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Subjects > MTA Exam > Flashcards

MTA Exam Flashcards

1
Q

To test connectivity to a server, the simplest command to use is?

A

Ping

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2
Q

To test DNS by performing a DNS query, you should use the ? command.

A

Nslookup

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3
Q

? is used with masquerading to hide an entire address space behind a single IP address.

A

NAT

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4
Q

When dealing with office 365 sign‐in problems, you must make sure that users have the correct 3 things ?

A

Username and password,
internet access,
right url’s

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5
Q

When a mobile device accesses email from Office 365, it uses ?

A

ActiveSync

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6
Q

Clients using Office 2016 can retrieve email from Office 365 by using ?

A

Outlook online

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7
Q

If Opening with File Explorer does not work, you should make sure that the SharePoint Online sites are added to your ?

A

Trusted websites zone

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8
Q

When a site is deleted by mistake, you can restore the site from the ?

A

Sharepoint recycle bin

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9
Q

When you experience poor video quality with Skype, you should look for ?

A

Connectivity issues

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10
Q

To check access to Skype, you should use the ? site

A

Heartbeat.skype.com

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11
Q

Which command allows you to see the IP configuration, including the DNS servers and default gateway?

A

Ipconfig /all

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12
Q

Which command is used to show the route that packets take when accessing a specific server?

A

Tracert

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13
Q

Which server or device can be used to funnel users when users are accessing the Internet and provides better security by hiding internal IP addresses?

A

Proxy server

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14
Q

Which of the following is the easiest way to activate a Microsoft application?

A

Internet

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15
Q

You are running Skype for Business to connect to an online meeting. While you have no trouble logging on, you are having problems with video as well as desktop sharing. Which is the best course of action for resolving this issue?

A

Check to see if any firewalls are blocking the ports used by audio, video, and desktop sharing.

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16
Q

Users are having trouble accessing Office 365. What 2 things are most likely the problem?

A

a. The trial period for the software has expired

b. Windows or Office was not activated.

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17
Q

Word Online is locking up for a user and that user often has to restart Word. There appears to be no other problems with the system. What is the recommended course of action?

A

Repair office

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18
Q

You have a large file that is 2.4 GB that you want to load into SharePoint. However, it fails every time. What is most likely the problem?

A

Your file upload limit is 2 GB

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19
Q

Which of the following tools is used to test connectivity to ActiveSync and to test autodiscovery?

A

Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer

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20
Q

Which of the following is the default retention period for deleted objects in SharePoint Online?

A

90 days

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21
Q

When you change a resource record on a DNS zone and you want the client to see the change immediately, you should run ?

A

Ipconfig /flushdns

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22
Q

When a user cannot access the Internet while working from the corporate offices, you should check proxy settings. T/f?

A

True

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23
Q

When using SharePoint Online, the recommended browsers are the newest versions of Internet Explorer, Chrome, or Firefox.

A

Yes

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24
Q

When OneDrive is not syncing properly, what command will cause OneDrive data to resync.

A

OneDrive.exe /reset

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25
Q

SharePoint uses a two‐level Recycle Bin, what are each called?

A

Sharepoint recycle bin and site collection bin

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26
Q

You are an administrator for the Contoso Corporation and a user cannot connect to Office 365. Describe your 3 step troubleshooting methodology.

A
  1. Verify host settings with ipconfig
  2. Use ping to gather to test dest address, loopback, local ip, remote gateway, remote computer
  3. Identify each hop or router using. Tracert or pingpath
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27
Q

What does the netstat tool do?

A

Detect all ports that are being listened on by running apps

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28
Q

What are the dhcp commands

A

Ipconfig /renew or /release

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29
Q

If default gateway is invalid should you be able to communicate with internal/local hosts on same network

A

Yes

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30
Q

If DNS is wrong will you be able to resolve names?

A

No

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31
Q

If a computer is configured to receive IP from a DHCP server and gets no response what automatic IP will it use?

A

169.254.xxx.xxx mask: 255.255.0.0

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32
Q

What 3 things does ping help you test?

