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FINALS MTAP2 > MTL Sir Balce > Flashcards

MTL Sir Balce Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Medical Technology Laws, Related Laws and implementing rules, and the Code of Ethics were ADDED to the original scope of examination by virtue of:

A. RA 6138
B. PD 498
C. PD 1534
D. RA 5527

A

B. PD 498

added in 1974

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following contains the New Rules and Regulations Governing the Regulation of Clinical Laboratories in the Philippines?

A. AO 2007-0027
B. AO 2008-0008
C. AO 2015-0045
D. AO 2021-0037

A

D. AO 2021-0037

On July 11, 2021

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3
Q
  1. RA 5527 or the Philippine Medical Technology Act was approved on:

A. June 28, 1969
B. August 31, 1969
C. June 11, 1969
D. June 21, 1969

A

D. June 21, 1969

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4
Q
  1. What is the total number of personnel required for a secondary clinical laboratory offering MINIMUM service capabilities?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 12
D. 13

A

C. 12

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to an EXTENSION of the main clinical laboratory located within the facility’s compound or premises and has the SAME service capability as the main laboratory?

A. Mobile clinical laboratory
B. Physician’s office laboratory
C. Satellite clinical laboratory
D. Reference laboratory

A

C. Satellite clinical laboratory

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6
Q
  1. Section 8 of RA 5527 contains provisions for the:

A. qualification of the Board members
B. functions of the Board
C. composition of the Board
D. removal of Board members

A

A. qualification of the Board members

B. is Section 11
C. is Section 7
D. is Section 12

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7
Q
  1. The Medical Technologist Code of Ethics is based on:

A. principles of professional conduct
B. rules and statutes
C. Hippocratic Oath
D. professional regulatory laws

A

A. principles of professional conduct

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8
Q
  1. The Professional Regulation Commission is currently attached to the:

A. Office of the President
B. Department of Labor and Employment
C. Civil Service Commission
D. Department of Interior and Local Government

A

B. Department of Labor and Employment

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9
Q
  1. According to RA 10912, which of the following sits as chairperson of the CPD Council for Medical Technology?

A. PAMET President
B. PASMETH President
C. PRBMT Member
D. PRC Commissioner

A

C. PRBMT Member

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10
Q
  1. The certificate of registration of a professional is approved by the:

A. Professional Regulatory Board Secretary
B. Professional Regulatory Board Chairman
C. Civil Service Commissioner
D. PRC Chairperson

A

D. PRC Chairperson

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11
Q
  1. Which section of RA 5527 requires a duly registered medical technologist to display his certificate of registration in the place where he works?

A. 16
B. 20
C. 21
D. 24

A

C. 21

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12
Q
  1. An UNANIMOUS vote of all members of the Board is required to impose the penalty of:

A. reprimand
B. suspension of COR
C. revocation of COR
D. perpetual disqualification from the practice of medical technology

A

C. revocation of COR

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13
Q
  1. Which administrative order TRANSFERRED the responsibility of handling the accreditation of clinical laboratories for the training of medical technology interns from DOH to CHED?

A. AO 11 s. 2007
B. AO 27 s. 2007
C. AO 118-B s. 1992
D. CMO No. 06 s. 2008

A

A. AO 11 s. 2007

B. AO 27 s. 2007 - PREVIOUS IRR
C. AO 118-B s. 1992 - training labs

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14
Q
  1. According to AO 2008-0008, the following are service capabilities of a blood collection unit EXCEPT:

A. Recruitment, retention, and care of blood donors
B. Screening and selection of voluntary blood donors
C. Collection of blood from qualified blood donors
D. Storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components

A

D. Storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components

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15
Q
  1. Continuing Professional Development (CPD) is a mandatory requirement for the renewal of:

A. Professional Identification Card
B. Oath of Professional
C. Certificate of Registration
D. License to Operate

A

A. Professional Identification Card

- expires every 3 years it requires compliance of CPD requirements

  • COR do not EXPIRE
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16
Q
  1. Which entity is responsible for facilitating NEQAS to ensure compliance to quality standards for regulation and licensing of all laboratories in the Philippines?

