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MT2 Flashcards

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1
Q

what is consciousness

A

person’s subjective experience of the world

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2
Q

what is phenomenology

A

how things seem to a conscious person

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3
Q

what is the problem of other minds?

A

difficulty perceiving other’s consciousness

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4
Q

what’s a zombie

A

hypothetical non-
conscious person

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5
Q

what are the two dimensions of mind

A

experience and agency

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6
Q

what’s experience

A

ability to feel pain, pleasure, hunger, etc.

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7
Q

what’s agency?

A

ability for self-control, planning, memory, thought

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8
Q

descartes believed in empiricism. how does this tie into how consciousness operates?

A

mind-body problem: the mind is related to the brain and body

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9
Q

what was the order of events when participants were asked to move their hand? what does this suggest ?

A
  1. brain shows electrical activity 2. participant experiences intention 3. hand moves. suggests lack of free will potentially
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10
Q

Evidence suggests every though/perception/feeling is associated with neural activity… what problem is this associated with?

A

mind-body problem

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11
Q

what’s the Turing test?

A

for a human to exhibit human intelligence, it must act indistinguishably from humans by a third-party

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12
Q

what are the four basic properties of consciousness?

A

intentionality, unity, selectivity, transience

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13
Q

which of the four basic properties of consciousness is directed toward an object/about something

A

intentionality

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14
Q

which of the four basic properties of consciousness is the integration of information from senses as one unified experience of consciousness?

A

unity

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15
Q

which of the four basic properties of consciousness is when the mind excluded/includes certain pieces of information

A

selectivity

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16
Q

what is dichotic listening?

A

people hearing headphones hear different messages in each ear: if listen to only one ear, they’ll miss the other message

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17
Q

which of the four basic properties of consciousness does the cocktail-party phenomenon fall under?

A

selectivity

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18
Q

what is the cocktail phenomenon?

A

people tune in one message while filtering out others nearby i.e. more likely to notice own name (even in sleep)

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19
Q

which of the four basic properties of consciousness is the tendency to change?

A

transience

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20
Q

what are the three levels of consciousness?

A

minimal consciousness, full consciousness and self-consciousness

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21
Q

low-level sensory awareness and responsiveness i.e. experience without thought about experience, is attributed to which level of consciousness?

A

minimal consciousness

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22
Q

being aware and able to report on own mental state is attributed to which level of consciousness?

A

full consciousness

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23
Q

if a person’s attention is drawn to the self as an object they’re displaying which level of consciousness?

A

self-consciousness

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24
Q

T or F: seeing oneself in a mirror makes you more cooperative

A

true

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25
Q

what is a disorder of consciousness?

A

patient not being able to demonstrate full consciousness or self-consciousness

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26
Q

what are the four disorders of consciousness?

A

coma, vegetative state, minimally conscious state, locked-in syndrome

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27
Q

which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: complete unawareness, eyes closed, no responses

A

coma

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28
Q

which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: alternating open/closed eyes, possible limb movements, possible sounds, no evidence of awareness?

A

vegetative state

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29
Q

which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: inconsistently reliable responses to sensory stimulation?

A

minimally conscious state

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30
Q

which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: an individual who is fully aware but cannot demonstrate it i.e., cannot voluntarily move muscles

A

locked-in syndrome

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31
Q

which level of consciousness is associated with a difficulty that those with locked-in syndrome face?

A

issues can be transient; behaviours can be misleading

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32
Q

which machine was used to figure out patients’ level of consciousness?

A

fMRI

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33
Q

EMA (experience sampling, or ecological momentary assessment) is what?

A

techniques where people are prompted to report conscious experience

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34
Q

EMA found what in relation to people’s daily lives?

A

even though people spend the most amount of time during their day working, they also associate working with low positive affect/boredom

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35
Q

daydreaming is what?

A

state of consciousness with purposeless flow of thoughts

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36
Q

what brain network would be active during daydreaming?

A

default network

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37
Q

when thoughts are recurrent and dominate consciousness… this is an example of ?

A

rumination

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38
Q

mental control is what?

A

attempt to change conscious state of mind

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39
Q

the conscious avoidance of a thought is known as?

