metatarsal bones

121
Q

after the birth erythrocytes are produced only in
A. red bone marrow of flat and short bones
B. liver
C. spleen
D. lymph nodes

A

A. red bone marrow of flat and short bones

122
Q

there can be immunological conflict due to Rh-incompatibility between mother and foetus when
A. mother (Rh+) and the foetus is (Rh-)
B. mother (Rh-) and the foetus is ( Rh+)
C. mother (Rh+) and the foetus is ( Rh+)
D. mother (Rh-) and the foetus is (Rh-)

A

B. mother (Rh-) and the foetus (Rh+)

123
Q

blood serum differs from blood plasma in that

A. it contain fibrinogen
B. it does not contain fibrinogen
C. it contains albumin
D. it does not contain albumin

A

B. it does not contain fibrinogen

124
Q

human plasma proteins do not include which of the following

A. fibrinogen
B. haemoglobin
C. immunoglobulin
D. albumin

A

B. haemoglobin

125
Q

which of the following proteins is involved in blood clotting

A. fibrin
B. gamma globulins
C. albumin
D. collagen

A

A. fibrin

126
Q

platelets are
A. specialised cells with non functional nuclei
B. specialised anucleated cells
C. cytoplasmic fragments of large bone marrow cells
D. erythrocytes free of haemoglobin

A

c. cytoplasmic fragments of large bone marrow cells

127
Q

the thickest layer of the heart is
A. endocardium
B. epicardium
C. myocardium
D. pericardium

A

C. myocardium

128
Q

systemic circulation begins from
A. right ventricle
B. left ventricle
C. left atrium
D. right atrium

A

b. left ventricle

129
Q

some nutrients are considered essential in the diets of certain animals because

A. only those animals use the nutrients
B. they are the subunits of important polymers
C. they cannot be manufactured by the organism
D. they are necessary coenzymes

A

c. they cannot be manufactured by the organism

130
Q

the first section of the small intestine is called
A. appendix
B. sphincter
C. duodenum
D. sphincter

A

c. duodenum

131
Q

the process by which the organism accepts food is called
A. digestion
B. nutrition
C. absorption
D. phagocytosis

A

b. nutrition

132
Q

the cornifying of the surface of the epithelium is a result of the accumulation of the protein
A. keratin inside the cells
B. keratin between the cells
C. melanin inside the cells
D. melanin between the cells

A

a. keratin inside the cells

133
Q

in the centre of the elastic membrane called hymen there are openings

A. of the urethra
B. of the anus
c. of the uterus
D. for the menstrual blood

A

D. for the menstrual blood

134
Q

most fertilization occurs in the
A. uterus
b. vagina
C. fallopian tubes
D. ovary

A

c. fallopian tubes

135
Q

the sperm cells mature completely in the
A. vas deferens
B. epididymis
C. seminal vesicles
D. prostate gland

A

b. epididymis

136
Q

the secretion produced by the seminal vesicles contains a simple sugar, which provides the sperm with additional energy. This sugar is
A. glucose
b. fructose
C. galactose
D. lactose

A

B. fructose

137
Q

which statement about the epididymis is not correct

A. it begins at the end of the vas deferens and passes into the abdominal cavity
B. it is 6m long
C. it is a coiled tube the end of which passes into the vas deferens
D. it sticks tightly to the testes

A

a. it begins at the end of the vas deferens

138
Q

gametogenesis
A. begins at puberty in males and females
B. results in the production of diploid cells from haploid cells
C. begins at puberty in females
D. requires that meiosis halve the chromosome number so that sperm and eggs carry half the number of chromosomes

A

D. requires that meiosis halve the chromosome number so that sperm and eggs carry half the number of chromosomes

139
Q

the corpus luteum is formed
A. in menopause
B. by the effect of prolactin
C. from the effect of progesterone
D. from a ruptured follicle

A

d. from a ruptured follicle

140
Q

the vibrations of the eardrum are passed to the
A. malleus
B. cochlea
C. incus
D. stapes

A

a. malleus

141
Q

the vibrations are passed to the inner ear by
A. malleus
B. cochlea
C. incus
D. stapes

A

d. stapes

142
Q

the innermost light sensitive layer of the eyeball is called
a. cornea
b. sclera
c. retina
d. iris

A

c. retina

143
Q

the hominids( the first humanlike primates) include which of the following
A. gorillas
B. chimpanzees
c. australopithecines
d. dryopithecines

