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PBM > MTC Lecture Exam 1 > Flashcards

MTC Lecture Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Tetracycline

A

binds small 30S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA

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2
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

inhibits peptidyl transferase activity of large subunit (50S)
can cause problem w/ human mito

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3
Q

Erythromycin

A

binds reversibly to the large subunit (50S) and inhibits translocation/peptidyl transferase

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4
Q

Streptomycin

A

inhibits initiation and causes misreading of RNA

distorts A site on 30S

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5
Q

Hemocytoblasts

A

multipotent circulating stem cells –> produce blood cells

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6
Q

MCV

A

avg size of RBC, used to classify anemias

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7
Q

RDW

A

red blood cell distribution width
high RDW associated w/
–anemia
–deficiency (Fe, B12, folate)

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8
Q

anisocytosis

A

variation in RBC size

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9
Q

buffy coat

A

WBC + platelets

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10
Q

MCV
Normal
Dec
Inc

A

Normal: normocytic anemia (renal disease – low erythropoietin/anemia of chronic inflammatory disease)
Dec: microcytic (Fe deficiency, bleeding, thalassemia)
Inc: macrocytic (B12/folate deficiency)

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11
Q

High Hgb

Low Hgb

A

High: polycythemia
Low: anemia

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12
Q

Hematocrit eqn

A

RBC x MCV

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13
Q

Thalassemia

A

microcytic anemia w/ NORMAL RDW

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14
Q

Thrombocytopenia

A

dec number of platelets

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15
Q

Thrombocytosis

A

inc number of platelets

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16
Q

Rate of platelet formation stimulated by

A

thrombopoietin
thrombocyte stimulating factor
IL-6
M-CSF

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17
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

low levels of platelets

easy bruising/bleeding

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18
Q

kolionychia

A

spoon nails

associated w/ anemia

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19
Q

glossitis

A

smooth tongue
Fe, vit B deficiency
–not enough resources to make papillae

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20
Q

hereditary tenlangiectasia

A

red marks near mouth
lose blood
located on mucosal surfaces
associated w/ anemia

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21
Q

what numbers show 3:1 ratio

important when determining anemia

A

RBC (4)
Hb conc (12)
Hematocrit % (36)

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22
Q

Bacterial infection results in elevated

A

segs

neutrophils

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23
Q

Infection – elevation of…

A

bands (immature WBC released due to need)

Left shift

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24
Q

Mononucleosis – elevated levels of

A

monocytes

atypical lymphocytes

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25
Q

Viral infections – elevated

A

lymphocytes

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26
Q

Allergies/parasitic infections – elevated…

A

eosinophils

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27
Q

Leukemia – elevated

A

inc WBC of ONE TYPE
other blood lines affected (crowded out)
prone to infections due to nonfunctional WBCs

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28
Q

ANC =

A

(% bands + % seg neutrophils) (total WBC per uL)

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29
Q

Neutropenia

A

less than 1000 uL ANC

  • -after chemo
  • -reach lowest pt 2 wks after chemo
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30
Q

Hb

A

13.5 - 18.0 g/dL

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31
Q

HCT

A

40.0 - 52.0 %

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32
Q

MCV

A

80-100 fL

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33
Q

RDW

A

12.0-17.0 %

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34
Q

Platelets

A

150-400 thousand/uL

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35
Q

WBC

A

4.0 - 11.0 thousand/ uL

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36
Q

Neutrophils (segs)

A

2.0-8.0 thousand/uL

56%

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37
Q

if rash does not blanch,

A

bruises
blood is not inside vessels
can occur w/ meningitis

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38
Q

Malathion poisoning

A

inhibit AchE activity of NMJ

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39
Q

Gout

A

excessive accumulation of uric acid in joints

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40
Q

Thiamin deficiency

A

inhibits activity of aldehyde transfer rxns (oxidative decarboxylation, dehydrogenase, transketolase rxns)
Leads to dry or wet beriberi