A. CHD
B. HFSRB
C. NRL
D. BRL

A

C. NRL

- NEQAS is conjunction with NRL which facilitate NEQAS

B. issues license to operate

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17
Q
  1. Which law repealed the Blood Bank Act of 1956?

A. RA 4688
B. RA 5527
C. RA 7719
D. RA 7722

A

C. RA 7719

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following licensure examination subjects has a weight of 10%?

A. Clinical Chemistry
B. Hematology
C. Clinical Microscopy
D. Blood Banking and Serology

A

C. Clinical Microscopy

- MTL and Histopath have 10%

The others have 20% weight

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19
Q
  1. What is the general average of an examinee who gets the following ratings in the licensure
    examination?
    Clin. Chemistry = 83%
    Blood Bank-Sero = 79%
    Mico-Para = 85%
    Clin. Microscopy = 79%
    Hematology = 70%
    Histopath-MTL = 79%

A. 75.3%
B. 74.5%
C. 72.9%
D.79.2%

A

D. 79.2%

Solution:
multiplying all 20% weighted subjects by .20 then 10% weighted subjects by .10 then adding all
CC = 16.6
Micro-Para = 17
Hema = 14
BB/Sero = 15.8
CM = 7.9
Histo/ MTL = 7.9
GWA = 79.2

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20
Q
  1. In order to pass the examination, a candidate must obtain a general average of at least ___, with no rating below ___ in any of the major subjects and has not failed in at least ___ of the subjects
    computed according to their relative weights.

A. 75%; 60%; 50%
B. 70%; 50%; 60%
C. 70%; 60%; 50%
D. 75%; 50%; 60%

A

D. 75%; 50%; 60%

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21
Q
  1. The following are requirements for the issuance of a certificate of registration (COR) EXCEPT:

A. passed the required examination
B. proof of CPD compliance
C. payment of applicable fees
D. at least 21 years of age

A

B. proof of CPD compliance

It is only for renewal of PIC every 3 years

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22
Q
  1. The Organ Donation Act of 1991 is otherwise known as:

A. RA 1517
B. RA 7170
C. RA 7719
D. RA 8504

A

B. RA 7170

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23
Q
  1. The Philippine HIV/AIDS Policy Act was signed into law on :

A. February 13, 1998
B. December 20, 2018
C. July 21, 2016
D. February 20, 2019

A

B. December 20, 2018

A. Approval of the Old HIV Law RA. 8504

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24
Q
  1. According to RA 11166, any young person aged below 15 who is pregnant or engaged in high-risk behaviour shall be eligible for HIV testing and counselling without the need for consent from a parent or guardian. This is in keeping with the:

A. principle of evolving capacities of a child
B. mandate of confidentiality
C. mature minor doctrine
D. principle of informed consent

A

C. mature minor doctrine

Actually has 2 principles which is C and the other one is A

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25
Q
  1. According to RA 5527, the penalty of suspension of COR shall run from the date of surrender and shall not exceed:

A. 6 months
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

A

B. 2 years

maximum

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26
Q
  1. Inexcusable failure to surrender a suspended or revoked certificate of registration within the required period shall be punishable with:

A. a fine of P5, 000.00
B. imprisonment for 6 months to 2 years
C. both fine and imprisonment
D. perpetual disqualification from the practice of medical technology

A

D. perpetual disqualification from the practice of medical technology

suspended or revoked COR must be surrendered within “30 DAYS”

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27
Q
  1. Compulsory HIV testing shall be allowed in the following instances EXCEPT:

A. testing a person who is charged with rape and simple seduction
B. resolving relevant issues under the Family Code of the Philippines
C. as a prerequisite in the donation of blood
D. testing a pregnant woman as part of pre-natal medical care