A

Reachability, name resolution, and delay

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33
Q

Name 5 options used with ping

A
  • t ping until stopped
  • a reverse name resolution on ip
  • n number of times to ping
  • 4 ipv4 protocol
  • 6 ipv6 protocol
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34
Q

What does tracert do?

A

Traces the route a packet takes to destination, showing the routes/hops in the path

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35
Q

What protocol does tracert use?

A

ICMP

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36
Q

What is difference between tracrt and pathping?

A

Pathping shows more detail for the hops

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37
Q

Why might ICMP requests fail?

A

Some routers block ICMP traffic to prevent DOS attacks

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38
Q

What does nslookup do?

A

Troubleshoot name resolution. Enter a hostname to get ip or reverse

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39
Q

How do you view a dns cache or refresh it?

A

Ipconfig /flushdns and ipconfig /displaydns

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40
Q

What does NAT do?

A

Network address translation - maps local to global ip’s and back

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41
Q

What are the Private IP ranges?

A
  1. 0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255
  2. 168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255
  3. 16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255
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42
Q

When a proxy server is being used do Office 365, Intune and Azure traffic go through the proxy?

A

Yes

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43
Q

Name 3 possible sign-in and pwd issues with 365?

A

User name format: username@domainname.com or user@domain.onmicrosoft.com
15 min Lockout after 10 failed attempts
License not activated

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44
Q

Does Win64 support 32 bit and 16 bit programs?

A

Yes for 32 bit, no for 16 (use a 16 bit vm is workaround)

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45
Q

Does office 365 have OS requirements?

A

No

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46
Q

What Windows OS does Office 2016 365/Proplus support?

A

Windows 7 and higher

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47
Q

What tool do you use to fix Installation issues?

A

Office Repair

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48
Q

What is a common source of problems for Office issues?

A

Add-ins - check by disabling them

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49
Q

How is email and calendar info delivered to mobile or desktop apps?

A

ActiveSync

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50
Q

What protocol does office 365 desktop use to access email?

A

MAPI over http

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51
Q

What 4 things to check/try when troubleshooting Office 365 email issues?

A
  • check if email is working in cloud (mail.office365.com)
  • check if updates are needed
  • repair outlook profile or create new profile and test
  • use outlook connection status tool remote connection analyzer (testconnectivity.microsoft.com)
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52
Q

Can an outlook mailbox and a delegated mailbox share the same profile?

A

No, add the delegated mailbox as an additional mailbox

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53
Q

What technology does one drive for business use under the covers?

A

SharePoint

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54
Q

Sharepoint online has what limitations:

  • per user?
  • per site collection?
  • personal site storage per user?
  • items synced to library?
  • file upload limit?
  • how many subsites per collection?
A
  • 500 MB per user
  • 1 TB per site collection
  • 1 TB personal site storage
  • 5k items synced
  • 2GB file size
  • 2000 sub sites
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55
Q

How long are deleted files available for in OneDrive?

A

90 days

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56
Q

What are some of the 8 issues to check/try with OneDrive?

A
  • try manual sync
  • make sure user is signed in
  • check one drive sync engine
  • 10 GB file size limit
  • download troubleshooter
  • check files for unallowed chars
  • blocked by group policy?
  • exe /reset
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57
Q

Does Skype for business require unrestricted outgoing tcp access to all destination ports above 1024?

A

Yes

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58
Q

Mailboxes, resources, contacts and groups are examples of ?

A

Recipients

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59
Q

A ____________ is a mailbox that is associated with one or more users and is assigned an external email address.

A

Shared mailbox

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60
Q

Smartphones and tablets can connect to Exchange Online to get emails using an email application by using ____________.

A

ActiveSync

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61
Q

When a smartphone that retrieves email from Exchange Online is stolen, you can perform a ____________ command to remove corporate and user information stored on the device.

A

Wipe

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62
Q

Viruses, spyware, rootkits and Trojan horses are examples of ____________.

