mtap 2 rationale Flashcards
1st Ab detected after primary infection
IgM
1st Ab detected after exposure to Ag
IgM
Ab best at agglutination and complement fixation
IgM
Enhance of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum proteins
opsonization
a cell that secretes Ab
B cell
involves interaction between soluble Ag and soluble Ab
precipitation
normal flora of the mouth
Viridans streptococci,
increases in parasitic infections and allergies
eosinophils
defect in oxidative or respiratory burst
chronic granulomatous disease
true or false:
null cells are lymphocytes
true
B cells can be distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of __ in their surface
surface immunoglobulins
variable region of Ig are found in the:
amino terminal end, Fab portion
Ig that can activate classical complement cascade
IgM and IgG
Ig in the surface of B cells
IgM and IgD
Ab predominant in secretions
IgA2
Ig that can cross placenta
IgG
optimal ratio when most Ab is precipitated by least amount of Ag
zone of equivalence
Ig in greatest amount and rises later in infection
IgG
IgM molecule is a___
pentamer
In indirect antiglobulin test, how many times must the mixture be washed with saline?
3 times
what causes false negative in agglutination reactions?
inadequate washing of cells in AHG test
Ig assoc. with type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
IgE
amount of Ag binding sites of IgM
10
a cell notable when there are helminth infections
eosinophils
serum factors in the blood that are formed in response to foreign substances
antibodies
important effector cells in allergic reaction
basophils and eosinophils
WBC capable of further differentiation
monocyte
stages of agglutination
- sensitization
- lattice formation
indirect phagocytosis occurs through:
opsonization
monocyte-macrophages found in the kidneys are known as:
mesangial cells
T cells account to ___ of total lymphocytes
60-80%
Ab are characteristically:
protein
Ig with CH4
IgM and IgE
Ig with joining chain
IgM and IgA
most predominant Ab in serum
IgG
Post zonal reaction is caused by:
antigen excess
binding strength of Ab for Ag
Avidity
Why do we wash in indirect antiglobulin test?
remove unbound antibodies
what causes false-positive in agglutination?
contaminated glassware, slides, or reagents
why do we use antiglobulin reagent in direct antiglobulin test?
detect in vivo sensitization
Prozone occurs when___
antibody are in excess of antigen
routine test for blood products
HIV-1 (malaria test is also used here in PH)
how are Rh Ab usually characterized?
Immune IgG
Ideal reaction for Rh Ab
incubation at 37C, enhancement media, and enzymes
how are ABO Ab usually characterized?
naturally occuring, cold reactive, IgM
can frozen RBCs be thawed and washed at 9am be transfused at 11am the next day?
No, units are expired (only viable for 24hrs after thawing)
A unit of pRBCs was split using open system. 1/2 units was used. What may be done on second half?
must be issued within 24hrs
components stored at RT, 20-24C
Platelets and granulocytes
storage temp and expiration date for granulocytes
20-24C, expiration in 24hrs
hepa B markers routinely tested for donor blood
HBsAg and anti-HBc
purpose of adenine in blood bags
increases ADP levels
storage temp of RBCs
1-6C
most blood group Ab are of what Ig classes?
IgG and IgM
Ab generally detected at antiglobulin phase (warm reactive) of testing:
anti-Jka
binding strength of Abs for multivalent Ag
avidity
most dangerous and unexpected Ab in blood bank are those that react at:
37C (body temp)
condition that would contraindicate autologous presurgical donation
has bacteremia, cardiovascular problem, and pulmonary problem
blood group system associated with IgM
Lewis
technique that removes antibody bound to sensitized red cells
elution
optimum incubation temp for indirect antiglobulin test
37C
immunodominant sugar responsible for blood group A specificity
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
result from storage lesion
increase in plasma K
1 unit donor platelet-derived from whole blood (RDP) should yield ___ platelets
5.5 x 10^10
1 unit donor platelet-derived from plateletpheresis (SDP) should yield ___ platelets
3.0 x 10^11
storage temp of pRBC
1-6C
storage temp of fresh frozen plasma
-18 or colder
designated by the terms Rh positive and Rh negative
presence or absence of D antigen
Ab enhanced by acidifying patient serum
Anti-M
can autologous donation of RBCs frozen in 1989 be used in 1994?
Yes, it is good for 10years
Hematocrit acceptable for pRBC in closed system?
less than 80%
component of choice for treating von Willebrand disease
cryoprecipitate
component of choice to prevent graft-vs-host-disease
irradiated component
storage life of blood anticoagulated using CP2D
21 days
what will happen if you use 10% red cell suspension for compatibility testing?
false negative result due to antigen excess
washed RBCs are product of choice for a patient with:
Anti-IgA antibodies
blood group system that causes the most serious hemolytic reactions
ABO
posttransfusion anaphylactic reactions occur most often in patients with:
IgA deficiency
purpose of low-dose irradiation of blood components
prevent graft-vs-host disease
additive solution contains:
- saline
- adenine
- dextrose/glucose
- mannitol
present in rejuvenating solution
inosine
pRBCs obtained thru open system using CPDA1 has a shelf life of:
24hrs
required minimum weight of donor
110lbs
frozen RBCs processed in open system can be stored for how many days/hours
24hrs
polyethylene glycol enhances ag-ab reactions by
concentrating ab by removal of water
shelf life of a unit of blood collected in CPDA1
35 days
how many units of AHF activity does a unit of cryoprecipitate has?
80IU
once thawed, FFP must be transfused within:
24hrs
what does fresh frozen plasma does not provide?
platelets
last unit of autologous blood should be collected no later than ___ hours before surgery
72hrs
temperature range for maintaining RBCs and whole blood during shipping is
1-10C