A

D. testing a pregnant woman as part of pre-natal medical care

HIv testing - must be done voluntarily or w/ written consent

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28
Q
  1. The following are exceptions to the mandate of confidentiality relative to the release of HIV/AIDS information EXCEPT:

A. When complying with reportorial requirements of DOH
B. When informing other health workers directly involved in the treatment or care of a PLHIV
C. When producing a film for HIV/AIDS education or information dissemination
D. When responding to a subpoena issued by a court

A

C. When producing a film for HIV/AIDS education or information dissemination

- RESULTS should be given to the person who undergone the test

or the parent or guardian when applicable

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29
Q
  1. What is the minimum required floor area for a screening drug testing laboratory?

A. 10 m2
B. 20 m2
C. 30 m2
D. 60 m2

A

B. 20 m2

total floor area

A. for work area of SCREENING
C. for the work area of CONFIRMATORY drug testing
D. for the min. required floor are for CONFIRMATORY drug testing

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30
Q
  1. Which sections of the Philippine Medical Technology Act were amended by RA 6138?

A. 3, 8, 13
B. 16, 21, 22
C. 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11
D. 13, 16, 17, 21, 29

A

B. 16, 21, 22

On August 31, 1932

C and D is for PD 498
A is for PD 1534

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31
Q
  1. Whether a clinical laboratory is primary, secondary, or tertiary is a classification by:

A. function
B. ownership
C. service capability
D. institutional character

A

C. service capability

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32
Q
  1. Any person who shall assume, use or advertise any title or description tending to convey the impression that he is a Medical Technologist without holding a valid certificate of registration is violating which section of RA 5527?

A. 20
B. 23
C. 24
D. 29

A

D. 29

- Penal Code

A. is for Oath taking
B. is for Refusal to issue COR
C. is for Admisnistrative Investigation

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33
Q
  1. Which is the national reference laboratory for sexually transmitted infections?

A. East Avenue Medical Center
B. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
C. Lung Center of the Philippines
D. San Lazaro Hospital - SACCL

A

D. San Lazaro Hospital - SACCL

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34
Q
  1. According to PD 498, the Board may change, add to or remove from the list of board examination subjects or weights as progress in the science of Medical Technology may require, subject to the prior approval of the:

A. Professional Regulation Commission
B. Commission on Higher Education
C. President of the Philippines
D. CPD Council for Medical Technology

A

A. Professional Regulation Commission

Any change in the scope of examination must be approved by the PRC and must be published 3 months before the schedule of licensure exam

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35
Q
  1. SWOT analysis is part of which managerial function?

A. planning
B. leading
C. organizing
D. controlling

A

A. planning

Long-term plan

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36
Q
  1. The following are functions of the national reference laboratories EXCEPT:

A. Provide laboratory referral services.
B. Conduct training to improve the skills of laboratory personnel.
C. Issue license to operate a clinical laboratory.
D. Evaluate in vitro diagnostic kits and reagents.

A

C. Issue license to operate a clinical laboratory

since this is the responsibility of HFRSB

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37
Q
  1. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 is otherwise known as:

A. RA 7722
B. RA 9165
C. RA 8981
D. RA 9288

A

C. RA 8981

B. Dangerous Drug Act. 2022
D. Newborn Screening Act. 2004

A. is CHED Law
B. Dangerous Drug Act of 2022
D. Newborn Screening Act of

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38
Q
  1. The basic newborn screening panel includes tests for the following disorders EXCEPT:

A. Congenital Hypothyroidism and Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
B. Glycogen Storage Disease and Cystic Fibrosis
C. Phenylketonuria and Maple Syrup Urine Disease
D. Galactosemia and G6PD Deficiency

A

B. Glycogen Storage Disease and Cystic Fibrosis

The 6 disorders of the basic panel are A, C, and D

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39
Q
  1. Which disorder became part of the basic newborn screening panel by virtue of AO 2012-0154?