A

Malware

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63
Q

In SharePoint, a ____________ is a grouping of sites that have the same site owner and share the same administrative settings.

A

Site collection

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64
Q

A ____________ allows users to stay in tune with conversations between groups of people and to see updates about their activities.

A

Office 365 group

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65
Q

A ____________ defines the color schemes of a SharePoint site.

A

Theme

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66
Q

To simplify access to your OneDrive storage area on your computer running Windows 10, you should use the ____________.

A

One Drive desktop app

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67
Q

____________ enables users to use instant messaging with coworkers.

A

Skype

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68
Q

In Office 365, what is a shared workspace for email, conversations, files, and calendar events?

A

Office 365 group

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69
Q

What does SCL in email filtering stand for?

A

Spam Confidence Level

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70
Q

What are SCL number ranges that control spam?

A 
1 = safe
0-1 = clean
5-6 = spam
9 = strait to junk
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71
Q

You notice that a lot of spam is coming from a specific IP address. Which feature blocks those spam messages on Exchange Online?

A

Configure a connection filter

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72
Q

Which of the following is offered by Office 365 as an upgrade to newsfeeds?

A

Yammer

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73
Q

When you share a SharePoint site in Office 365, what 2 methods can be used to share the site content?

A

share the whole site by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID

share individual documents with external users by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID.

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74
Q

If you have 100 users, what is the default allocated storage space for SharePoint Online?

A

60 GB

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75
Q

What is the formula for calculating amount of storage allocated for sharepoint site?

A

10 GB + 500 MB per user

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76
Q

Which browsers can be used when you are using Skype for Business through an authenticating HTTP proxy?

A

Internet Explorer 8 or later.

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77
Q

Mailboxes, resources, contacts and groups are examples of ?

A

Recipients

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78
Q

A ____________ is a mailbox that is associated with one or more users and is assigned an external email address.

A

Shared mailbox

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79
Q

Smartphones and tablets can connect to Exchange Online to get emails using an email application by using ____________.

A

ActiveSync

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80
Q

When a smartphone that that retrieves email from Exchange Online is stolen, you can perform a ____________ command to remove corporate and user information stored on the device.

A

Wipe

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81
Q

Viruses, spyware, rootkits and Trojan horses are examples of ____________.

A

Malware

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82
Q

In SharePoint, a ____________ is a grouping of sites that have the same site owner and share the same administrative settings.

A

Site collection

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83
Q

A ____________ allows users to stay in tune with conversations between groups of people and to see updates about their activities.

A

Office 365 group

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84
Q

A ____________ defines the color schemes of a SharePoint site.

A

Theme

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85
Q

To simplify access to your OneDrive storage area on your computer running Windows 10, you should use the ____________.

A

One Drive desktop app

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86
Q

____________ enables users to use instant messaging with coworkers.

A

Skype

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87
Q

In Office 365, what is a shared workspace for email, conversations, files, and calendar events?

A

Office 365 group

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88
Q

What does SCL in email filtering stand for?

A

Spam Confidence Level

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89
Q

What are SCL number ranges that control spam?

A 
1 = safe
0-1 = clean
5-6 = spam
9 = strait to junk
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90
Q

You notice that a lot of spam is coming from a specific IP address. Which action blocks those spam messages on Exchange Online?

A

Configure a connection filter

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91
Q

Which of the following is offered by Office 365 as an upgrade to newsfeeds?

A

Yammer

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92
Q

When you share a SharePoint site in Office 365, what 2 methods can be used to share the site content?

A

share the whole site by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID

share individual documents with external users by sending invites to sign in with a Microsoft Account or an Office 365 user ID.

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93
Q

If you have 100 users, which of the following is the default allocated storage space for SharePoint Online?

A

60 GB

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94
Q

What is the formula for calculating amount of storage allocated for sharepoint site?

A

10 GB + 500 MB per user

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95
Q

Which browsers can be used when you are using Skype for Business through an authenticating HTTP proxy?

A

Windows 7, Windows 8/8.1, Windows 10, Windows Server 2008 R2, or Windows
Internet Explorer 8 or later.

