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NUR256 Mid Semester Exam > Multiple Choice 9-14 > Flashcards

Multiple Choice 9-14 Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse or midwife is about to administer digoxin to a person whose apical pulse is 48beats/min. She should
A. Give the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low
B. Retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug, if the pulse has not changed
C. Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60beats/min
D. Withhold the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is below 60 beats/min

A

C. Retake the pulse in 1 hour and withhold the drug if the pulse is still less than 60beats/min

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2
Q 
Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential aero arrhythmic drugs often:
A. Cause heart failure 
B. Alter blood flow to the kidney
C. Cause new arrhythmias 
D. Cause electrolyte disturbances
A

C. Cause new arrhythmias

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3
Q

A person who is receiving an Antiarrhythmic drug needs:
A. Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilized
B. Frequent blood tests, including drug levels
C. An antidepressant to deal with the psychological depression
D. Dietary changes to prevent irritation of the heart muscle

A

A. Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilized

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4
Q 
Medications that increase the force of myocardial contractions have what type of effect?
A. Positive inotropic 
B. Negative inotropic
C. Positive chonotropic
D. Negative chonotropic
A

A. Positive inotropic

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5
Q 
Digoxin is classified as a:
A. Hypokalemic
B. Cardiac glycoside 
C. Coronary artery vasodilator
D. Positive chronotropic
A

B. Cardiac glycoside

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6
Q 
Atropine and hyoscine work by blocking
A. Nicotinic receptors only 
B. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
C. Muscarinic receptors only
D. Adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate
A

C. Muscarinic receptors only

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7
Q

A health care provider prescribes adrenaline to a patient who was stung by several wasps 30 minutes ago. The nurse knows that the primary purpose of this medication for this client is to:
A. Stop the systemic release of histamine produced by the mast cells
B. Counteract the formation of antibodies in response to an invading organism
C. Increase the number of white blood cells produced to fight the primary invader
D. Increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis

A

D. Increase a declining blood pressure and dilate constricting bronchi associated with anaphylaxis

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8
Q 
An asthmatic who is being treated for hypertension with a beta-blocker is most likely receiving:
A. A non specific beta blocker
B. An alpha1-specific beta blocker
C. Beta and alpha blockers
D. A beta 1 specific blocker
A

D. A beta 1 specific blocker

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9
Q

You would caution a person who is taking an adrenergic blocker:
A. To avoid exposure to infection
B. To stop the drug if he or she experiences flu like symptoms
C. Never to stop the drug abruptly
D. To avoid exposure to the sun

A

C. Never to stop the drug abruptly

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10
Q

Proper administration of an ordered narcotic:
A. Can lead to addiction
B. Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
C. Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really need it
D. Should rely on the persons request for medication

A

B. Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses

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11
Q

The nurse is caring for several clients who are receiving opioids for pain relief, which client is at highest risk of developing hypotension respiratory depression and mental confusion?
A. A 23 year old female, postoperative ruptured appendix
B. A 16 year old male, post-motorcycle injury with lacerations
C. A 54 year old female, post-myocardial infarction
D. An 86 year old male, postoperative femur fracture

A

D. An 86 year old male, post operative femur fracture

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12
Q 
The client asks you if paracetamol will help his arthritis like my aspirin does, you base your response on the knowledge that the pharmacotherapy actions of paracetamol are:
A. Analgesic and antipyretic 
B. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory
C. Anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet 
D. Antipyretic and anti-inflammatory
A

A. Analgesic and antipyretic

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13
Q 
Naloxone hydrochloride is classified as a:
A. Opioid analgesic 
B. Opioid agonist
C. Opioid partial agonist 
D. Opioid antagonist
A

D. Opioid antagonist

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14
Q 
The parenteral opioid analgesic that carries the greatest risk for respiratory depression with its use is 
A. Fentanyl citrate 
B. Morphine silicate
C. Hydromorphone
D. Pethidine
A

C. Hyromorphone

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15
Q

A bacteriostatic substance is one that
A. Directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with
B. Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
C. Prevents the growth of bacteria
D. Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance

A

D. Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance

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16
Q

The goal of antibiotic therapy is
A. To eradicate all bacteria from the system
B. To suppress the resistant strains of bacteria
C. To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection
D. To stop the drug as soon as the person feels better

A

C. To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection

17
Q

The penicillins
A. Are bacteriostatic
B. Are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls
C. Are effective only if given intravenously
D. Do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class

A

B. Are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls

18
Q

When teaching the client about taking oral tetracycline, which of the following does the nurse advise the client to do?
A. Consume calcium rich products to decrease the duration of the antibacterial effect
B. Use a soft toothbrush and floss teeth gently to remove staining on teeth
C. Report any ringing in ears of dizziness
D. Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sunblock when outdoors