A. G6PD deficiency
B. Galactosemia
C. MSUD
D. Phenylketonuria

A

C. MSUD

It used to be 5 basic panel but in 2012 this was added

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40
Q
  1. In the last few lines of the “Panunumpa ng Propesyonal”, the newly licensed professional states his:

A. profession
B. school
C. name and address
D. citizenship

A

A. profession

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41
Q
  1. The acronym DMAIC stands for:

A. Define, Monitor, Analyze, Improve, Control
B. Define, Measure, Analyze, Implement, Control
C. Define, Measure, Assess, Improve, Control
D. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control

A

D. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control

- to achieve the goals of 6 sigma

42
Q
  1. The basic elements of informed consent include the following EXCEPT:

A. disclosure of information
B. understanding
C. voluntariness
D. paternalism

A

D. paternalism

The 3 basic elements of informed consent
1. Disclosure of information and risks
2. Understanding or competence
3. Voluntary nature of decision

43
Q
  1. As enumerated in Section 36 of RA 9165, the following shall undergo mandatory drug testing EXCEPT:

A. Applicants for driver’s license
B. Officers and members of the military
C. All students of secondary and tertiary schools
D. All candidates for public office

A

C. All students of secondary and tertiary schools

- randomly selected not mandatory

44
Q
  1. The obligation of a healthcare professional to acknowledge a person’s decision-making rights following disclosure of risks is termed:

A. autonomy
B. non-maleficence
C. beneficence
D. justice

A

A. autonomy

  • w/o there should be respect in both sides

- w/ informed consent

45
Q
  1. In which management style does the manager leave the decision-making to staff and abdicate his responsibility?

A. Authoritarian
B. Democratic
C. Consensus
D. Laissez-faire

A

D. Laissez-faire

46
Q
  1. Herzberg’s hygiene factors correspond to Maslow’s:

A. physiological and safety needs
B. esteem needs
C. social needs
D. self-actualization

A

A. physiological and safety needs

47
Q
  1. Blake-Mouton’s country club management style is described as having:

A. low concern for people and production
B. low concern for people, but high concern for production
C. high concern for people, but low concern for production
D. high concern for people and production

A

C. high concern for people, but low concern for production

48
Q
  1. Which of the following approaches is designed to reduce waste or non-valued activities and is often used in clinical laboratories to improve the turnaround time?

A. Lean
B. Six Sigma
C. PDCA Cycle
D. ISO 15189

A

A. Lean

49
Q
  1. Learning that has been acquired in ADDITION or ALTERNATIVELY to formal learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according to educational and training arrangements:

A. self-directed
B. non-formal
C. life-long
D. informal

A

B. non-formal

ex: seminars and training workshops

50
Q
  1. The following are the service capabilities of hospital-based secondary laboratories EXCEPT:

A. electrolytes
B. coagulation
C. cytology
D. complete blood count

A

C. cytology

tertiary laboratories

51
Q
  1. The color code of waste containers for aerosol cans is:

A. yellow
B. red
C. black
D. orange

A

B. red

like sharps and aerosols

52
Q
  1. Select the recommended dilution of bleach for decontamination of body fluid spills.

A. 1 part household bleach + 10 parts water
B. 1 part household bleach + 9 parts water
C. 10 parts household bleach + 1 part water
D. 9 parts household bleach + 1 part water

A

B. 1 part household bleach + 9 parts water

Recommended: 1:10 ratio

53
Q
  1. Which of the following sections in the universal SDS format contains information about exposure controls and personal protection?

A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 8
D. Section 10

A

C. Section 8

A. Hazard Ident.
B. First Aid Procedure
D. Stability & Reactivity

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is designated as the national reference laboratory for environmental and occupational health, toxicology, and micronutrient assay?

A. Lung Center of the Philippines
B. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
C. National Kidney Transplant Institute
D. East Avenue Medical Center

A

D. East Avenue Medical Center

55
Q
  1. Which class of biological safety cabinet has 30% of air recirculated and 70% exhausted to the
    outside of the building?