A

c. australopithecines

144
Q

the most primitive hominid discovered to date
A. may have hunted dinosaurs
B. closely resembled a chimpanzee
c. walked on two legs
d. had a relatively large brain

A

c. walked on two legs

145
Q

as humans diverged from other primates which of the following appeared first
A. language
B. bipedal locomotion
C. making stone tools
D. an enlarged brain

A

b. bipedal locomotion

146
Q

of the following anatomical structures which is homologous to the wing of a bird

a. hindlimb of a kangaroo
b. wing of a butterfly
c. tail fin of a flying fish
d. flipper of a cetacean

A

d. flipper of a cetacean

147
Q

convergent structures are described as

A. homologous
B. analogous
C. rudimental
D. atavistic

A

B. analogous

148
Q

which of the following statements are not true
A. biocenosis included phytocenosis and zoocenosis
b. biocenosis interacts with abiotic factors forming an ecosystem
c. biotape, the environment of biocenosis, is the complex of biotic factors
d. biome is a region characterized by a distinct climate and a particular assemblage of plant and animals adapted to it

A

c. biotape, the environment of biocenosis, is the complex of biotic factors

149
Q

all organisms living together inan area constitute
A. zoocenosis
B. biocenosis
C. phytocenosis
D. ecosystem

A

b. biocenosis

150
Q

the best classification system is that which most closely
A. unites organisms that posses similar morphologies
b. conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices
C. reflects evolutionary history
D. reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes

A

C. reflects evolutionary history

151
Q

the correct sequence from the most to least comprehensive of the taxonomic levels listed is

A. family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species and genus
B. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species
C. kingdom, phylum order class family genus and species
D. phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family and genus

A

b. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species

152
Q

RNA processing converts the RNA transcript into

A. a protein
B. DNA
C. mRNA
D. a polypeptide

A

c. mRNA

153
Q

Which of the following statements about the 5’ end of a polynucleotide strand of DNA is correct

A. the 5’ end has a hydroxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose
B. the 5’ end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose
C. the 5’ end has thymine attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose
D. the 5’ end has a carboxyl group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose

A

b. the number 5’ end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose

154
Q

of the following functions the major purpose of RNA is to
A. transmit genetic information to offspring
B. function in the synthesis of protein
C. make a copy of itself thus ensuring genetic continuity
D. form the genes of higher organisms

A

b. function in the synthesis of protein

155
Q

which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides

A. a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group
B. a nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar
C. a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group and a pentose sugar
D. a phosphate group and an adenine or uracil

A

c. a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group and a pentose sugar

156
Q

how can one increase the rate of a chemical reaction
A. increase the activation energy needed
B. cool the reactants
C. decrease the concentration of the reactants
D. add a catalyst

A

d. add a catalyst

157
Q

which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true
A. enzymes increase the rate of reaction
B. enzymes change the direction of chemical reactions
C. enzymes are permanently altered by the reactions they catalyse
D. enzymes prevent changes in substrate concentration

A

A. enzymes increase the rate of a reaction

158
Q

the active site of an enzymes is the region that

A. binds allosteric regulators of the enzymes
B. is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme
C. binds the products of the catalytic reaction
D. is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor

A

b. is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme

159
Q

if an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, what would occur
A. an additional product would be formed
B. the reaction would change from endergonic to exergonic
C. the free energy of the system would change
D. nothing, the reaction would stay at equilibrium

A

d. nothing, the reaction would stay at equilibrium

160
Q

what kind of chemical bond is found between paired bases of the DNA double helix
A. hydrogen
B. ionic
C. covalent
D. phosphate

A

a. hydrogen

161
Q

what is meant by the description’ antiparallel’ regarding the strands that make up DNA

A. the twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands
B. the 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand
C. one strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged
D. one strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines

A

b. the 5’ to 3’ direction of one strand runs counter to the 5’ to 3’ direction of the other strand

162
Q

which enzymes catalyses the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5’ to 3’ direction
A. DNA ligase
B. DNA polymerase II
C. topoisomerase
D. helicase

A

B. DNA polymerase II

163
Q

what determines the nucleotide sequence of the newly synthesized strand during DNA replication

A. the particular DNA polymerase catalysing the reaction
B. the relative amounts of the four nucleoside triphosphates in the cell
C. the nucleotide sequence of the template strand
D. the primase used in the reaction

