Multiple Choice questions

Question 1

Mophine Sulfate is classified as a

a. Schedule 1
b. Schedule 2
c. Schedule 4
d. Schedule 8

Answer 1

d. Schedule 8

Question 2

The schedule a drug is classified into depends upon

a. its toxiicity
b. its strength/dose
c. its potential for abuse
d. all of the above

Answer 2

d. all of the above

Question 3

when a drug is ready to be administered to numerous patients under experienced clinical investigators, this phase of clinical trial is known as:

a. Phase I
b. Phase II
c. Phase III
d. Phase IV

Answer 3

c. Phase III

Question 4

A drug may appear in more than one schedule

a. true
b. false

Answer 4

a. true

Question 5

The half life of a drug

a. is determined by a balance of all pharmockentic processes
b. is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a person
c. is influenced by the fat distribution of the person
d. can be calculated with the use of body surface memogram

Answer 5

a. is determined by a balance of all pharmockentic processes

Question 6

A patient is being discharged from hospital with a nebuliser for self administration of inhalation medication, which statement made by patient indicated to the nurse that client education has been successful?

a. inhaled medications should only be taken in the morning
b. doses for inhaled medications are larger than those taken orally
c. medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid response
d. inhaled drugs are often rendered inactive by hepatic metabloic reaction

Answer 6

c. medicines taken by inhalation produce a very rapid response

Question 7

If the half-life of intravenous mophine sulfate is 20-30 minutes this means that?

a. in 60 minutes all of the drug will be eleminated
b. in 20-30 minutes, 50% of the drug concentration will be eliminated
c. the peak of the geant is 40 minutes
d. all doses should be reduced by 50% to prevent adverse effects

Answer 7

b. in 20-30 minutes, 50% of the drug concentration will be eliminated

Question 8

A client has developed severe diarrhoea following four days of self-administered antacid preparation. The nurse suspects that the diarrhoea may be cause by which antacid?

a. Aluminium compounds
b. Magnesium compounds
c. Calcium compounds
d. Sodium compounds

Answer 8

b. Magnesium compounds

Question 9

A nurse taking care of a person who is recieving a proton pump inhibitor should teach the person to

a. take the drug after every meal
b. chew or crush the tablet to increase their absoption
c. swallow tablets of capsules whole
d. stop taking the drug after 3 weeks of therapy

Answer 9

c. swallow tablets or capsules whole

Question 10

H2 receptors are found throughout the body including

a. in the nasal passages, upper airways and stomache
b. in the CNS and upper airways
c. in the respiratory tract and the heat
d. in the heart, CNS and stomach

Answer 10

d. in the heart, CNS and stomach

Question 11

Most antiemetics work with the CNS to decrease the activity of

a. the medulla
b. the chemoreceptor trigger zone
c. the respiratory centre
d. the sympathetic nervous system

Answer 11

b. the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

Question 12

The 5-HT3 receptor blockers including ondanestrone and granisetron are particularly effective in decreasing the nausea and vomiting associated with

a. vestibular problems
b. cancer chemotherapy
c. pregnancy
d. severe pain

Answer 12

b. cancer chemotherapy

Question 13

Osmotic laxatives are drugs that are used to

a. increase the quantity of wastes excreted
b. speed the passage of the intestinal contents through the GI tract
c. increase digestion of intestinal contents
d. increase the water content of the intestinal contents

Answer 13

d. increase the water content of the intestinal contents

Question 14

Cathartic dependence can occur when

a. people do not use laxatives routinely and experience severe bouts of constipation
b. chronic laxative use leads to reliance on the intense stimulation of laxatives
c. people maintain a nutritious high-fibre diet
d. people start an excercise program to promote bowel elimination

Answer 14

b. chronic laxative use leads to reliance on the intense stimulation of laxatives

Question 15

The nurse should inform the client who is prescribed a nebuliser treatment with that a common adverse effect is

a. an increase heart rate with palpitation
b. a predisposition to infection
c. sedation
d. temporary dyspnoea

Answer 15

a. an increase heart rate with palpitation

Question 16

The nurse understands that ipratropium bromide is an effective bronchodilator because it

a. enhances the action of acetylcholine
b. stimulates the beta-adrenergic cells in the bronchi
c. antagonises the action of acetylcholine
d. blocks the histamine receptor in the bronchi

Answer 16

c. antagonises the action of acetylcholine

Question 17

Examples of preventor respiratory medications are

a. sympathaminetics and IGE monoclonal
b. methlaxanthines and corticosteroids
c. mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids
d. antimuscarinics and leukotriene receptor antagonists

Answer 17

c. mast cell stabilisers and corticosteroids

Question 18

Examples of corticosteroids use in treatment of asthma are

a. fluticason, budesonide and aminophylline
b. beclamethason, salbutamol and iphatopium
c. ephedrine, eformetrol and theophylline
d. budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone

Answer 18

d. budesonide, fluticasone and beclamethasone

Question 19

Symbicort is an example of a combination medication preparation containing.