A. II-A1
B. II-A2
C. II-B1
D. II-B2

A

C. II-B1

A. 70%; 30%
B. higher air intake velocity
D. 100% air exhausted

56
Q
  1. Expenses that don’t fluctuate directly with change in workload are called:

A. Fixed costs
B. Variable costs
C. Direct costs
D. Indirect costs

A

A. Fixed costs

57
Q
  1. Clinical laboratories that are operated and maintained exclusively for research and teaching purposes shall be required to register with HFSRB every __________.

A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

A

C. 3 years

1 year for all clinical labs and those hospital-based

(1-stop-shop licensing system)

58
Q
  1. Which bioethical principle demands that medical procedures be carried out with the intent of securing the patient’s well-being?

A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice

A

B. Beneficence

or DO GOOD

59
Q
  1. As provided for by AO 2008-008, which blood service facility must be capable of testing for transfusion-transmitted infections?

A. Blood station
B. Blood bank
C. Blood collection unit
D. Blood center

A

D. Blood center

60
Q
  1. When doffing personal protective equipment, which of the following must be removed first?

A. Laboratory gown
B. Gloves
C. Mask/respirator
D. Goggles

A

B. Gloves

Start with the most soiled

61
Q
  1. If the hands are visibly soiled, they must be washed for 1-2 minutes with:

A. Soap and water
B. Bleach and water
C. Alcohol-based cleansers
D. Water only

A

A. Soap and water

62
Q
  1. What type of plan deals with the organization as a whole and maps out the course of the organization for approximately 20 years?

A. Short range plan
B. Tactical plan
C. Operational plan
D. Strategic plan

A

D. Strategic plan

- long term plan

  • max out the course of organization for 20 years or more
  • this may need to be revisited and revise based on the SWOT
63
Q
  1. In the NFPA Standard Hazards Identification System, the yellow color indicates:

A. Health hazard
B. Instability hazard
C. Radioactivity hazard
D. Flammability hazard

A

B. Instability hazard

or Reactivity

A. blue
C.white or special
D. red or flammability

64
Q
  1. Class C fire may involve which of the following?

A. Wood, plastic, cloth
B. Motors, switches, computers
C. Combustible metals
D. Paints, gasoline, LPG

A

B. Motors, switches, computers

65
Q
  1. In Maslow’s theory, what kind of needs must be met after safety needs have been satisfied?

A. Physiological needs
B. Esteem needs
C. Social needs
D. Self-actualization

A

C. Social needs

66
Q
  1. In case of fire, all employees should take the necessary actions in the acronym RACE. What does the letter C stand for?

A. Call 911
B. Contain or Confine
C. Check the safety boxes
D. Conduct an investigation

A

B. Contain or Confine

Close all doors to contain fire

67
Q
  1. What is the lean-six Sigma colored belt designation for project team leaders who dedicate as much as 100% of their time to QI projects?

A. Yellow belt
B. Green belt
C. Black belt
D. Blue belt

A

C. Black belt

68
Q
  1. Which of the following issuances declared the third week of September of every year as Medical Technology Week?

A. Proclamation No. 1081, s. 1971
B. Proclamation No. 1801, s. 1970
C. Proclamation No. 1180, s. 1973
D. Proclamation No. 1181, s. 1973

A

D. Proclamation No. 1181, s. 1973

69
Q
  1. Which biosafety level is appropriate for working with microorganisms associated with human diseases that are RARELY serious and for which preventive or therapeutic interventions are often
    available?

A. BSL 1
B. BSL 2
C. BSL 3
D. BSL 4

A

B. BSL 2

70
Q
  1. According to PD 498, the Chairman and members of the Board shall hold office for a term of _______ or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified.

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

A

C. 3 years

71
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the process by which the laboratory ensures quality results by closely monitoring pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical stages of testing?

A. Quality system
B. Quality assurance
C. Total quality management
D. Quality control

A

B. Quality assurance

72
Q
  1. How many CPD credit units are required per medical laboratory technician every three years according to the original implementing rules and regulations (PRC Res 1032)?