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96
Q

With Microsoft Intune, what is used to install a Windows Store application without using the Windows Store?

A

Side loading

97
Q

What is deep-linking?

A

Provides a link directly to an app in the store

98
Q

Multiple users are working from their home offices and thus are often not connected to the corporate network. What can be used to ensure that their computers have the necessary security updates from Microsoft?

A

Microsoft Intune

99
Q

Which feature of Microsoft Intune is considered more effective than automatically installing updates using Windows Updates?

A

Microsoft Intune provides you with an opportunity to test the updates before pushing them to the clients.

100
Q

After you create a shared mailbox, you need to change the password to Null?

A

False

101
Q

If you are not a member of an Office 365 private group, you cannot send emails to the private group?

A

False

102
Q

By default, when email is identified as spam based on the SCL value, that email is sent to the junk email folder.

A

True

103
Q

What is EOP and what 5 benefits does it provide?

A

Exchange Online Protection

  • Malware filtering
  • Outbound spam control
  • Spam quarantine
  • Connection filtering
  • Content filtering
104
Q

What 4 features does Skype for business online offer?

A
  • instant messaging
  • Voice over IP
  • video conferencing
  • can use contacts available from Microsoft Outlook/Microsoft Exchange Servers)
105
Q

If you forget to include a file within your synch folder how can you retrieve it?

A

Fetching

106
Q

What is Intune endpoint protection (3 items)?

A

real‐time protection against malware threats,
keeps malware definitions up‐to‐date,
automatically scans computers.

107
Q

What is SharePoint?

A

Suite of services that provides a web site/portal

allows users to organize, retrieve, collaborate

108
Q

What is a connection filter?

A

Email filtering based on IP addresses with separate allow and block lists.

109
Q

What is a content filter ?

A

automatically add spam processing headers and assign a spam confidence level to the messages before delivery to user mailboxes.

110
Q

What does EOP do to an email message?

A

Inserts an X‐Forefront‐Antispam‐Report header (X‐header) into the message to show how the email message was processed.

111
Q

What is a malware filter/policy?

A

In Office 365, a malware policy defines:

  • what happens when malware is detected
  • malware rule that defines who the policy applies to
112
Q

Name 4 type of mail enabled Active Directory objects

A
  • mailboxes, shared mailboxes
  • resources
  • groups
  • contacts
113
Q

Do shared mailboxes have usernames and passwords?

A

No

114
Q

What type of objects represent a resource mailbox?

A

Conference room or projector

115
Q

What are the 2 types of groups?

A
  • distribution group

- security group

116
Q

What is an office 365 group?

A

Shared workspace for files, email conversations, and calendar. Can be public or private

117
Q

What type of protocol does ActiveSync use?

A

Xml over https

118
Q

How do you set up a spam filter?

A

Point dns at dedicated filter device

119
Q

What is RBL?

A

Realtime black list, uses a reverse lookup to check email origin using the DNS PTR record

120
Q

What is SPF?

A

Sender Policy Framework, while list of safe IP’s

121
Q

What are the 2 components of Intune?

A
  • web based admin console

- Intune client

122
Q

Intune Admin console allows creation and deployment of what control feature?

A

Policies

123
Q

What type of reports can you run with Intune?

A
  • computer Inventory

- detected software

124
Q

What is default frequency of intune software updates?

A

8 hours (up to 22 max)

125
Q

When using Office 365, ____________ is used for identity management and access control.

A

Azure Active Directory

126
Q

The ____________ has full access to all administrative features in Office 365.

A

Global Administrator

127
Q

When you would like a Microsoft partner to manage Office 365, the partner becomes a ?

A

Delegated Administrator

128
Q

The easiest way to manage Office 365 issues is to subscribe to the ____________.

A

RSS feed

129
Q

What is the url for managing Microsoft Intune?

A

manage.microsoft.com

130
Q

____________ rights allow the administrator to reset passwords and manage user accounts and groups.

A

User Management Administrator

131
Q

____________ provides information about software installed on computers in your organization.

A

Intune

132
Q

In Office 365, the ____________ includes accounts created manually with the Office 365 Admin Portal.

