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EIS > Multiple Choice > Flashcards

Multiple Choice Flashcards

1
Q

True/False: An information system collects, processes, stores, analyzes, and disseminates information for a specific purpose using a computer.

A

Answer: True

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2
Q

True/False: IT is enabling more and more people to communicate, collaborate, and compete, thereby leveling the digital playing field.

A

Answer: True

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3
Q

True/False: A combination of your high school grades, application essays, letters of recommendation, and Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) scores would be considered information.

A

Answer: True

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4
Q

True/False: Information technology deals with the planning, development, management, and use of management information tools to help people perform all the tasks related to information processing and management.

A

Answer: True

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5
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit of being an informed user of IT?

a) Understanding what is “behind” applications you use in your organization.
b) Providing input to enhance your organization’s applications
c) Helping to select new applications
d) Keeping abreast of new technologies
e) Working in the IT side of the organization.

A

Answer: e) Working in the IT side of the organization.

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6
Q

The title of the executive who is in charge of the people who design and build information systems, the people who use those systems, and the people responsible for managing those systems is the

a) CEO
b) CFO
c) CIO
d) CIS
e) CIT

A

Answer: c) CIO

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7
Q

If Amazon uses a list of all your purchases (books bought, price paid, dates) to recommend other books to you, then it is applying its _____.

a) data
b) information
c) knowledge
d) experience
e) wisdom

A

Answer: c) knowledge

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8
Q

08) A purchase of books in the college bookstore is ___________. The report at the end of the day showing sales totals for the day is ____________.

a) information, knowledge
b) information, data
c) data, information
d) data, database
e) data item, business intelligence

A

Answer: c) data, information

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9
Q

An organization’s information technology architecture:

a) provides a guide for current operations.
b) provides a blueprint for future directions.
c) integrates the information requirements of the organization and all users.
d) is analogous to the architecture of a house.
e) all of these

A

Answer: e) all of these

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10
Q

10) Knowledge workers

a) handle day-to-day operations within an organization.
b) make tactical decisions.
c) advise middle managers
d) make routine decisions.
e) are generalists

A

Answer: c) advise middle managers

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11
Q

11) Which of the following statements about your future role as a manager is false?

a) The people I manage will likely be dispersed geographically.
b) The size of my team will likely be smaller than teams of today.
c) There will be less emphasis on office politics.
d) Many of my decisions will be “real time”.
e) I will need IT tools to handle the data I utilize to make decisions.

A

Answer: b) The size of my team will likely be smaller than teams of today.

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12
Q

True/False: An organization’s business processes can create a competitive advantage.

A

Answer: True

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13
Q

True/False: Business process management includes methods and tools to support the design, analysis, implementation, management, and optimization of business processes.

A

Answer: True

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14
Q

True/False: Globalization is the integration and interdependence of many facets of life made possible by rapid advances in information technology.

A

Answer: True

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15
Q

True/False: The information technology environment is the combination of social, legal, economic, physical, and political factors that affect business activities.

A

Answer: False

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16
Q

5) Managing account collections is an example of a(n):

a) Accounting Business Process
b) Finance Business Process
c) Marketing Business Process
d) Production Business Process
e) Management Information Systems Business Process

A

Answer: b) Finance Business Process

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17
Q

Which of the following processes involves the warehouse, purchasing, and accounting functional areas?

a) Procurement
b) Fulfillment
c) Order entry
d) Accounts receivable
e) Payroll

A

Answer: a) Procurement

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18
Q

Which of the following is not a role that information systems play in businesses processes?

a) Establish standards
b) Execute the process
c) Capture and store process data
d) Monitor process performance
e) Detect problems with the process.

A

Answer: a) Establish standards

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19
Q

The workforce in developed countries is exhibiting all of the following trends except:

a) It is becoming more diversified.
b) It includes more women.
c) It includes more single parents.
d) It includes fewer persons with disabilities.
e) It includes more minority-group members.

A

Answer: d) It includes fewer persons with disabilities.

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20
Q

True/False: A code of ethics is a collection of principles that are intended to guide decision making by members of the organization.

A

Answer: True

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21
Q

True/False: When you interview for a job at a company, it is likely that the company will Google you and search social networking sites for information on you.