A. 15
B. 30
C. 45
D. 60

A

B. 30

MLT

C. for RMTs
- according to the original IRR
- according to the revised or ammendment (Res 1146) it shall not exceed 15

73
Q
  1. An algorithm in which a current laboratory result is compared with results obtained on a previous
    specimen from the same patient is called:

A. Flagging
B. Panic value
C. Delta check
D. Proficiency test

A

C. Delta check

if there is change

74
Q
  1. The qualifications of the chairman and members of the Board include the following EXCEPT:

A. Qualified pathologist or registered medical technologist
B. Not a faculty member of a medical technology school for at least 2 years
C. Holder of master’s or doctoral degree
D. Practicing the profession for at least 10 years prior to appointment

A

C. Holder of master’s or doctoral degree

75
Q
  1. As provided for by RA 5527, the Board shall not register any person who:
    I. is convicted by a court of competent jurisdiction
    II. is guilty of immoral conduct
    III. has unsound mind
    IV. has incurable communicable disease

A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

76
Q
  1. Which of the following quality tools is used to identify possible causes for an effect or problem?

A. Flow chart
B. Pareto chart
C. Scatter plot
D. Fishbone diagram

A

D. Fishbone diagram

Also known as Ishikawa or Cause and Effect diagram

77
Q
  1. The roster of Medical Technologists shall be prepared annually by the:

A. Secretary of the Board
B. PRC Chairperson
C. Chairman of the Board
D. Legal Officer of PRC

A

A. Secretary of the Board

78
Q
  1. It refers to the procedures to account for each specimen by tracking its handling and storage from point of collection to final disposal.

A. Procedures manual
B. Chain of custody
C. Laboratory workflow
D. Standard operating procedures

A

B. Chain of custody

- it is most important in tests with legal implication

ex: drug testing

79
Q
  1. Which of the following contains the policies, standards, and guidelines for the Bachelor of Science in Medical Technology/ Medical Laboratory Science program issued in pursuance of an outcomes-based education?

A. CMO No. 13 series of 2017
B. CMO No. 06 series of 2018
C. CMO No. 14 series of 2006
D. CMO No. 52 series of 2016

A

A. CMO No. 13 series of 2017

80
Q
  1. The Universal Health Care Act of 2019 is also known as:

A. RA 11223
B. RA 10586
C. RA 11166
D. RA 10354

A

A. RA 11223

81
Q
  1. Educational arrangements such as curricular qualifications and teaching-learning requirements that take place in an educational and training institutions are categorized as:

A. formal learning
B. non-formal learning
C. life-long learning
D. informal learning

A

A. formal learning

82
Q
  1. The National Blood Services Act of 1994 contains provisions about the following EXCEPT:

A. Regulation of Blood Services
B. Promotion of Voluntary Blood Donation
C. Phase-out of Commercial Blood Banks
D. Creation of National Reference Laboratory for TTIs

A

D. Creation of National Reference Laboratory for TTIs

83
Q
  1. According to the IRR of RA 9165, what is the maximum number of screening laboratories a physician trained in Clinical Laboratory Management can handle?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 10
D. 12

A

C. 10

84
Q
  1. Which of the following may work as part of the technical staff in a screening drug testing laboratory
    following compliance with required training and certification?

A. Registered medical technologist
B. Registered pharmacist
C. Licensed chemist or chemical engineer
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

85
Q
  1. Newborn screening shall be performed after 24 hours of life but not later than _____ from complete normal delivery of the newborn.

A. 2 days
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
D. 1 week

A

B. 3 days

Not later than 72 hours or

86
Q
  1. Which of the following items was added to the revised Medical Technologist Code of Ethics issued by virtue of PRBMT Resolution No. 72 s. 2022?

A. Act in the spirit of fairness to all and in a spirit of brotherhood toward other members of the profession.
B. Perform my task with full confidence, absolute reliability, and accuracy.
C. Commit myself to continuously improve my professional skills and knowledge.
D. Contribute to the advancement of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.