A

thought suppression

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40
Q

what is the rebound effect of thought suppression?

A

after suppressing a thought, it is likely the suppressed thought will return to consciousness with even greater frequency

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41
Q

attempting to direct consciousness that results in the opposite of the desired result is known as which type of error?

A

ironic error

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42
Q

what is the ironic process of mental control?

A

ironic errors occur because mental processes that monitor errors can also produce the errors

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43
Q

T or F: ironic monitoring works within consciousness

A

false

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44
Q

T or F: ironic monitoring increases sensitivity to the unwanted thoughts

A

true

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45
Q

Freud believed in the dynamic unconscious which is what?

A

active system that represses a lifetime of hidden memories/struggle to control deep instincts&desires

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46
Q

Freud believed what was at the core of dynamic unconscioius?

A

repression

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47
Q

freud believed he could find evidence of the unconscious mind through which speech errors?

A

Freudian slips

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48
Q

cognitive unconscious is the modern understanding. what does that entail?

A

all mental processes that give rise to thoughts, choices, emotions an behaviour

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49
Q

modern understanding believes in two systems in the brain used for processing information. which theory is this?

A

dual process theory

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50
Q

T or F: system 1 is fast unconscious processing

A

true

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51
Q

T or F: system 2 is slow effortful, conscious processing

A

true

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52
Q

T or F: system 2 uses system 1 to guide behaviour

A

true

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53
Q

dreams occur during which state of consciousness?

A

altered state of consciousness

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54
Q

what are the 3 states around sleep?

A

hypnagogic state, hypnic jerk, hypnopompic state

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55
Q

what is the hypnagogic state?

A

pre-sleep consciousness state i.e., wandering thoughts and images

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56
Q

what is the hypnic jerk?

A

sudden quiver or dropping sensation

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57
Q

what is the hypnopompic state?

A

post-sleep consciousness i.e., foggy return to waking consciousness

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58
Q

are beta waves associated with alertness or relaxation?

A

alertness, high frequency

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59
Q

are alpha waves associated with alertness or relaxation?

A

relaxation, low frequency

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60
Q

which waves are of lower frequency than alpha and are associated with stage 1 sleep?

A

theta waves

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61
Q

which machine can be used to track stages during wakefulness and sleep?

A

EEG

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62
Q

sleep spindles and K complexes are associated with which stage of sleep?

A

stage 2

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63
Q

stage 3/4 is sometimes referred to as SWS, which stands for?

A

slow wave sleep

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64
Q

which waves are present during SWS

A

delta waves: large, lower frequency

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65
Q

which stage of sleep is associated with rapid eye movements and high levels of brain activity?

A

stage 5; REM sleep

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66
Q

which waves are present during REM sleep

A

high frequency, sawtooth waves

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67
Q

which machine can be used to measure eye movements and thus, determine if an individual is in REM sleep?

A

electrooculography (EOG)

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68
Q

people woken up during which stage are most likely to report dreaming?

A

REM sleep

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69
Q

____ gets longer while _____ gets lighter throughout the night

A

REM, sleep

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70
Q

____ is the difficulty in falling or staying asleep

A

insomnia

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71
Q

self-induced insomnia is caused by what?

A

lifestyle; night shifts; lack of light received during day

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72
Q

insomnia in response to depression, anxiety or another condition is a) primary or b) secondary

A

b) secondary

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73
Q

insomnia with no obvious causal factor is known as a) primary or b) secondary

A

a) primary

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74
Q

what is the disorder called when people stop breathing for brief periods of time while asleep

A

sleep apnea

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75
Q

sleep apnea results in snoring due to ?

A

involuntary obstruction of breathing passages

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76
Q

sleepwalking (somnambulism) is what?

A

when a person arises and walks around while asleep

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77
Q

sleepwalking (somnambulism) usually occurs during which stage of sleep?

A

stage 3/4 or SWS

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78
Q

_____ is the sudden sleep attacks in the middle of waking activities

A

narcolepsy

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79
Q

_____ is when someone wakes up but are unable to move

A

sleep paralysis

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80
Q

sleep paralysis usually occurs when waking from which stage of sleep?