A

Answer: True

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22
Q

True/False: The opt-out model of informed consent allows a company to collect personal information until the customers specifically requests otherwise.

A

Answer: True

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23
Q

The ____________ ethical standard states that an ethical action is the one that provides the most good or does the least harm.

a) Common good
b) Fairness
c) Rights
d) Utilitarian
e) Well-being

A

Answer: d) Utilitarian

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24
Q

_____________ means accepting the consequences of your decisions and actions.

a) Privacy
b) Responsibility
c) Transferability
d) Accountability
e) Liability

A

Answer: b) Responsibility

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25
Q

What is the relationship between advances in information technology and the practice of profiling?

a) Advances in IT make it more difficult to profile individuals.
b) Advances in IT have no impact on profiling.
c) Advances in IT make it more expensive to profile individuals.
d) Advances in IT make it easier to profile individuals.

A

Answer: d) Advances in IT make it easier to profile individuals.

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26
Q

Data aggregators sell digital dossiers to companies that want to know their customers better. This practice is called ________.

a) Customer relationships
b) Customer profiling
c) Customer intimacy
d) Customer knowledge
e) Spying

A

Answer: c) Customer intimacy

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27
Q

True/False: Having one backup of your business data is sufficient for security purposes.

A

Answer: False

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28
Q

True/False: Trojan horses are software programs that hide in other computer programs and reveal their designed behavior only when they are activated.

A

Answer: True

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29
Q

True/False: Cyberterrorism and cyberwarfare can attack supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems to cause widespread physical damage.

A

Answer: True

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30
Q

In its study of various organizations, the Ponemon Institute found that the most common cause of data breaches was:

a) weak passwords.
b) unattended computers.
c) employee negligence.
d) contract labor, such as consultants.
e) poor antivirus software.

A

Answer: c) employee negligence

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31
Q

Which of the following factors is not increasing the threats to information security?

a) smaller computing devices
b) downstream liability
c) the Internet
d) limited storage capacity on portable devices
e) due diligence

A

Answer: d) limited storage capacity on portable devices

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32
Q

Employees in which functional areas of the organization pose particularly grave threats to information security?

a) human resources, finance
b) human resources, management information systems
c) finance, marketing
d) operations management, management information systems
e) finance, management information systems

A

Answer: b) human resources, management information systems

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33
Q

True/False: Data warehouses are invaluable decision-making tools.

A

Answer: True

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34
Q

True/False: Cardinality and modality are the indicators of the business rules in a relationship

A

Answer: True

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35
Q

True/False: 3) Data normalization is a method for analyzing and reducing a relational database to its most streamlined form for minimum redundancy

A

Answer: True

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36
Q

True/False: 4) Primary key is an identifier field or attribute that has some identifying information, but typically does not identify the file with complete accuracy.

A

Answer: True

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37
Q

5) By using relational databases we can maximize:
a. Data security
b. Data integrity
c. Data independence
d. All of the above

A

Answer: d. All of the above

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38
Q

6) Using relational databases some of the following problems are minimized:
a. Data isolation
b. Data Redundancy
c. Data inconsistency
d. All of the above

A

Answer: d. All of the above

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39
Q

True/False: Network interface cards are special adapters that link an individual device to the communications medium on a local area network.

A

Answer: True

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40
Q

True/False: An intranet is a network that uses Internet technologies and is designed to serve the information needs of a single organization.

A

Answer: True

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41
Q

_____ refers to the range of frequencies available in any communications channel.

a) Protocol
b) Broadband
c) Capacity
d) Narrowband
e) Bandwidth

A

Answer: e) Bandwidth

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42
Q

Which of the following are advantages of computer networks?

a) They enable organizations to be more flexible.
b) They enable companies to share hardware, computer applications, and data.
c) They enable geographically dispersed employees to work together.
d) They provide a critical link between businesses and their customers.
e) All of these

A

Answer: e) All of these

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43
Q

A _____ connects dissimilar networks.

a) Router
b) Network interface card
c) Bridge
d) Gateway
e) File server

A

Answer: d) Gateway

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44
Q

Workflow, groupware, and telepresence systems are examples of which network application?

a) Discovery
b) Communications
c) Collaboration
d) Web services
e) None of these

A

Answer: c) Collaboration

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45
Q

True/False: Forward auctions are auctions that sellers use as a channel to many potential buyers.