A

C. Commit myself to continuously improve my professional skills and knowledge.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following lists the components of the chain of infection in correct order?

A. Source, portal of exit, mode of transmission, host
B. Reservoir, portal of entry, mode of transmission, host
C. Host, mode of transmission, portal of exit, reservoir
D. Source, portal of entry, reservoir, host

A

A. Source, portal of exit, mode of transmission, host

88
Q
  1. A blood unit tested positive for HIV. To which reference laboratory should this blood unit be sent for confirmatory testing?

A. San Lazaro Hospital-SACCL
B. National Kidney Transplant Institute
C. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
D. Lung Center of the Philippines

A

C. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

NRL for TTIs

89
Q
  1. A physician’s office laboratory is required to secure a license to operate if it:

A. caters to physicians own patients
B. issues official laboratory results
C. performs monitoring tests only
D. all of these

A

B. issues official laboratory results

90
Q
  1. Which of the following facilities are unauthorized to operate following the issuance RA 7719?

A. Drug den
B. Commercial blood bank
C. Blood Center
D. Free standing clinical laboratory

A

B. Commercial blood bank

RA 7719 is provided for phasing out of all commercial BBs or those use to operate on a profit-based BBs

91
Q
  1. An individual who is ready to donate blood when needed in his or her community is called _________.

A. Remunerated donor
B. Deferred donor
C. Voluntary donor
D. Walking donor

A

D. Walking donor

92
Q
  1. How long is the validity of accreditation for CPD providers?

A. 1 year
B. 5 years
C. 3 years
D. 10 years

A

C. 3 years

93
Q
  1. Which of the following aims to establish an information and communications technology solution for the efficient and effective accreditation of drug testing laboratories and related facilities, monitoring and quality assurance of drug test operations, integration with rehabilitation centers, sharing and retrieval of relevant information for decision making and policy formulation of various agencies using drug testing data?

A. Chain of Custody
B. LIS
C. IDTOMIS
D. Data Privacy

A

C. IDTOMIS

94
Q
  1. Which of the following tests requires counselling by an accredited health care provider or social worker?

A. Pregnancy test
B. Drug test
C. HIV test
D. Newborn screening

A

C. HIV test

95
Q
  1. According to Republic Act 9165, which is not considered as a dangerous drug?

A. Alcohol
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Methamphetamine hydrochloride

A

A. Alcohol

96
Q
  1. Which of the following activities make use of the Lean system?
    i. Relocating analytical equipment to an area that would require fewer steps
    ii. Consolidating test panel to fewer instruments
    iii. Improving accessibility to instruments such as reagents and pipettes
    iv. Eliminating waiting time

A. i, iii
B. i, ii, iii
C. ii, iv
D. i, ii, iii, iv

A

D. i, ii, iii, iv

97
Q
  1. The Philippine Qualifications Framework Act is otherwise known as:

A. RA 10968
B. RA 10912
C. RA 10173
D. RA 11223

A

A. RA 10968

98
Q
  1. As defined in RA 11223, services that can be definitively traced back to one recipient, such as laboratory tests and procedures:

A. Individual-based health services
B. Primary health care services
C. Population-based health services
D. Health technology services

A

A. Individual-based health services

99
Q
  1. In the minimum required curriculum for BSMT/BSMLS, the following are listed as professional courses EXCEPT:

A. Molecular Biology and Diagnostics
B. Principles of Medical Laboratory Science Practice
C. Human Anatomy and Physiology with Pathophysiology
D. Laboratory Management

A

C. Human Anatomy and Physiology with Pathophysiology

Core course

100
Q
  1. Pursuant to RA 11223, which government agencies are tasked to set up a registry of medical and allied health professionals, indicating, among others, their current number of practitioners and location of practice?

A. PRC and CHED
B. PRC and DOH
C. CHED, PRC, and TESDA
D. PRC, CHED, and DOH

A

B. PRC and DOH

FINALS MTAP2 (4 decks)

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