A

REM

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81
Q

_____ is the abrupt awakenings with panic/intense emotional arousal

A

sleep/night terrors

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82
Q

sleep/night terrors usually occurs in which stage of sleep?

A

non-REM, earlier in sleep cycle

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83
Q

nightmares are most prevalent in which group of individuals?

A

congenitally blind people (25% of their dreams)

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84
Q

freud believed dreams were a representation of wishes and said there were two types of content. what are they?

A

manifest and latent

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85
Q

manifest content is what?

A

apparent topic of dream, superficial meaning

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86
Q

latent content is what?

A

dream’s true underlying meaning

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87
Q

which model pertains to the brain’s attempt to make sense of random neural activity during sleep?

A

activation-synthesis model

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88
Q

when dreaming, which parts of the brain are active?

A

amygdala, visual association areas, motor cortex and brain stem

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89
Q

when dreaming, which parts of the brain are inactive?

A

prefrontal cortex (except during lucid dreaming)

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90
Q

psychoactive drugs are what?

A

chemicals that influence consciousness/behaviour by altering the brain’s chemical messaging system

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91
Q

do agonists or antagonists increase the activity of a neurotransmitter?

A

agonist

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92
Q

T or F: antagonists decrease the activity of neurotransmitters

A

true

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93
Q

initial motivation for drug use is linked to what?

A

positive reinforcement

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94
Q

overtime, what becomes the motivation for continued drug use?

A

negative reinforcement; reduce withdrawal symptoms

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95
Q

when someone needs larger drug dosages to achieve the same effect, this is linked to what?

A

drug tolerance

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96
Q

_____ dependence is when pain/convulsions/hallucinations are present during withdrawal

A

physical dependence

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97
Q

the emotional desire to return to a drug (when physical withdrawal symptoms are gone), particularly when reminded of the drug, is known as?

A

psychological dependence

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98
Q

alcohol, barbiturates and benzodiazepines are examples of which type of drug

A

depressants

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99
Q

which type of drug reduces the activity of the central nervous system?

A

depressants

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100
Q

euphoria and reduced anxiety are the initial effects of which depressant?

A

alcohol

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101
Q

high doses of this type of drug results in slow reactions, slurred speech and poor judgement

A

alcohol

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102
Q

alcohol increases ____ activity

A

GABA

103
Q

explain expectancy theory

A

effects can be produced by people’s expectations of how alcohol will influence them in a situation

104
Q

explain the balanced placebo design and the results

A

people were observed after being given alcohol (stimulus) or a fake alcoholic beverage (placebo stimulus). showed that people who believed they had alcohol showed effects of alcohol regardless

105
Q

explain myopia theory

A

alcohol hampers attention -> people respond in simple ways to complex situations. impairment of fine judgement

106
Q

these two theories combined result in those consuming alcohol to go to the extreme

A

expectancy and myopia theory

107
Q

barbiturates are which type of drug? what are they prescribed as?

A

depressant, sleep aid

108
Q

benzodiazepines (valium, xanax) are which type of drug? what are they prescribed as?

A

depressant, anxiety

109
Q

“minor tranquilizers” are another name for?

A

benzodiazepines

110
Q

which type of drug excites the central nervous system, heightens arousal and activity?

A

stimulants

111
Q

caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, ecstasy are all examples of which type of drug?

A

stimulants

112
Q

increased dopamine and norepinephrine levels are a result of which type of drug use?

A

stimulant

113
Q

highly addictive drugs derived from opium that relieve pain are known as?

A

narcotics/opiates

114
Q

heroin, morphine, methadone, codeine, oxycontin are all examples of which type of drug?

A

narcotic

115
Q

what drug can be administered to rapidly reverse opioid overdoses?

A

naloxone

116
Q

which type of drug produces extreme alternations of consciousness

A

hallucinogens

117
Q

which type of drug alters sensation/perception, and causes visual/auditory hallucinations?

A

hallucinogens

118
Q

LSD, cannabis, mescaline and ketamine are all examples of which type of drug?

A

hallucinogens

119
Q

which class of drug will animals not work to self-administer?

A

hallucinogens

120
Q

THC binds to receptors normally activated by which neurotransmitter?

A

anandamide

121
Q

social interactions in which a ____ makes suggestions that leads to a change in the participant’s subjective experience of the world is known as ?