A

Answer: True

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46
Q

True/False: Channel conflict occurs when click-and-mortar companies have problems with their regular distributors when they sell directly to customers online.

A

Answer: True

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47
Q

In _______ e-commerce, the sellers and buyers are organizations.

a) government-to-citizen
b) consumer-to-consumer
c) business-to-business
d) business-to-consumer
e) consumer-to-business

A

Answer: c) business-to-business

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48
Q

If you are a worker managing your fringe benefits over your company’s intranet, you are engaging in _________ e-commerce.

a) business-to-business
b) business-to-consumer
c) consumer-to-consumer
d) business-to-employee
e) government-to-citizen

A

Answer: d) business-to-employee

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49
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the relationship between electronic commerce and search is not correct?

a) Purchases often follow successful online searches.
b) Shopping carts are often abandoned after unsuccessful online searches.
c) Retailers will provide fewer product details to avoid information overload for customers.
d) Customers will be able to find the closest store offering the product that they want.
e) Customers will have more relevant product information in the near future.

A

Answer: c) Retailers will provide fewer product details to avoid information overload for customers.

50
Q

In which of the following business models do businesses request quotes from suppliers and use B2B with a reverse auction mechanism?

a) find-the-best-price
b) electronic tendering system
c) name-your-own-price
d) online direct marketing
e) affiliate marketing

A

Answer: b) electronic tendering system

51
Q

True/False: A hotspot is a small geographical perimeter within which a wireless access point provides service to a number of users.

A

Answer: True

52
Q

True/False: Two systems being developed to replace bar codes are QR codes and RFID systems.

A

Answer: True

53
Q

Individuals are finding it convenient and productive to use wireless devices for which of the following reasons?

a) To make use of time that was formerly wasted
b) To become more efficient
c) Work locations are more flexible
d) To be able to allocate working time around personal and professional obligations
e) All of these

A

Answer: e) All of these

54
Q

The capabilities of smart phones include all of the following except _________.

a) A calculator
b) E-mail
c) A global positioning system
d) Corporate transaction processing
e) A full-function Internet browser

A

Answer: d) Corporate transaction processing

55
Q

Which type of satellite has the largest footprint?

a) Low-earth-orbit
b) Medium-earth-orbit
c) Geostationary
d) Polar orbit
e) Equatorial orbit

A

Answer: c) Geostationary

56
Q

True/False: Geo-tagging refers to tagging information on tour sites.

A

Answer: False

57
Q

You sign up for an RSS feed from CNN.com. Which of the following would you expect to happen?

a) When you sign up, you will need to download print templates.
b) You won’t be able to search RSS content.
c) You will be able to choose only one topic area.
d) You will be notified of updates in the content areas you selected.
e) You will get content sent to you via e-mail.

A

Answer: d) You will be notified of updates in the content areas you selected.

58
Q

Which of the following is not an example of crowdsourcing?

a) Posting a task that needs to be completed with a price for completion
b) Posting personal pictures that can be licensed by interested parties
c) Posting a call for new manuscripts
d) Asking for feedback on products and make it publically available
e) Asking for new product ideas and reward those used

A

Answer: c) Posting a call for new manuscripts

59
Q

Which of the following is not a social networking site?

a) Facebook
b) YouTube
c) Flickr
d) Wikipedia
e) LinkedIn

A

Answer: d) Wikipedia

60
Q

True/False: The functional area information systems are the most fundamental information systems in the organization.

A

Answer: False

61
Q

True/False: In general, organizations try to automate data entry as much as possible.

A

Answer: True

62
Q

True/False: When you make a purchase online, that transaction is an example of batch processing.

A

Answer: False

63
Q

True/False: Information silos were particularly efficient when business processes crossed functional boundaries in an organization.

A

Answer: False

64
Q

True/False: When ERP systems are not appropriate in an organization, then that organization can use an enterprise application integration system.

A

Answer: True

65
Q

True/False: Drill down reports are produced at scheduled intervals.