a. eformoterol and budesonide
b. ipratopium bromide and salbutamol
c. fluticasone and salmeterol
d. eformoterol and fluticasone

Answer 19

a. eformoterol and budesonide

Question 20

Glucocorticoids are hormones which

a. are released in response to high glucose level
b. help to regulate electrolyte levels
c. help to regulate water levels in body
d. promote the preservation of energy through increase glucose leveles, protein breakdown and fat formation

Answer 20

d. promote the preservation of energy through increase glucose leveles, protein breakdown and fat formation

Question 21

The primary modifiable risk factors with hypotension are

a. heredity
b. environmental factors
c. lifestyle factors
d. genetics

Answer 21

c. lifestyle factors

Question 22

Ace inhibitors work on RAAS to prevent the conversion of Angiotension I to angiotension II, because this occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, use of ACE inhibitors often results in

a. spontaneous pneumotharax
b. penumonia
c. unrelenting cough
d. respiratory depression

Answer 22

c. unrelenting cough

Question 23

A person taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. The nurse or midwife should

a. stop the drug
b. Alert the surgeon and mark the persons chart prominently
c. cancel the surgery and consult with the presciber
d. monitor fluid levels and make sure the fluids are restricted before surgery

Answer 23

b. Alert the surgeon and mark the persons chart prominently

Question 24

Enalapril is used to lower elevated blood pressure by

a. inhibiting beta-adrenergic receptors in the cardiac muscle
b. interfering with the conversion of angiotension I to angiotension II
c. directly dilating peripheral arterioles
d. blocking the binding angiotensin II to its receptors

Answer 24

b. interfering with the conversion of angiotension I to angiotension II

Question 25

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic hypertension, the client is recieving lascartan daily, which client manifestations would the nurse conclude is an adverse effect of this medication

a. irritability and tremors
b. headache and dizziness
c. sleepiness and slurred speech
d. pruritus and rash

Answer 25

b. headache and dizziness

Question 26

HMG-CoA inhibitors work in the

a. process of bile secretion
b. process of cholesterol formation in the cell
c. intestinal wall to block fat absoption
d. kidney to block fat excretion

Answer 26

b. process of cholesterol formation in the cell

Question 27

Which of the following would the healthcare provider include when teaching a person about HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors?

a. the person will not develop CAD
b. the person might develop cataracts as a result
c. the person will not have a heart attack
d. the person might stop absorbing fat-soluble vitamins

Answer 27

b. the person might devlop cataracts as a result

Question 28

The client taking atorvastatin reports weakness and fatigue, pain in the shoulders and aching joints. The nurse initially assess the client for which condition

a. Rhabdomyalysis
b. Renal failure
c. Rheumotoid arthritis
d. Hepatic Insufficiency

Answer 28

a. Rhabdomyalysis

Question 29

A person with hyperglycaemia will present with

a. polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia
b. polycythaemia, polyuria and polyphagia
c. polydenitis, polyuria and polydipsia
d. polydipsia, polycythaemia and polydenitis

Answer 29

a. Polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia

Question 30

Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in their

a. effect on the pancreas
b. onset and duration of action
c. means of administration
d. tendency to cause adverse effects

Answer 30

b. onset and duration of action

Question 31

A client with type 1 diabetes will use a combination insulin that includes NPH and regular insuline. The nurse is explaining the importance of knowing the peak times for both insulins. Why is this information important for the client to know

a. the client will be able to estimate the time for the next injection of insulin based
b. the risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulins activity
c. it is best to plan activities or excerise around peak insulin times for the best utilisation of glucose
d. additional insulin may be required at the peak period to prevent hyperglycaemia

Answer 31

b. the risk of a hypoglycaemic reaction is greatest around the peak of insulins activity

Question 32

The nurse would consider which of the following assessment findings as adverse effects to specific metformin therapy

a. hypoglycaemia
b. gastrointestinal distress
c. lactic acidosis
d. weight loss

Answer 32

c. lactic acidosis

Question 33

When teaching a patient recieving tricylic antidepressants (TCA’S) it is important to remember the TCA’s are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of

a. increased libido and increase appetite
b. polyuria and polydipsia
c. urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation
d. hearing changes, cataracts and nightmares

Answer 33

c. urinary retention, arrhythmias and constipation

Question 34

Drugs that are used to commonly treat grand mal seizures include

a. barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins
b. barbiturates, anthihistamines and local anaesthestics
c. hydantoins and phenobarbitone
d. benzodiazepines and sodium valproate

Answer 34

a. barbiturates, benzodiazepines and hydantoins

Question 35

Halperidol is a potent antipyshcotic that is associated with

a. severe extrapyramidal effects
b. severe sedation
c. severe hypotension
d. sever anticholinergic effects

Answer 35

a. severe extrapyramidal effects

Question 36

The nurse, who is monitoring a client who is taking phenytoin, has noted symptoms of nystagmus, confusion and ataxia. Considering these findings, the nurse would suspect that the dose of the drug should be

a. reduced
b. increased
c. maintained
d. discontinued

Answer 36

a. reduced