A

c. the nucleotide sequence of the template strand

164
Q

which of the following separates the DNA strands during replication
A. helicase
B. DNA polymerase II
C. ligase
D. primase

A

a. helicase

165
Q

which of the following covalently connects segments of DNA
A. helicase
B. DNA polymerase II
C. ligase
D. primase

A

c. ligase

166
Q

a particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5’ AGT 3’. the corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is
A. 3’ UCA 5’
B. 3’ UGA 5’
C. 5’ TCA 3’
D. 3’ ACU 5’

A

A. 3’ UCA 5’

167
Q

a particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is

A. TTT
B. UUA
C. UUU
D. AAA

A

D. AAA

168
Q

what are polyribosomes
A. groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously
B. ribosomes containing more than two subunits
C. multiple copies of ribosomes associated with giant chromosomes
D. ribosomes associated with more than one tRNA

A

a. groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously

169
Q

the anticodon of a particular tRNA molecules is

A. complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon
B. complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA
C. the part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid
D. changeable depending on the amino acid that attaches to the tRNA

A

a. complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon

170
Q

which component is not directly involved in translation

A. mRNA
B. DNA
C. rRNA
D. ribosomes

A

b. dna

170
Q

which of the following is not a product of transcription

A. mRNA
B. tRNA
C. rRNA
D. DNA

A

d. dna

171
Q

translation is a process by which genetic information is translated from

A. DNA to rRNA
B. DNA to mRNA
c. mRNA to protein
D. protein to mRNA

A

C. mRNA into proteins

172
Q

the alpha helix and beta sheet are both involved in the arrangement of

A. primary structure of protein
B. secondary structure of proteins
C. linear polysaccharides
D. nucleic acids

A

b. secondary structure of proteins

173
Q

which of the following types of nucleic acids is a carrier of anticodon

A. mtDNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA

A

C. tRNA

174
Q

which of the following statements concerning the genetic code is false

A. genetic code is the system of rules governing the translation of genetic information
B. genetic code is based on nucleotides triplets
C. genetic code includes 64 codons
D. genetic code includes 20 codons to specify 20 amino acids

A

d. genetic code includes 20 codons to specify 20 amino acids

175
Q

fats are derivates of

A. glycerol and fatty acids
B. amino acids and monosaccharides
C. glycerol and amino acids
D. fatty acids and monosaccharides

A

a. glycerol and fatty acids

176
Q

the components of a nucleotide are

A. nitrogen base and monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms
B. nitrogen base and phosphate group
C. large nitrogen bases and phosphate group
D. nitrogen base, monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms, phosphate group

A

d

177
Q

RNAs are

A. linear, unbranched, double strand polymers
B. linear, branched, single stranded
C. linear, branched, double strand
D. linear, unbranched, single strand

A

d. linear, unbranched, single strand

178
Q

part of the DNA molecule that codes for a polypeptide or for an RNA chain is called

A. genome
B. genotype
C. phenotype
D. gene

A

D. gene

179
Q

when a DNA strand with the sequence 3’ GACTAACGATGC 5’ is used as a template on daughter DNA sequence is formed, the daughter strand has the sequence

A. 3’ CTGATTGCTACG 5’
B. 5’ GCATCGTTAGTC 3’
C. 5’ CTGATTGCTACG 3’
D. 3’ CGATTGCTACAG 5’

A

C. 5’ CTGATTGCTACG 3’

180
Q

which of the following statements about enzymes is false

A. they lower the activation energy for the reaction they catalyse
B. they alter the equilibrium constant for the reaction they catalyse
C. they stabilize intermediates along the pathway of the reaction they catalyse
D. they can change shape to promote the reaction

A

b. they alter the equilibrium constant of the reaction they catalyse

181
Q

an infectious agent that appears to have no nucleic acid is a

A. bacterium
B. bacteriophage
C. virus
D. prion

A

d. prion

182
Q

why are viruses referred to as obligate parasites

A. they can not reproduce outside of a host cell
B. viral DNA always inserts itself into host DNA
C. they invariably kill any cell they infect
D. they can incorporate nucleic acids from other viruses

A

A. they can not reproduce outside of a host cell

183
Q

which of the following characteristics, structures or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses

A. metabolism
B. ribosomes
C. genetic material composed of nucleic acid
D. cell division

A

c. genetic material composed of nucleic acid

184
Q

which is the fundamental difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