A

Answer: False

66
Q

Which of the following is Answer: True?

a) Transactions are only critical to the area they occur in.
b) Transactions can only involve one database.
c) Transactions can only involve one computer.
d) The actual processing of a Transaction has to be standard.
e) Transactions generate a small volume of data.

A

Answer: d) The actual processing of a Transaction has to be standard.

67
Q

Which of the following is false?

a) Corporate data is supplied by Transaction processing systems.
b) Information systems are only used by large organizations.
c) Reports from information systems are used in all levels of the organization.
d) Data from TPS systems feeds ERP systems.
e) Information systems within an organization support internal and external processes.

A

Answer: b) Information systems are only used by large organizations.

68
Q

Crediting interest to your savings account at your bank once a month, it is called a:

a) process
b) function
c) calculation
d) Transaction
e) decision

A

Answer: d) Transaction

69
Q

____ integrate the planning, management, and use of all of an organization’s resources, and are designed to tightly integrate the functional areas of the organization.

a) Transaction processing systems
b) Supply chain management systems
c) Functional area information systems
d) Enterprise resource planning systems
e) Corporate extranets

A

Answer: d) Enterprise resource planning systems

70
Q

True/False: The real problem with interacting with customers over the Web is that the company does not have an opportunity to make a good first impression in person.

A

Answer: True

71
Q

True/False: Transactional CRM systems provide interactive communication with the customer throughout the organization.

A

Answer: False

72
Q

True/False: Supply chain visibility is the time between the receipt of incoming goods and the dispatch of finished, outbound products.

A

Answer: False

73
Q

_____ systems support the front-office business processes which directly interact with customers.

a) CRM
b) Collaborative CRM
c) Operational CRM
d) Analytical CRM
e) Transactional CRM

A

Answer: c) Operational CRM

74
Q

_____ includes those areas where customers directly interact with the company.

a) CRM
b) Analytical CRM
c) Customer-facing CRM
d) Customer-touching CRM
e) Transactional CRM

A

Answer: c) Customer-facing CRM

75
Q

_____ is the component of an operational CRM system that automatically records all the aspects in a sales transaction process.

a) Inbound telesales
b) Outbound telesales
c) Sales team efforts
d) Sales force automation
e) The customer help desk

A

Answer: d) Sales force automation

76
Q

You are in the market for a small economy car. The salesperson has you drive the economy car, and then hands you the keys to a mid-size car of the same brand for you to drive. The salesperson is engaged in:

a) up-selling
b) cross-selling
c) bundling
d) customer relationship management
e) customer intimacy

A

Answer: a) up-selling

77
Q

_____ is a sales strategy where the business person will provide to customers the opportunity to purchase higher-value related products.

a) Bundling
b) Up-selling
c) Re-selling
d) Additional selling
e) Cross-selling

A

Answer b) Up-selling

78
Q

True/False: The number of alternatives to be considered in decisions today is increasing.

A

Answer: True

79
Q

True/False: Unstructured decisions require a combination of standard solution procedures and individual judgment.

A

Answer: True

80
Q

True/False: An executive dashboard is very user friendly, supported by graphics, provides exception reporting and drill down, and provides information related to critical success factors.

A

Answer: True

81
Q

_____ is the process by which organizational goals are achieved through the use of organizational resources.

a) Organizational decision making
b) Operations
c) Organizational strategy
d) Organizational productivity
e) Management

A

Answer: e

82
Q

In the _____ phase of the decision-making process, managers construct a model that simplifies the problem.

a) implementation
b) choice
c) design
d) intelligence
e) consideration

A

Answer: c) design

83
Q

________ decisions are more common at lower organizational levels.

a) Structured b) Unstructured
c) Undocumented
d) Semistructured e) Procedural

A

Answer: a) Structured

84
Q

At the end of a semester, a student knows that she must achieve a grade of 81 or higher on her final exam to get an A in the course. She has just performed what kind of analysis?

a) What-if
b) Qualitative
c) Sensitivity
d) Goal-seeking
e) Simulation

A

Answer: d) Goal-seeking

85
Q

True/False: The application portfolio in an organization is a set of recommended applications resulting from the planning and justification process in application development.