A

D. Avoid direct exposure to sunlight and apply sunblock when outdoors

19
Q

The client is prescribed ciprocloxacin and is instructed to take each dose of medication as evenly spaced apart during the day as possible, the nurse recognises that this instruction is essential because
A. The medication can cause sleep pattern disturbances
B. Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates
C. Super infections may develop if a dose of medication is missed
D. Allergic reactions are more likely to occur if a dosed to missed

A

B. Pathogenic bacteria have extremely rapid growth and reproduction rates

20
Q

While a person is receiving a general anesthesia, he of she must be continually monitored because
A. The person has no pain sensation
B. Generalised CNS depression affects all body functions
C. The person cannot mclean
D. The person cannot communication

A

B. Generalised CNS depression affects all body functions

21
Q

Proper administration of an ordered narcotic
A. Can lead to addiction
B. Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses
C. Would include holding the drug as long as possible until the person really needs it
D. Should rely on the persons request for medication

A

B. Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses

22
Q

The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because
A. They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation and hypnosis
B. They can be stimulating
C. The are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs
D. They do not effect the Neurotransmitters

A

A. They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation and hypnosis

23
Q

Suzamenthonium has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the non depolarising nrl blockers because it
A. Does not bind well to receptor sites
B. Rapidly crosses the blood brain barrier and is lost
C. Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma
D. Is very unstable

A

C. Is broken down by acetylcholinesterase that is found in the plasma

24
Q

Warfarin an oral anticoagulant acts
A. To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
B. To decrease the production of vitamin k clotting factors in the liver
C. As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
D. Immediately, so it it the drug of choice in emergency situations

A

B. To decrease the production of vitamin k clotting factors in the liver

25
Q 
The low molecular weight heparin of choice for preventing deep vein thrombosis after hip replacement therapy is 
A. Tinzaparin
B. Dalteparin
C. Heparin
D. Enoxaparin
A

D. Enoxaparin

26
Q 
A thrombolytic agent could safely be used in 
A. CVA within the last 2 months
B. Acute MI within the the last 3 hours 
C. Recent, seriously GI bleeding
D. Caesarian birth
A

B. Acute MI within the the last 3 hours

27
Q 
The client with deep vein thrombosis is being treated with a heparin infusion. The nurse would monitor for therapeutic effectiveness by noting which of the following
A. Activated partial thromboplastic time
B. Prothrombin time
C. Platelet counts
D. International normalised ratio
A

A. Activated partial thromboplastic time

28
Q

A patient who is taking clopidogrel to prevent another stroke asks the nurse how the medication works, the nurses responses should be based on an understand that clopidogrel
A. Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation
B. Activates anti-thrombin ||| and subsequently inhibits thrombin
C. Inhibits enzymes involved in formation of vitamin k
D. Converts plasminogen to plasmin to dissolve fibrin clots

A

A. Inhibits platelet aggregation to prevent clot formation

29
Q 
The nurse or midwife would anticipate an order for a loop diuretic as the drug of choice for a person with
A. Hypertension
B. Shock
C. Pulmonary oedema
D. fluid retention related to pregnancy
A

C. Pulmonary oedema

30
Q

The nurse is teaching a group of clients with cardiac conditions so are taking diuretic therapy. The nurse explains that individual prescribed frusemide should
A. Avoid consuming large amounts of cabbage cauliflower and kale
B. Rise slowly from sitting or lying position
C. Count their pulse for 1 full minute before taking the mediation
D. Restrict fluid intake to no more than 1000ml in 24 hour period

A

B. Rise slowly from sitting or lying position

31
Q 
A person with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid this is often best accomplished by giving the person
A. A loop diuretic 
B. A thiazide diuretic 
C. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor 
D. An osmotic diuretic
A

D. An osmotic diuretic

32
Q 
Clients prescribed spinolactone are often at risk for electrolyte imbalance. The nurse assess for this adverse effect because this drug may cause the body to 
A. Retain potassium 
B. Release magnesium
C. Excrete potassium 
D. Bind calcium
A

A. Retain potassium

33
Q

Combination oestrogens and progestins are commonly used as oral contraceptives it it thought that this combination has its effects by
A. Acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development
B. Directly suppressing the ovaries and preventing ovulation
C. Keeping the endometrium constantly lush and blood filled
D. Prevent menstruation, which prevents pregnancy

A

A. Acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development

34
Q 
Testosterone is approved for use in
A. Treatment of breast cancer
B. Increasing muscle strength in athletes
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Increasing hair
A

A. Treatment of breast cancer

35
Q

Oxytocin, a synthetic form of hypothalamic hormone, is used to:
A. Induce labour by stimulating uterine contraction
B. Stimulate milk production in the lactating woman
C. Increase fertility and the chance of conception
D. Relax the Gracie uterus to prevent preterm labour

A

A. Induce labour by stimulating uterine contraction

NUR256 Mid Semester Exam (5 decks)

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