A

Online Identity

133
Q

In Microsoft Intune, to enroll Windows devices, you must deploy the Windows Phone 8 ?

A

Intune client software

134
Q

Skip

A

?

135
Q

Which tool should be used to ensure that your Active Directory users are available in Office 365?

A

DirSync

136
Q

Before users can enroll their devices, they must be members of a Microsoft Intune user group?

A

True

137
Q

What are the 5 Office 365 roles?

A
  • Global Administrator: Has access to all administrative features.
    • Billing Administrator: Manages purchases, support tickets, and subscriptions; monitors the overall health of the services.
    • Password Administrator: Manages requests for services, resets passwords, and monitors the overall health of the services. Users in this role can reset passwords only for users and other Password Administrators.
    • Service Administrator: Manages service requests and monitors overall health of services.
    • User Management Administrator: Manages user accounts and user groups, resets passwords, and manages service, monitor the overall health of services.
138
Q

What 4 types of groups does office 365 offer?

A

GMSD

  • Groups
  • Mail‐enabled security groups
  • Security groups
  • Distribution lists
139
Q

To authenticate through Azure AD, what are the 3 web‐authentication protocols?

A

(SOW)
SAML
OAuth 2
WS-Federation

140
Q

To integrate with an on‐premises Active Directory environment, you can use one of 3 methods?

A
  • DirSync
  • AD FS
  • AD DS (Directory Services)
141
Q

What url do you use to administer office 365?

A

https://portal.office.com/Admin

142
Q

What is the most common form of authentication?

A

Password

143
Q

Office 365 supports what 3 sign-in/identity models?

A

OSF

  • Online identity (Also known as account identity): Accounts are created manually with the Office 365 Admin Center
  • Synchronized identity: Accounts are based on an on‐premises directory, such as Active Directory, and are synchronized with directory sync/password sync.
  • Federated identity: Accounts are based on an on‐premises directory, such as Active Directory, but user passwords are verified by the on‐premises identity provider.
144
Q

Should you install DirSYNC on a domain controller?

A

No

145
Q

When can you specify a user location in Office 365?

A
  • on creation

- when editing license

146
Q

How many days of health info can you see in 365?

A

7 days initial, click to see 30 days and planned maintenance

147
Q

Are Intune groups the same as AD groups?

A

No

148
Q

Skip

A

Skip

149
Q

What os does intune run on?

A

Xp, vista,win 7,8,10

150
Q

Does self enroll in intune require user admin priveleges?

A

Yes

151
Q

What must you do before you can enroll mobile devices in intune?

A

Select MDMA (mobile device management authority)

152
Q

What are 3 methods of setting up intune group?

A

DCM (doves cry)
Direct
Criteria
Mixed

153
Q

When deploying intune policies should you make sure clients dont receive conflicting GPO SETTINGS?

A

Yes

154
Q

Where are subscriptions managed in intune?

A

Account portal

account.manage.microsoft.com

155
Q

In the AD Federated model do you need to sync passwords as well?

A

No, federated identity model requires a synchronized identity, but user passwords are verified by the on‐premises identity provider.

156
Q

What are the 3 ways to create users in office 365?

A

Admin Portal
Windows PowerShell
CSV

157
Q

What is Proplus licensing?

A

Adds up to 5 macs or pcs

158
Q

Which type of group is used to send emails to multiple users at once without giving security access to other objects?

A

Distribution list

159
Q

In Microsoft Intune, you want the helpdesk personnel to manage service requests and to reset passwords. Which role should be assigned to the helpdesk personnel?

A

User management role

160
Q

Which two object types can be added to Microsoft Intune groups?

A

Users and devices (never in same group)

161
Q

Which 3 options are available to deploy the Microsoft Intune client?

A

USA
Using an image
Self enrollment through company portal
Administrative deployment

162
Q

In Microsoft Intune, which administrator manages subscriptions and purchases?