A

Answer: True

86
Q

True/False: The IT infrastructure delineates the way an organization’s information resources should be used to accomplish its mission.

A

Answer: False

87
Q

True/False: The return on investment (ROI) method of cost-benefit analysis measures the effectiveness of management in generating profits with its available assets.

A

Answer: True

88
Q

True/False: Technical feasibility determines if the project is an acceptable financial risk and if the organization can afford the expense and time needed to complete the project.

A

Answer: False

89
Q

True/False: Project management refers to the processes a company uses to plan and execute large scale projects.

A

Answer: True

90
Q

True/False: Financial accounting process focuses on internal reporting to manage costs.

A

Answer: False

91
Q

True/False: One of the major benefit of ERP systems is to integrate systems so sharing data can be made easy.

A

Answer: True

92
Q

True/False: In the client server architecture the data, applications and presentation are all included in one system.

A

Answer: False

93
Q

True/False: CRM systems are intra-organizational systems.

A

Answer: False

94
Q

In the planning phase:

a. the milestones are set		b. deadlines are set
c. Project scope is defined		d. all of the above
A

Answer d. all of the above

95
Q

Life cycle data management enables an organization to:

a. optimize its product development process
b. ensures that it complies with industry and quality standards
c. ensures that it complies with industry, quality. And regulatory standards
d. a and
e. a and c

A

Answer e. a and c

96
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the 3-tier architecture?

a. presentation layer
b. application layer
c. data layer
d. hardware layer

A

Answer: d. hardware layer

97
Q

Which of the following is an example of organizational data? Data about:

a. Customers
b. Vendors
c. Sales Organizations
d. Material

A

Answer: c. Sales Organizations

98
Q

Which of the following was the earliest stage in the evolution of enterprise systems?

a. service oriented architecture (SOA)
b. client-server architecture
c. process oriented architecture
d. stand-alone mainframe architecture

A

Answer: d. stand-alone mainframe architecture

99
Q

What information is needed to convert a purchase requisition to a purchase order?

a) Vendor
b) Material
c) Customer
d) Warehouse
e) Salesperson

A

Answer: a) Vendor

100
Q

07) . What activity is performed when a shipment arrives from a vendor?
a) Goods Receipt
b) Invoicing
c) Payment
d) Create Purchase Order
e) Pick & Pack

A

Answer: a) Goods Receipt

101
Q

1) True/False: Sales order is an internal document created by a company when it receives the customer PO.

A

Answer: True

102
Q

True/False: Quotation spells out the availability and prices of the materials specified in the inquiry.

A

Answer: True

103
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of the Fulfillment Process?
a. Receive Customer Inquiry, Receive Customer Purchase Order, Create Sales Order, Prepare and Send Shipment, Create and Send Invoice, Receive Payment

b. Receive Customer Purchase Order, Receive Customer Inquiry, Create Sales Order, Prepare and Send Shipment, Create and Send Invoice, Receive Payment.
c. Receive Customer Inquiry, Receive Customer Purchase Order, Create Sales Order, Create and Send Invoice, Prepare and Send Shipment, Receive Payment.
d. Create Sales Order, Receive Customer Inquiry, Receive Customer Purchase Order, Prepare and Send Shipment, Create and Send Invoice, Receive Payment.

A

Answer: a. Receive Customer Inquiry, Receive Customer Purchase Order, Create Sales Order, Prepare and Send Shipment, Create and Send Invoice, Receive Payment

104
Q

In the fulfillment process, which department prepares and sends the shipment?

a. Sales
b. Purchasing
c. Accounting
d. Warehouse

A

Answer: d. Warehouse

105
Q

In the fulfillment process, which department prepares and sends the quotation?

a. Sales
b. Purchasing
c. Accounting
d. Production

A

Answer: a. Sales

106
Q

In the fulfillment process, which department prepares and sends the invoice?

a. Sales
b. Accounting
c. Warehouse
d. Production

A

Answer: b. Accounting

107
Q

In a manual process, which of the following documents accompanies the shipment and specifies the items and quantities shipped?