A. presence of the cell wall
B. coding for the genetic information
C. presence of the nucleus enveloped by a
membrane
D. biomembrane structure

A

c. presence of the nucleus enveloped by a membrane

185
Q

all of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

A. mitochondrion
B. ribosome
C. nuclear envolope
D. ER

A

d. endoplasmic reticulum

186
Q

which of the following features prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have in common
A. a membrane bound nucleus
B. ribosomes
C. flagella or cilia that contain microtubules
D. linear chromosomes made of dna and protein

A

b. ribosomes

187
Q

genetic variation in bacterial populations can not result from

A. transformations
B. conjugation
C. mutation
D. meiosis

A

d. meiosis

188
Q

a basic structural and functional unit of organisms is

A. cell
B. tissue
C. organ
D. body system

A

A. cell

189
Q

large number of ribosomes are present in cells that specialise in the production of which of the following molecules

A. lipids
B. starches
C. proteins
D. steroids

A

c. proteins

190
Q

which pf the following contain its own dna and ribosomes

A. lysosomes
B. vacuole
C. mitochondrion
D. golgi apparatus

A

C. mitochondrion

191
Q

which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane

A. phospholipids
B. nucleic acids and proteins
C. phospholipids and proteins
D. proteins and cellulose

A

c. phospholipids and proteins

192
Q

the centromere is a region in which

A. chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase
B. metaphase chromosomes become aligned at the metaphase plate
C. chromosomes are grouped during telophase
D. new spindle microtubules form at either end

A

a. chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase

193
Q

dna is present is

A. mitochondria
B. lysosomes
C. ribosomes
D. endoplasmic reticulum

A

a. mitochondria

194
Q

a genotype is

A. strongly dependent on the phenotype
B. set of all the genes of the organism
C. a typical gene
D. a synonym for a karyotype

A

b. set of all genes of the organism

195
Q

large organelles containing chromosomes are called

A. nuclei
B. chromatids
C. nucleoli
D. lysosomes

A

a. nuclei

196
Q

a differentiated cell of an organism and the zygote this organism developed from are characterized by

A. different genome
B. identical genomes
C. identical mRNA molecules
D. identical phenotypes

A

b. identical genomes

197
Q

starting with a fertilized (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells

A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

A

c. 32

198
Q

if there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

A

a. 10

199
Q

a cell containing 92 chromatids at metaphase of mitosis would at its completion produce two nuclei each containing how many chromosomes

A. 16
B. 23
C. 46
D.92

A

c. 46

200
Q

if there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40

A

A. 10

201
Q

cytokinesis usually not always follows mitosis. if a cell completed mitosis but not cytokinesis the result would be a cell with

A. a single large nucleus
B. high concentrations of actin and myosin
C. two nuclei
D. two nuclei but with half the amount of dna

A

c. two nuclei

202
Q

during which phase of mitosis chromosomes first become visible

A. telophase
B. prophase
C. metaphase
D. anaphase

A

B. prophase

203
Q

by which process the somatic cells derived from a single celled zygote divide

A. meiosis
B. mitosis
C. cytokinesis alone
D. binary fission

A

b. mitosis

204
Q

in the cells of some organisms mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in

A. cells with more than one nucleus
B. cells that are unusually small
C. cells lacking nuclei
D. destruction of chromosomes

A

a. cells with more than one nucleus

205
Q

which of the following does not occur during mitosis

A. condensation of the chromosomes
B. replication of the dna
C. separation of the sister chromatids
D. spindle formation

A

b. replication of dna

206
Q

what is a genome

A. a complete complement of an organisms genes
B. a specific set of polypeptides within each cell
C. a specialized polymer of four different kinds of monomers
D. a specialized segment of DNA that is found within a prokaryotic chromosome

A

A. the complete complement of an organisms genes

207
Q

which of the following statements about genes is incorrect

A. genes correspond to segments of DNA
B. many genes contain the information needed for cells to synthesize enzymes and other proteins
C. during fertilisation both the sperm and the ovum contribute genes to the resulting fertilized egg
D. one gene only is used in a specific cell type

A

D. one gene only is used in a specific cell type

208
Q

asexual reproduction results in identical offspring unless which of the following occurs