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41
Q

Dry beriberi

A

neuropathy
mental abnormalities
ataxia
(due to thiamin deficiency)

42
Q

Wet beriberi

A 
severe muscular weakness and wasting
delirium
opthalmoplegia
memory loss
enlarged heart
(due to thiamin deficiency)
43
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy

A

delirium
ataxia
eye paralysis
due to alcohol toxicity and thiamin deficiency

44
Q

Korsakoff psychosis

A

inability to transcribe info from short to long term memory

due to poor absorption of thiamin in alcoholics

45
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

oral alkylating agent that causes DNA damage
not selective – destroys all hematopoietic precursors
used to treat CML

46
Q

Fludarabine

A

inhibits adenosine deaminase

inc granulocyte dATP –> apoptosis of myeloid cells in periph blood

47
Q

Imatinib

A

tyr kinase inhibitor (Gleevec-comp inhibitor)

48
Q

Forodesine

A

purine nucleotide phosphorylase inhibitor-PNP

TS analog to the inhibitor of PNP

49
Q

enz activity expressed in what units?

enz specific activity expressed in what units?

A

enz activity: IU (1 umole substrate/min)

enz specific activity: umoles product/min/mg enz

50
Q

kcat

A

turnover number

catalytic rate constant

51
Q

Enz speed depends on

A

affinity for substrate

time to transition state

52
Q

Amanita phalloides

A

contains amatoxins which bind to and interfere w/ RNA pol II (prevents DNA –> mRNA)
affects GI tract and liver first
Liver toxicity kills
found in mushrooms

53
Q

Serine protease functions

A

cleave zymogens –> active
blood coagulation
digestion
prefer to hydrolyze peptide bonds on carboxyl side of hydrophobic aa

54
Q

TPP

A

activation-transfer coenzyme

forms covalent bond w/ substrate (pyruvate)

55
Q

Cofactor vs prosthetic group

A

cofactor: NOT covalently bound to enz

prosthetic group: COVALENTLY bound to enz

56
Q

Describe function of NAD+, FAD+, FMN, and NADP+ as coenzymes

A

transfer e and H from substrate by donating or accepting e as hydride, H, or O

57
Q

Activation transfer coenzymes vs oxid-reduction coenzymes

A

Activation transfer coenzymes: form covalent bonds w/ substrate
Oxid-red coenzymes: do NOT form covalent bonds w/ substrate

58
Q

Coenzyme A

A

synthesized from vit B5

adds CoA to fatty acids and cholesterol (traps them in cells)

59
Q

Biotin

A

attaches CO2 to substrate in carboxylase rxns

60
Q

Vit B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)

A

aldehyde group binds aa –> aminotransferase enz activity

61
Q

3 features of activation transfer cofactors

A
  1. coenzyme functional group binds enz
  2. coenzyme reactive group forms/breaks bond
  3. functions in 2nd order kinetics since they bind enz substrate binding site
62
Q

What vits are precursors for…
NAD+
FAD+
FMN?

A

NAD+: B3

FAD+ and FMN: B2

63
Q

What vit are antioxidants in oxid-red rxns?

A

C and E

64
Q

Metal ion cofactors function in enz catalysis by:

A

assisting in substrate binding to enz
stabilization of functional groups in acid-base catalysis
accept/donate e in oxid-red rxns

65
Q

Covalent inhibitors

A

TS analog inhibitors
irreversible – suicidal inhibitors
(ex. aspirin is irreversible inhibitor of PGH)

66
Q

Organophosphate

A

Irreversible inhibitors of AchE

Degrade Ach at synapse

67
Q

Allopurinol

A

Irreversible inhibitor of xanthine oxidase
Treat gout
TS analog that requires covalent bond formation

68
Q

Aspirin

A

Irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase (converts arachidonic acid –> prostaglandin)

69
Q

Forodesine

A

TS analog inhibitor
Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
Inc dGTP levels –> causes T cell/rapidly proliferating myeloid apoptosis