a. purchase order
b. picking list
c. invoice
d. packing list

A

Answer: d. packing list

108
Q

A company does not have sufficient inventory of materials ordered by a customer. So, it ships what it has now and will ship the remaining at a later date when more materials are available. Which of the following best describes the above scenario?

a. balked shipment
b. rejected shipment
c. picking
d. backorder

A

Answer: d. backorder

109
Q

When using an ES, the person responsible for preparing invoices can retrieve a list of orders that need to be billed. Such a list is called:

a. billing due list
b. delivery due list
c. order due list
d. customer order list

A

Answer: a. billing due list

110
Q

Which of the following identifies the parts needed to make one unit of a product?

a. product routing
b. bill of material
c. engineering drawing
d. packing list

A

Answer: b. bill of material

111
Q

Which of the following defines the steps or operations necessary to create the product?

a. product routing
b. bill of material
c. engineering drawing
d. packing list

A

Answer: a. product routing

112
Q

When using an ES, which of the following is a key tool to review the current inventory and upcoming productions orders for a specific product?

a. balance sheet
b. stock requirements list
c. material withdrawal slip
d. planned order status

A

Answer: b. stock requirements list

113
Q

____________ includes a list of all the materials needed to produce the quantity of finished goods stated in the production order.

a. balance sheet
b. stock requirements list
c. material withdrawal slip
d. planned order status

A

Answer: c. material withdrawal slip

114
Q

Which of the following is the sequence of activities in the Idea-to-Market Process in PLM?

a. Idea Sourcing & Management, Project Management, Document Management, Quality Assurance & Testing, New Product Introduction
b. Project Management, Idea Sourcing & Management, Document Management, Quality Assurance & Testing, New Product Introduction
c. Project Management, Idea Sourcing & Management, Quality Assurance & Testing, Document Management, New Product Introduction
d. Idea Sourcing & Management, Project Management, Quality Assurance & Testing, Document Management, New Product Introduction

A

Answer a. Idea Sourcing & Management, Project Management, Document Management, Quality Assurance & Testing, New Product Introduction

115
Q

Which of the following is the sequence of activities in the Demand-to-Order Process in CRM?

a. Demand Generation, Opportunity Management, Quotations & Bidding, Sales Order Conversion, Customer Service and Support
b. Opportunity Management, Demand Generation, Quotations & Bidding, Sales Order Conversion, Customer Service and Support
c. Opportunity Management, Demand Generation, Sales Order Conversion, Quotations & Bidding, Customer Service and Support
d. Demand Generation, Opportunity Management, Sales Order Conversion, Quotations & Bidding, Customer Service and Support

A

Answer a Demand Generation, Opportunity Management, Quotations & Bidding, Sales Order Conversion, Customer Service and Support

116
Q

Which of the following is the sequence of activities in the Human Capital Management Process?

a. Recruit Employees, Employee On-Boarding, Performance Management, Career Planning, Employee Off-Boarding
b. Employee On-Boarding, Recruit Employees, Performance Management, Career Planning, Employee Off-Boarding
c. Employee On-Boarding, Recruit Employees, Career Planning, Performance Management, Employee Off-Boarding
d. Recruit Employees, Employee On-Boarding, Career Planning, Performance Management, Employee Off-Boarding

A

Answer a - Recruit Employees, Employee On-Boarding, Performance Management, Career Planning, Employee Off-Boarding

117
Q

Which of the following processes is associated with this sequence: Idea Sourcing & Management, Project Management, Document Management, Quality Assurance & Testing, New Product Introduction?

a. Human Capital Management Process
b. Idea-to-Market Process in PLM
c. Source-to-Settle Process in SRM
d. Plan-to-Produce Process in SCM

A

Answer b. Idea-to-Market Process in PLM

118
Q

True/False: Linux, and Windows 7 are examples of Application software.

A

Answer: True

119
Q

True/False: Open system concept refers to a group of computing products that work together.

A

Answer: True

120
Q

True/False: Application software is a set of instructions that serve primarily as an intermediary between user and computer hardware.

A

Answer: False

121
Q

True/False: Operating system supervises the overall operation of the computer by monitoring the computer’s status, scheduling operations, and managing input and output processes.

A

Answer: True

EIS (3 decks)

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