A. natural selection
B. cloning
C. crossing over
D. mutation

A

C. crossing over

209
Q

a genes’ location along a chromosomes is known as which of the following

A. allele
B. sequence
C. locus
D. varient

A

C. locus

210
Q

the complete set of chromosomes of a human somatic cells is

A. haploid (n)
B. triploid (3n)
C. tertraploid (4n)
D. diploid (2n)

A

D. diploid (2n)

211
Q

mitotic division is typical for

A. all eukaryotic somatic cells
B. all prokaryotic cells
C. all viruses
D. all bacteriophages

A

A. all eukaryotic somatic cells

212
Q

if a mitotic dividing cell has 14 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in every daughter cell is

A. 28
B. 7
C. 14
D. 56

A

c. 14

213
Q

which is one of the main energy transformers of cells
A. lysosomes
B. vacuole
C. mitochondrion
D. golgi apparatus

A

c. mitochondrion

214
Q

the atp made during glycolysis is generated by

A. substrate level phosphorylation
B. electron transport
C. photophosphorylation
D. chemiosmosis

A

A. substrate level phosphorylation

215
Q

which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen is present or absent

A. electron transport
B. glycolysis
C. citric acid cycle
D. oxidative phosphorylation

A

b. glycolysis

216
Q

why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase

A. it both splits molecules and assembles molecules
B. it attaches and detaches phosphate group
C. it uses glucose and generates pyruvate
D. it uses stored atp and then forms a net increase in atp

A

d. it uses stored atp and then forms a net increase in atp

217
Q

the oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event

A. glycolysis
B. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
C. citric acid cycle
D. phosphorylation of adp to form atp

A

b. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

218
Q

in glycolysis for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate

A. 2 molecules of ATP are used and 2 molecules of ATP are produced
B. 2 molecules of atp are used and 4 molecules of ATP are produced
C. 4 molecules of atp are used and 2 molecules are produceD
D. 2 molecules of atp are used and 6 molecules of atp are produced

A

b. 2 molecules of atp are used and 4 molecules of atp are produced

219
Q

the primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to

A. yield energy in the form of atp as it is passed down the respiratory chain
B. act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen forming water
C. combine with carbon and form co2
D. catalyse the reactions of glycolysis

A

B. act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogens forming water

220
Q

during oxidative phosphorylation, h2o is formed. Where does the oxygen for the synthesis of the water come from

A. carbon dioxide co2
B. glucose c6h2o6
C. molecular oxygen o2
D. lactate c3h5o3

A

C. molecular oxygen o2

221
Q

when hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space the result is

A. formation of atp
B. reduction of NAD+
C. creation of a proton gradient
D. lowering of pH in the mitochondrial matrix

A

c. creation of a proton gradient

222
Q

which of the following produces the most ATP when glucose is completely oxidized to carbon dioxide and water

A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
C. citric acid cycle
D. oxidative phosphorylation

A

D. oxidative phosphorylation

223
Q

which of the following normally occurs whether or not oxygen is present

A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
c. Citric acid cycle
D. oxidative phosphorylation

A

A. glycolysis

224
Q

the final electron acceptor of the electron transport chain that function in aerobic oxidative phosphorylation is
A. oxygen
B. water
C. pyruvate
D. ADP

A

a. oxygen

225
Q

most CO2 from catabolism is released during
A. glycolysis
B. citric acid cycle
C. electron transport
D. oxidative phosphorylation

A

B. citric acid cycle

226
Q

in a variety of garden peas, the allele for tall plants (T) is dominant over the allele for short plants (t). A cross between a tall plant and a short plant resulted in 50% of the offspring being short. What were the genotypes of the parents?

A. Tt and tt
B. Tt and Tt
C. TT and Tt
D. TT and tt

A

a, Tt and tt

227
Q

in a monohybrid cross between individuals with a genotype AA and Aa

A. all offspring are heterozygous
B. all individuals are homozygous dominant
C. the ratio of phenotypes is 3:1
D. the ratio of genotype is 1:1

A

D. the ratio of genotype is 1:1

228
Q

two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. This suggests
A. that the parents were true breeding for contrasting traits
B. incomplete dominance
C. that the parents were both heterozygous
D. that each offspring has the same alleles

A

C. that the parents were both heterozygous

229
Q

when crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, what is the chance of producing an offspring with the homozygous recessive phenotype

A. 0%
B. 25%
c. 50%
D. 75%

A

C. 50%

230
Q

black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). short tails (T) are dominant to long tails (t). what fraction of the progeny of the cross BbTt x BBtt will have black fur and long tails