A

Billing admin

163
Q

Which policy allows you to make a PIN mandatory for smartphones managed by Microsoft Intune?

A

Mobile device security policy

164
Q

In Office 365, which identity model has accounts in Active Directory but user passwords are verified by the local domain controllers?

A

Federated identity

165
Q

Intune supports 2 types of admin roles which are ?

A
  • Tenant Administrator: Has full control and rights regarding the Admin Console. (create at least 2)
  • Service Administrator: Has full access to the Microsoft Intune Admin Console and can perform all operations, including adding or deleting another Service Administrator account. They cannot modify data in the console
166
Q

Several users are unable to connect to Office 365, but you are able to log on to Office 365. What is the fastest action that should be taken to check for issues?

A

Sign up for rss feed to quickly look at subscription status

167
Q

When a user is removed from Office 365, the data is retained for ? days before it is permanently deleted.

A

30 days

168
Q

The Microsoft Intune Tenant Administrator has full control of Microsoft Intune.

A

True

169
Q

To open a support request for Microsoft Intune, you should always use the Microsoft Intune Admin Console.

A

False, other methods such as phone as well

170
Q

If you want Microsoft Office, SharePoint, Exchange, voicemails, and Skype for Business Online, for your large corporation, you will need to use the ____________ licensing plan.

A

E4

171
Q

Does 365 support IPv6?

A

Although Office 365 does support IPv6, not all Office 365 features are fully enabled using IPv6.

172
Q

What 3 tools are helpful in determining the bandwidth requirements for deploying 365?

A
  • Exchange Client Network Bandwidth Calculator: Used predict the network bandwidth requirements for a specific set of clients.
  • OneDrive for Business Synchronization Calculator: A calculator used to estimate the bandwidth that a OneDrive for Business client deployment will require.
  • Office 365 Network Analysis Tool: Helps analyze network‐related issues prior to deploying Office 365 services.
173
Q

Name 5 office 365 plans

A
  • Personal: Includes Word, Excel, PowerPoint, OneNote, Outlook, Publisher, and Access for home/non‐commercial use on one computer (PC or Mac) plus access to premium features on one tablet or phone. It also gives 1 TB of additional OneDrive storage and 60 minutes of Skype international calls per month.
  • Home: Targeted for mainstream consumers and families. It has the same features as Personal except that it can be used on as many as five devices by up to five users.
  • ProPlus: Offers access to the Office 2016 Professional Plus applications for up to 25 users on up to five devices per user.
  • Business Essentials: Targeted for small businesses. It offers access to hosted Exchange, SharePoint, and Skype for Business Online services only.
  • Business: Offers desktop apps for both Macs and PCs for as many as five computers per users.
  • Business Premium: Combines Business Essentials and Business to include hosted Exchange, SharePoint and Skype for Business Online services, with desktop apps for Macs and PCs.
  • Enterprise (E3): Offers access to all Office applications, hosted Exchange, and SharePoint, with enterprise‐specific legal compliance features and support.
  • Enterprise (E4): Offers everything that E3 offers as well as Enterprise voice/enterprise calling capabilities.
174
Q

When you sign up with the service, you start with two initial domains, what are they?

A

Onmicrosoft.com and a sharepoint domain

175
Q

What plans are required to use your own domain name?

A

requires a Small Business, Midsize Business, or Enterprise version of Office 365.

176
Q

What is the url to manage 365?

A

(https://portal. office.com)

177
Q

What port does DNS use?

A

53

178
Q

DNS is a hierarchical system consisting of a tree of domain names. At the top of the tree is ?

A

Root zone

179
Q

How many domains are allowed in each dns zone?

A

One or many and can be served by a name server

180
Q

Can the administrative responsibility for a zone be delegated?

A

The administrative responsibility over any zone can be delegated or divided by creating a subdomain, which can be assigned to a different name server and administrative entity.

181
Q

Each node or leaf in the tree is called ?

A

A resource record RR

182
Q

What is an A (AAAA) record do?