A

hynosis

122
Q

failure to retrieve memories following hypnotic suggestions to forget is known as?

A

posthypnotic amnesia

123
Q

reduction of pain through hypnosis in people susceptible to hypnosis is known as?

A

hypnotic analgesia

124
Q

when dreaming, what’s happening with the motor cortex?

A

although active, the signal is blocked by spinal neurons in the brainstem

125
Q

when dreaming, the visual association areas are involved with imagery or perception?

A

imagery

126
Q

the simple stimulation of a sense organ is known as?

A

sensation

127
Q

the organization, identification, interpretation of a sensation is known as?

A

perception

128
Q

the process where sense receptors convert physical environmental signals into neural signals is known as?

A

transduction

129
Q

what is sensory adaptation?

A

when the sensitivity of a stimulus declines over time

130
Q

psychophysics is what?

A

methods to relate physical characteristics of a stimulus with an obsersver’s perception

131
Q

how strong a stimulus needs to be to be detected 50% of the time is known as?

A

absolute threshold

132
Q

what is sensitivity?

A

how responsive we are to a stimulus

133
Q

what is acuity?

A

how well we can distinguish between two very similar stimuli

134
Q

the just noticeable difference (JND) is what?

A

minimal change in a stimulus that can just barely be detected

135
Q

if the standard stimulus is small, does the JND need to be small or big?

A

small

136
Q

if the standard stimulus is big, does the JND need to be small or big?

A

big

137
Q

the psychophysics analyses for perceptual sensitivity given noise/motivations is known as which theory?

A

signal detection theory

138
Q

the amount of evidence necessary to decide a stimulus is present is know as ?

A

decision criterion

139
Q

_____ is when a radiologist correctly detects cancer on a scan

A

hit

140
Q

_____ is when a radiologist fails to detect cancer on a scan

A

miss

141
Q

_____ is when a radiologist reports a scan as clear for a healthy person

A

correct rejection

142
Q

_____ is when a radiologist incorrectly reports cancer when it is actually a healthy person

A

false alarm

143
Q

in regards to the signal detection theory, the decision criterion does what

A

determines misses vs false alarm rate

144
Q

T or F: liberal criterion identifies cancer without the slightest doubt… produces lots of false alarms

A

true

145
Q

T or F: conservative criterion requires stronger evidence to identify cancer … produces lots of misses

A

true

146
Q

the ability to see fine detail is known as?

A

visual acuity

147
Q

_____ determines the brightness of light

A

amplitude

148
Q

the degree to which a light source is emitting 1 or many wavelengths is known as?

A

purity

149
Q

T or F: pure lights, like lasers, have low saturation

A

false

150
Q

T or F: the length of a wavelength is how colour is determined

A

true

151
Q

light passes through _______ where light is bent and then sent to the pupil

A

cornea

152
Q

the _____ is a hole in the coloured iris which changes sizes to control the amount of light let through

A

pupil

153
Q

the pupil sends light to the ?

A

lens

154
Q

muscles control the shape of this part of the eye so that it can bend light and change its thickness before sending it to the retina

A

lens

155
Q

what is the final destination for light that contains rods and cones?

A

retina

156
Q

both the lens and cornea can bend light but only this one can accomadate for light

A

lens

157
Q

the shape of the lens is a) flatter b) rounder when focusing on distant objects

A

a) flatter

158
Q

the shape of the lens is a) flatter b) rounder when focusing on nearby objects

A

b) rounder

159
Q

what is myopia?

A

see close, not far–nearsighted. eyes are too long, images will be focused in front of the retina.

160
Q

what is hyperopia?

A

see far, not close–farsighted. eyes too short, images focused behind retina.

161
Q

a) cones b)rods detect colour, daylight and have high visual acuity

A

cones

162
Q

these photoreceptor cells are of the highest concentration in the fovea

A

cones

163
Q

a) cones b)rods are good in low-light conditions, have low visual acuity and higher sensitivity

A

rods

164
Q

these photoreceptor cells are found primarily in the periphery

A

rods

165
Q

these cells send transduced information to retinal ganglion cells (RGCs)

A

bipolar cells

166
Q

RGC’s make up which nerve

A

optic nerve

167
Q

no photoreceptors are found in this location of the retina

A

blind spot

168
Q

T or F: different cones have different sensitivities to wavelengths which is how colour gets perceived

A

true

169
Q

which system explains how staring at one colour too long will fatigue the relevant cones hence producing another colour

A

colour opponent system

170
Q

the “what pathway” is used to see an objects shape and identity. which steam is it related to? ventral or dorsal?