A. 1/16
B. 3/12
C. 1/2
D. 9/16

A

c. 1/2

231
Q

in 1956, Tijo and Levan first successfully counted human chromosomes. The reason it would have taken so many years to have done so would have included all but which of the following

A. watson and crick structure of dna was not done until 1953
B. chromosomes were piled up on top of one another in the nucleus
C. chromosomes were not distinguishable during the interphase
D. a method had not yet been devised to halt mitosis at metaphase

A

a. watson and cricks structure of DNA was not done until 1953

232
Q

muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they
A. contain different genes
B. have unique ribosomes
C. have different chromosomes
D. express different genes

A

d. express different genes

233
Q

when crossing individuals of genotipes AaBb and AaBb the ratio of phenotypes ( A, B dominaant alleles, a, b, recessive alleles) will be as follows

A. 9:3:3:1
B. 3:1
C. 1:2:2:1
D. 1:1:1:1

A

a. 9:3:3:1

234
Q

in the complete dominance of A over a the heterozygote Aa has a phenotype

A. identical with AA
B. identical with aa
C. between AA and aa
D. different from both parents (AA, aa)

A

a. identical to AA

235
Q

what are the probable genotypes of the parents in a cross that gives 3:1 phenotype ratio

A. AA x Aa
B. Aa x AA
C. Aa x Aa
D. AA x Aa

A

c. Aa x Aa

236
Q

a phenotype is
A. usually determined by two alleles
B. independent of genotype
C. a synonym for genotype in haploid organisms
D. a set of all observable traits

A

D. a set of all observable traits

237
Q

an allele is
A. always found in two forms
B. a unit of the phenotype
C. an alternative form of a gene found at the same locus on homologous chromosomes
D. an alternative form of a gene found in genomes of different organisms

A

C. an alternative form of a gene found at the same locus on homologous chromosomes

238
Q

the alleles of a given gene differ from each other in that

A. they are localised on chromosomes of different pairs
B. they carry information for different proteins with the same function
C. they are localised on different loci of the same chromosome
D. each carries a different mutation of a gene

A

D. each carries a different mutation of the gene

239
Q

in snapdragons heterozygotes for one of the genes have pink flowers whereas homozygotes have red or white flowers. when plants with red flowers are crossed with plants with white flowers what proportion of the offspring will have pink flowers

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%

A

d. 100%

240
Q

tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant to dwarfness (t) while red (R) flower colour is dominant to white (r). The heterozygous condition results in pink (Rr) flower colour. A dwarf red snap dragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotypes and phenotypes of the f1 individual

A. ttRr- dwarf and pink
B. ttrr- dwarf and pink
C. TtRr- tall and red
D. TtRr- tall and pink

A

D. TtRr- tall and pink

241
Q

in some plants pink coloured flowers occurs in the heterozygous (Rr) offspring of red (RR) and white (rr) homozygotes. Which of the following crosses would produce offspring in the ratio of 1 red: 2 pink: 1 white

A. red x white
B. pink x pink
C. white x pink
D. red x pink

A

B. pink x pink

242
Q

a woman has six sons. The chance that her next child will be a daughter is

A.1
B. 0
C. 1/2
D. 1/6

A

C. 1/2

243
Q

crossing over is

A. random combination of chromosomes of the maternal and paternal sets
B. synonym for segregation of chromosomes
C. exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes
D. process by which the number of chromosomes in a set is reduced

A

c. exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes

244
Q

a linkage group is

A. group of genes residing on one chromosome
B. a group of genes coding for one metabolic pathway
C. a set of characters invariably inherited together for many generations
D. a set of characters originating from one parent

A

A. a group of genes residing on one chromosome

245
Q

the human X and Y chromosomes
A. are both present in every somatic cell of males and females alike
B. are of approximately equal size and number of genes
C. include genes that determine an individuals sex
D. include only genes that govern sex determination

A

c. include genes that determine an individuals sex

246
Q

what is the chromosomal system for determining sex in mammals
A. X-O
B. X-X
C. X- Y
D. Z-W

A

C. X-Y

247
Q

red- green colour blindness is a sex linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal colour vision have a colour blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents

A. XcXx and XCY
B. XCXC and XcY
C. XCXC and XCY
D. XCXc and XCY

A

D. XCXc and XCY

248
Q

new combinations of linked genes are due to which of the following

A. nondisjunction
B. crossing over
C. independant assortment
D. mixing of sperm and egg

A

b. crossing over

249
Q

mutations
A. are changes in the protein structure that alter their structure and function
B. are heritable alterations in the nucleotide sequence of a chromosome
C. are of little concern in cells because proteins are so large and a change in one or two amino acids have little effect
D. are variations of the phenotype