A

Holds the host name and associated ip address

183
Q

A domain name consists of one or more labels. Each label can be up to ? characters.

A

63

184
Q

The fully qualified domain name cannot exceed a total length of ? characters

A

253

185
Q

The right‐most label in a domain name designates ?

A

The top level domain

186
Q

The hierarchy of domains descends in which direction?

A

Right to left

187
Q

Each label to the left in a domain name specifies ?

A

a subdomain of the domain or label on the right

188
Q

Second‐level domains are registered to ?

A

individuals or organizations

189
Q

Second‐level DNS domains can have ?

A

many subdomains, and any domain can have hosts

190
Q

What is a host?

A

A host is a specific computer or other network device in a domain. Which has one or more ip addresses

191
Q

Break down the following domain name into its components: server1.corporate.contoso.com

A

Com = root domain

192
Q

Breakdown server1.corporate.contoso.com

A 
Com = root domain
Contoso = company sub domain of root
Corporate = sub domain of contoso
Server1 = host of sub domain
193
Q

What does each resource record contain?

A

Each record has a type, an expiration time limit, and some type‐specific data.

194
Q

When you create a new zone, which two types of records are automatically created?

A
  • Start of Authority (SOA) record: Specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone, including the primary name server, the e‐mail of the domain administrator, the domain serial number, and the expiration and reload timers of the zone
  • Name Server (NS) record: Specifies an authoritative name server for the host.
195
Q

What are 5 of the most common resource records?

A
  • Host (A and AAAA) record: Maps a domain/host name to an IP address
  • Canonical Name (CNAME) record: Sometimes referred to as an Alias, maps an alias DNS domain name to another primary
  • Pointer (PTR) record: Maps an IP address to a domain/host name
  • Mail Exchanger (MX) record: Maps a DNS domain name to the name of a computer that exchanges or forwards e‐mail for the domain
  • Service Location (SRV) record: Maps a DNS domain name to a specified list of host computers that offer a specific type of service, such as Active Directory domain controllers
196
Q

What is the only record in the reverse zone?

A

PTR record

197
Q

What is subscription model of intune

A

Per user

198
Q

What 3 configurations can intune be deployed ?

A
  • Stand‐Alone Cloud Configuration
    • Microsoft Intune Cloud + On‐premise
    • Microsoft Intune + System Center Configuration Manager
199
Q

What communication requirements does intune have so it can manage devices?

A

Microsoft Intune requires that your firewalls will pass communications between the managed devices and your Microsoft Intune services.

200
Q

What Os can you install Intune?

A

Windows Vista Business, Enterprise and Ultimate • Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise or Ultimate • Windows 8/8.1 Pro or Enterprise • Windows 10 Pro or Enterprise

201
Q

What browsers does the intune portal support?

A

Internet Explorer 9 or later • Google Chrome • Mozilla Firefox

202
Q

If you sign up for intune and specify a company name of contoso what will be the domain name?

A

contoso.onmicrosoft.com

203
Q

What 2 users are created when you sign up for Intune?

A

tenant administrator and service administrator

204
Q

What are the 2 admin sites created for intune?

A

Microsoft Intune Account Portal and the Microsoft Intune Admin Console.

205
Q

Where is the hypervisor sit in between when installed?

A

hypervisor is installed between the hardware and the operating system and is the main component that manages the virtual computers

206
Q

What is a partition

A

A partition is a logical unit of storage in which operating systems are hosted.

207
Q

What 3 files does each virtual machine use?

A
  • A virtual machine configuration (.xml) file in XML format that contains the virtual machine configuration information, including all settings for the virtual machine
  • One or more virtual hard disk (.vhd or .vhdx) files to store the guest operating system, applications, and data for the virtual machine
  • A virtual machine may also use a saved‐state (.vsv) file, if the machine has been placed into a saved state.
208
Q

What is the Microsoft Azure Fabric Controller (FC)?

A

is responsible for provisioning and monitoring Azure compute instances.

209
Q

What is the combined azure sla?