70
Q

MTAP-Immucillin-A

A

Methylioadenosine phosphorylase inhibitor

TS analog inhibitor

71
Q

MTAN

A

Methylation denoting nucleoside se inhibitor

Blocks quorum sensing in bacteria

72
Q

Fosinopril

A

ACE inhibitor

TS analog inhibitor

73
Q

Begacestat

A

Y-secretase inhibitor

TS inhibitor

74
Q

Bortezomib

A

36 Proteasome inhibitor

TS analog inhibitor

75
Q

Oxidoreductase enz

A

Transfer e to coenzyme (NAD+, FAD+, NADP+)

76
Q

Oxygenase

A

Use molec O2 as a substrate and normally a co-enz for activity

77
Q

Monooxygenase

A

Cytochrome P450

Transfer one molec of O to substrate and other to H2O

78
Q

Dioxygenase

A

(COX enz)

Insert 2 molec O into substrate

79
Q

Oxidase

A

Transfer e from substrate to O producing H2O2

Peroxidase converts H2O2 to H2O

80
Q

Zellweger syndrome

A

Peroxisomal

Defective peroxisomes assembly

81
Q

X-linked ALD

A

Defect in ABCD1, the VLCFA transporter to peroxisome

  • -accumulation of VLCFA
  • -neuro disability, death
82
Q

Infantile Refsum Disease

A 
Defects in alpha-oxid enz, phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylate or in PEX7, involved in PhyH import to peroxisome
--phytanic acid accumulation
--cerebellum ataxia
--periph neuropathy
--restrict dairy and red meat
(IRD less severe than Zellweger and ALD)
83
Q

Tay-Sachs

A

Lysosomal storage disease

Defective hexosaminidase A

84
Q

Niemann-Pick disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease
Problem w/ sphingomyelinase
Accumulate choline-sphingomyelin

85
Q

Gaucher’s disease

A

Lysosomal storage
Problem w/ B-glucosidase
Accumulate glucosylceramide

86
Q

Pompe’s disease

A

Due to deficient alpha glucosidase enz in lysosome

87
Q

Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy

A

Lactic acidosis like symptoms

Beta oxid not done properly –> fermentation –> lactic acid

88
Q

PTPN I

A

Reverses auto phosphorylation of RTK

89
Q

PTEN

A

Terminates/inhibits PI3K activation via dephoaphorylation of PIP3 to PIP2

90
Q

SOCS

A

Inhibits Tyr kinase activity of RTK

91
Q

Glycerol trinitrite

A

NO producer
Elevates cGMP
Angina

92
Q

Nesiritide

A

Synthetic ANP
cGMP elevating drug
Heart failure

93
Q

Sildenafil

A

Inhibits cGMP phosphodiesterase

Erectile dysfunction

94
Q

What drug ligands related w PPARa receptor?

A

Fibrate drugs

Clofibrate, bezafibrate, fenofibrate

95
Q

What drug ligands related w PPARgamma receptor?

A

Thiazolidedionase

Avandia

96
Q

Drugs that activate PPAR alpha and gamma?

Stronger/weaker?

A

Pioglitazone (weaker)

Troglitazone (stronger)

97
Q

CREB

A

Basic leucine zipper TF

Regulates gluconeogenesis in liver during fasting

Activated by cAMP–>PKA

98
Q

SREBP1

A

Helix loop helix leu zipper TF

Bind sterol response elements

Fatty acid synthesis, fatty liver, hypertriglycemia

99
Q

SREBP2

A

Helix loop helix leu zipper TF

Cholesterol synthesis/uptake, cholesterol homeostasis in liver

100
Q

Eicosanoidd

A

Involved in injury response

Prostaglandin
Thromboxanes
Leukotrienes

101
Q

Monooxygenase

Dioxygenase

A

Mono: one O, one H2O

Di: 2 O

102
Q

Oxidase vs Peroxidase

A

Oxidase: produces H2O2

Peroxidase: converts H2O2 to H2O

PBM (5 decks)

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