A

B. are heritable alterations in the nucleotide sequence of a chromosome

250
Q

an ideal procedure for fetal testing in humans would have which of the following features
A. lowest risk procedure that would provide the most reliable information
B. the procedure can test for the greatest number of traits at once
C. a procedure that provides a 3d image of the fetus
D. a procedure that can be preformed at the earliest time in the pregnancy

A

a. lowest risk procedure that would provide the most reliable information

251
Q

mature gametes are produced as a result of cell division called
A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. conjunction
D. amitosis

A

B. meiosis

252
Q

mature human sperm and ova are similar in that
A. they each have a flagellum that provides motillity
B. they are approximately the same size
C. they both have the same number of chromosomes
D. they are produced from puberty until death

A

c. they both have the same number of chromosomes

253
Q

the human zygote produced during fertilisation
A. divides by meiosis
B. starts its development in the ovary
C. divides by mitosis
D. is haploid

A

c. divides by mitosis

254
Q

which of these statements is false

a. in humans each of the 22 maternal autosomes has a homologous parternal chromosome
b. in human the 23rd pair the sex chromosomes determine whether the person is a female or a male
C. single haploid (n) sets of chromosomes in the ovum and sperm unite during fertilisation forming a diploid (2n) singoe celled zygote
D. at sexual maturity, ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meiosis

A

d. at sexual maturity ovaries and testes produce diploid gametes by meioisis

255
Q

in animals meiosis results in gametes and fertilisation results in
a. spores
b. gametophytes
c. zygotes
d. clones

A

c. zygotes

256
Q

a given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotypes. We can therefore conclude which of the following

A. it must be a human
B. it must be a primate
C. it must be an animal
D. its gametes must have 23 chromosomes

A

D. its gametes must have 23 chromosomes

257
Q

which of the following occurs in meiosis but not mitosis

A. chromosomes replication
B. synapsis pf chromosomes
C. production of daughter cells
D. allignment of chromosomes

A

B. synapsis pf chromosomes

258
Q

how does the sexual life cycle increase the genetic variation in a species
A. by allowing independent assortment of chromosomes
B. by allowing fertillisation
C. by increasing gene stability
D. by decreasing mutation frequency

A

A. by allowing independent assortment of chromosomes

259
Q

meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
A. sister chromatids separate during anaphase
B. DNA replicates before the division
C. the daughter cells are diploid
d. the chromosomes number is reduced

A

A. sister chromatids separate during anaphase

260
Q

during embryonic development the sperm and the ovum combine to form
A. a morula
B. a zygote
C. endoderm
D. a blastomere

A

b. zygote

261
Q

the type of muscle tissue associated with internal organs other than the heart is

A. striated and involuntary
B. smooth and voluntary
C. striated and voluntary
D. smooth and involuntary

A

d. smooth and involuntary

262
Q

the human thorax has
A. 10 pairs of ribs
B. 8 pairs of ribs
C. 12 pairs of ribs
D. 14 pairs of ribs

A

c. 12 pairs of ribs

263
Q

in the pulmonary artery flows
A. arterial blood
B. venous blood
C. blood rich in oxygen
D. lymph

A

b. venous blood

264
Q

gastric digestive juice contain
A. pepsin
b. pectin
c. amylase
d. maltose

A

a. pepsin

265
Q

gametogenesis

A. begins at puberty in males and females
B. results in the production of diploid cells from haploid cells
C. begins at puberty in females
D. requires that meiosis halve the chromosome number so that sperm and eggs carry half the number of chromosomes

A

D. requires that meiosis halve the chromosome number so that sperm and eggs carry half the number of chromosomes

266
Q

which of the following statements about glucagon is incorrect
A. it is an insulin antagonist
B. it catalyses glycogen dissociation in the liver
C. it belongs to pancreas produced hormones
D. it belongs to hypophysis produced hormones

A

D. it belongs to hypophysis produced hormones

267
Q

the vibrations of the eardrum are passed to the
A. malleus
B. cochlea
C. incus
D. stapes

A

a. malleus

268
Q

the vibrations are passed to the inner ear by
A. malleus
B. cochlea
C. incus
D. stapes

A

d. stapes

269
Q
A

Entrance Prep (7 decks)

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