A

entire application is 99.65%, which gives you 151 minutes of downtime per month.

210
Q

What is azure site recovery?

A

Microsoft Azure Site Recovery is a software component used to orchestrate protection for virtual machines that are located on on‐premises Hyper‐V host servers located in the VMM cloud.

211
Q

If you want Microsoft Office, SharePoint, Exchange, voicemails, and Skype for Business Online, for your large corporation, you will need to use the ____________ licensing plan.

A

E4

212
Q

The subscription funding model is the same as ?

A

Pay as you go

213
Q

If you want to monitor your cloud applications from multiple locations, you should use the?

A

Global SCOM (Systems Center Operations Manager)

214
Q

The ? service model provides the hardware for servers, storage, and networking—usually in the form of a standardized virtual server environment.

A

IAAS

215
Q

? Service model allows several companies to use the same cloud products.

A

Paas

216
Q

Which type of cloud service is Office 365?

A

Productivity Services

217
Q

Which pay model should be used with Office 365?

A

Pay as you go

218
Q

You need to purchase several servers. Which funding model should be used for your corporation?

A

CapEx

219
Q

Which of the following allows you to change the cloud resources based on the required workload?

A

Elasticity

220
Q

Which type of cloud is delivered on a physical infrastructure that is used by a single organization?

A

Dedicated public cloud

221
Q

The SLA will specify the limitation of liability for a cloud provider.

A

True

222
Q

What is EMS?

A

Enterprise Mobility Suite

  • AAD
  • INTUNE
  • Azure rights management rms
223
Q

What is capex and opex?

A

Capex - funds use for physical assetts like server, hardware…

Opex - funds used for business operations like employees, office space

224
Q

What is Public Cloud?

A

Web based service outside of an org

225
Q

What is shared public cloud?

A

Service shared by multiple companies or tenants

226
Q

Private cloud?

A

Services contained within corporate network

227
Q

Hosted private cloud?

A

Colocation

228
Q

Hybrid cloud?

A

Mixed public and private

229
Q

Name 6 concerns for Managing data privacy

A

Back that ass up Dre!

  • Backed up and where
  • Accessed
  • Stored
  • Security breaches
  • DR and BC
  • Legal and compliance
230
Q

What is difference between symmetric and asymmetric encryption ?

A

Symmetric - single key used to encrypt and decrypt

Asymmetric - used a public key to encrypt and a private key to decrypt

231
Q

How long should the encryption keys be for data at rest?

A

2048 min to 4096 ideal (store keys offsite)

232
Q

TLS encryption is an extension of what?

A

SSL 3.0

233
Q

5 Security Basics for cloud dilligence considerations

A

P2P

  • Perimeter
  • Hypervisor
  • Storage
  • Change management
  • Policy (audit)
234
Q

What are 2 Microsoft cloud monitoring tools?

A
  • SCOM

- System Center global service monitor

235
Q

Name some of the 10 Considerations for moving to public cloud?

A

CC-DD-OPM-SSS

  • Compliance costs
  • Customization and Integration costs
  • Data transfer costs
  • Data Center infrastructure costs/savings
  • Operational support costs/savings
  • Platform costs, licensing, middleware
  • Managing multiple environments
  • Storage costs
  • Software maint costs
  • Server costs or savings
236
Q

What are 5 steps for moving to cloud?

A

1, Assess your current IT strategy

  1. Future technology needs
  2. Explore cloud options
  3. Create hybrid cloud strategy/plan
  4. Plan for implementation
237
Q

When you move to the cloud, you will need to determine which of 3 types of cloud deployment you want to use (?) and which of the 3 service model that you want to implement (?).

A

Public, Private, or Hybrid

SaaS, PaaS, or IaaS

238
Q

Although the cloud has been available for some time and the cloud capabilities are still growing, there have been some significant outages from big cloud providers. Therefore, you need to thoroughly review the agreement between your organization and the cloud provider.

A

True

239
Q

Cloud computing takes the next step; instead of virtualizing servers, it virtualizes datacenters.

A

True

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