A

ventral

171
Q

the “where pathway” is used to see where an object is/how it is moving. which steam is it related to? ventral or dorsal?

A

dorsal

172
Q

guiding actions such as aiming, reaching, tracking with eyes are controlled by which pathway/stream

A

where pathway, dorsal stream

173
Q

the brains capacity to perform many activities at the same time while still having a unified representation is known as?

A

parallel processing

174
Q

the perceptual mistake where the brain incorrectly combines features from multiple objects in known as?

A

illusory conjunction

175
Q

T or F: the feature-integration theory says that focused attention isn’t necessary to detect individual features of a stimulus but attention is required to bind the individual features together

A

true

176
Q

active and conscious processing of particular information is known as?

A

attention

177
Q

modular view says what about brain areas and detection?

A

different parts of the brain detect different stimulus

178
Q

T or F: conceptual knowledge is having to have meaning/facts associated with an object in order to recognize the object as a whole

A

true

179
Q

perceptual constancy is what?

A

even as aspects of sensory signals change, perception remains constant

180
Q

being able to recognize that someone is still themselves, even when they dress differently, is associated with what?

A

perceptual constancy

181
Q

if an actor changes how they look so well that you no longer can tell they’re who they are, this is associated with what?

A

perceptual contrast

182
Q

T or F: being able to group/segregate features to create whole organized objects in a meaningful way is known as perceptual organization

A

true

183
Q

______: when the visual system selects the simplest interpretation

A

simplicity

184
Q

______: when the visual system fills in missing elements to create complete objects

A

closure

185
Q

______: when the visual system perceives objects together because their edges/contours are in the same orientation with good continuation

A

continutity

186
Q

______: when the visual system perceives objects as being together since they have similar colour/shape

A

similarity

187
Q

______: when the visual system groups objects together since they’re close to one another

A

proximity

188
Q

______: when the visual system groups objects moving together as part of a single object

A

common fate

189
Q

______: when the visual system perceives movement as a result of alternating signals in rapid succession in different locations

A

apparent motion

190
Q

when viewing with only one eye, is it monocular or binocular depth cues that are used?

A

monocular

191
Q

linear perspective, texture gradient, interposition and relative height in image are are examples of which depth cue?

A

monocular depth cue

192
Q

_____: is when one object is perceived as closer because it partly blocks another object

A

interposition

193
Q

this region at the back of the temporal love is specialized for perception of visual motion

A

MT

194
Q

when people fail to detect changes to visual details of a scene, this is known as what?

A

change blindness

195
Q

when people fail to perceive objects that are not the focus of attention, this is known as?

A

inattention blindess

196
Q

what are changes in air pressure over time

A

sound waves

197
Q

the frequency of a sound wave is perceived as what

A

pitch

198
Q

how high or low a sound is is?

A

pitch

199
Q

the amplitude of a sound wave is perceived as what?

A

loudness

200
Q

this allows people to differentiate between two sources with the same pitch and loudness

A

timbre

201
Q

the mixture of sound wave frequencies is known as?

A

complexity

202
Q

the outer ear consists of?

A

pinna, auditory canal and eardrum

203
Q

this part of the outer ear vibrates with sound waves

A

ear drum

204
Q

the middle ear consists of?

A

ossicles and oval window

205
Q

the air-filled chamber with ossicles transmits and amplifies vibrations from the eardrum to the ?

A

oval window

206
Q

this part of the ear transduces sounds into neural impulses

A

inner ear

207
Q

what is the name of the fluid-filled spiral tube in the inner ear?

A

cochlea

208
Q

inside the cochlea there is what type of membrane?

A

basilar

209
Q

T or F: at low frequency, the basilar membrane has a wide floppy apex

A

true

210
Q

T or F: at high frequency, the basilar membrane has a stuff base by the oval window

A

true

211
Q

as the basilar membrane moves, cochlear fluid moves and stimulates ______ which are auditory receptor neurons that are then sent to the auditory nerve

A

inner hair cells

212
Q

in the ear, which stream locates the source of a sound

A

where

213
Q

in the ear, which stream identifies what the sound is?

A

what

214
Q

this code allows the brain to use information about relative activity of hair cells

A

place code

215
Q

this code allows the brain to use the timing of action potentials in the auditory nerve to determine pitch

A

temporal code

216
Q

T or F: binaural location cues makes high-frequency sounds more intense in closer ear

A

true

217
Q

damages to eardrum or ossicles results in which type of hearing loss?

A

conductive

218
Q

damage to the cochlea, hair cells or auditory nerve results in which type of hearing loss?

A

sensorineural

219
Q

which type of hearing loss is associated with decreased sensitivity, decreased acuity and occurs due to age (for ex)

A

sensorineural hearing loss

220
Q

in a cochlear implant, are the microphone, processor and transmitter external or implanted?

A

external

221
Q

in a cochlear implant, is the receiver implanted or external?

A

implanted

222
Q

this type of perception is active when exploring the environment by touching/grasping objects with hands

A

haptic perception

223
Q

the patch of skin a receptor is sensitive to is known as?

A

tactile receptive field

224
Q

these types of receptors are nerve fibres that sense cold and warmth

A

thermoreceptors

225
Q

in touch sensation, which system is associated with the properties of surfaces and objects?

A

what

226
Q

in touch sensation, which system is associated with information about location in external space being touches or location on body?

A

where

227
Q

which axon (fast-acting A-delta or slow-acting C) transmit an initial sharp pain?

A

fast-acting A-delta

228
Q

which axon (fast-acting A-delta or slow-acting C) transmit longer-lasting dull pain?

A

slow-acting C

229
Q

which axon (fast-acting A-delta or slow-acting C) has less myelin?

A

slow-acting C

230
Q

what are the two pain pathways?

A

somatosensory cortex and motivational and emotional centres

231
Q

this pain pathway identifies where and what the pain is

A

somatosensory cortex

232
Q

this pain pathway is related to unpleasantness and the desire to escape pain

A

motivational and emotional centres

233
Q

what sort of pain is when pain to internal areas cause pain on external areas due to a shared nerve cell in the spinal cord?

A

referred pain

234
Q

which theory explains how signals arriving from pain-receptors can be stopped via feedback from the skin or brain?

A

gate-control theory

235
Q

what is proprioception?

A

sense of body position

236
Q

this system, 3 semicircular canals & adjacent organs next to the cochlea in the inner ear helps in maintaining balance

A

vestibular system

237
Q

a mismatch between vision and vestibular information results in what?

A

motion sickness

238
Q

smell is associated with which type of information?

A

olfactory

239
Q

this is the mucous membrane along the top of the nasal cavity

A

oflactory epithelium

240
Q

the oflactory epithelium contains which type of receptor cells?

A

olfactory receptor neurons (ORNS)

241
Q

groups of ORNs sensitive to the same odourant send axons from the olfactory epithelium to where?

A

olfactory bulb

242
Q

the ability to detect odours is?

A

olfactory sensitivity

243
Q

the ability to discriminate up to 1 trillion odours is what?

A

olfactory acuity

244
Q

the tongue is covered in _____ that contain taste buds

A

papillae

245
Q

how many tase receptor cells are there per taste bud?

A

50-100

246
Q

taste receptor tips are known as?

A

microvilli

247
Q

50% of ppl report bitterness

A

tasters

248
Q

25% of ppl report no bitterness

A

nontasters

249
Q

25% of ppl report super duper bitterness

A

supertasters

250
Q

this group of tasters are at a risk of colon cancer and decreased risk of cardiovascular disease

A

supertasters

251
Q

this is the contribution made by receptors in the mouth

A

taste

252
Q

taste and smell together makes the perception of what

A

flavour

253
Q

the primary gustatory cortex, primary olfactory cortex and the mouth region of the somatosensory cortex are sensitive to what from food?

A

odours

psych 111 (2 decks)

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