MT2 Flashcards
1
Q
what is consciousness
A
person’s subjective experience of the world
2
Q
what is phenomenology
A
how things seem to a conscious person
3
Q
what is the problem of other minds?
A
difficulty perceiving other’s consciousness
4
Q
what’s a zombie
A
hypothetical non-
conscious person
5
Q
what are the two dimensions of mind
A
experience and agency
6
Q
what’s experience
A
ability to feel pain, pleasure, hunger, etc.
7
Q
what’s agency?
A
ability for self-control, planning, memory, thought
8
Q
descartes believed in empiricism. how does this tie into how consciousness operates?
A
mind-body problem: the mind is related to the brain and body
9
Q
what was the order of events when participants were asked to move their hand? what does this suggest ?
A
- brain shows electrical activity 2. participant experiences intention 3. hand moves. suggests lack of free will potentially
10
Q
Evidence suggests every though/perception/feeling is associated with neural activity… what problem is this associated with?
A
mind-body problem
11
Q
what’s the Turing test?
A
for a human to exhibit human intelligence, it must act indistinguishably from humans by a third-party
12
Q
what are the four basic properties of consciousness?
A
intentionality, unity, selectivity, transience
13
Q
which of the four basic properties of consciousness is directed toward an object/about something
A
intentionality
14
Q
which of the four basic properties of consciousness is the integration of information from senses as one unified experience of consciousness?
A
unity
15
Q
which of the four basic properties of consciousness is when the mind excluded/includes certain pieces of information
A
selectivity
16
Q
what is dichotic listening?
A
people hearing headphones hear different messages in each ear: if listen to only one ear, they’ll miss the other message
17
Q
which of the four basic properties of consciousness does the cocktail-party phenomenon fall under?
A
selectivity
18
Q
what is the cocktail phenomenon?
A
people tune in one message while filtering out others nearby i.e. more likely to notice own name (even in sleep)
19
Q
which of the four basic properties of consciousness is the tendency to change?
A
transience
20
Q
what are the three levels of consciousness?
A
minimal consciousness, full consciousness and self-consciousness
21
Q
low-level sensory awareness and responsiveness i.e. experience without thought about experience, is attributed to which level of consciousness?
A
minimal consciousness
22
Q
being aware and able to report on own mental state is attributed to which level of consciousness?
A
full consciousness
23
Q
if a person’s attention is drawn to the self as an object they’re displaying which level of consciousness?
A
self-consciousness
24
Q
T or F: seeing oneself in a mirror makes you more cooperative
A
true
25
what is a disorder of consciousness?
patient not being able to demonstrate full consciousness or self-consciousness
26
what are the four disorders of consciousness?
coma, vegetative state, minimally conscious state, locked-in syndrome
27
which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: complete unawareness, eyes closed, no responses
coma
28
which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: alternating open/closed eyes, possible limb movements, possible sounds, no evidence of awareness?
vegetative state
29
which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: inconsistently reliable responses to sensory stimulation?
minimally conscious state
30
which of the four disorders of consciousness is associated with: an individual who is fully aware but cannot demonstrate it i.e., cannot voluntarily move muscles
locked-in syndrome
31
which level of consciousness is associated with a difficulty that those with locked-in syndrome face?
issues can be transient; behaviours can be misleading
32
which machine was used to figure out patients' level of consciousness?
fMRI
33
EMA (experience sampling, or ecological momentary assessment) is what?
techniques where people are prompted to report conscious experience
34
EMA found what in relation to people's daily lives?
even though people spend the most amount of time during their day working, they also associate working with low positive affect/boredom
35
daydreaming is what?
state of consciousness with purposeless flow of thoughts
36
what brain network would be active during daydreaming?
default network
37
when thoughts are recurrent and dominate consciousness... this is an example of ?
rumination
38
mental control is what?
attempt to change conscious state of mind
39
the conscious avoidance of a thought is known as?
thought suppression
40
what is the rebound effect of thought suppression?
after suppressing a thought, it is likely the suppressed thought will return to consciousness with even greater frequency
41
attempting to direct consciousness that results in the opposite of the desired result is known as which type of error?
ironic error
42
what is the ironic process of mental control?
ironic errors occur because mental processes that monitor errors can also produce the errors
43
T or F: ironic monitoring works within consciousness
false
44
T or F: ironic monitoring increases sensitivity to the unwanted thoughts
true
45
Freud believed in the dynamic unconscious which is what?
active system that represses a lifetime of hidden memories/struggle to control deep instincts&desires
46
Freud believed what was at the core of dynamic unconscioius?
repression
47
freud believed he could find evidence of the unconscious mind through which speech errors?
Freudian slips
48
cognitive unconscious is the modern understanding. what does that entail?
all mental processes that give rise to thoughts, choices, emotions an behaviour
49
modern understanding believes in two systems in the brain used for processing information. which theory is this?
dual process theory
50
T or F: system 1 is fast unconscious processing
true
51
T or F: system 2 is slow effortful, conscious processing
true
52
T or F: system 2 uses system 1 to guide behaviour
true
53
dreams occur during which state of consciousness?
altered state of consciousness
54
what are the 3 states around sleep?
hypnagogic state, hypnic jerk, hypnopompic state
55
what is the hypnagogic state?
pre-sleep consciousness state i.e., wandering thoughts and images
56
what is the hypnic jerk?
sudden quiver or dropping sensation
57
what is the hypnopompic state?
post-sleep consciousness i.e., foggy return to waking consciousness
58
are beta waves associated with alertness or relaxation?
alertness, high frequency
59
are alpha waves associated with alertness or relaxation?
relaxation, low frequency
60
which waves are of lower frequency than alpha and are associated with stage 1 sleep?
theta waves
61
which machine can be used to track stages during wakefulness and sleep?
EEG
62
sleep spindles and K complexes are associated with which stage of sleep?
stage 2
63
stage 3/4 is sometimes referred to as SWS, which stands for?
slow wave sleep
64
which waves are present during SWS
delta waves: large, lower frequency
65
which stage of sleep is associated with rapid eye movements and high levels of brain activity?
stage 5; REM sleep
66
which waves are present during REM sleep
high frequency, sawtooth waves
67
which machine can be used to measure eye movements and thus, determine if an individual is in REM sleep?
electrooculography (EOG)
68
people woken up during which stage are most likely to report dreaming?
REM sleep
69
____ gets longer while _____ gets lighter throughout the night
REM, sleep
70
____ is the difficulty in falling or staying asleep
insomnia
71
self-induced insomnia is caused by what?
lifestyle; night shifts; lack of light received during day
72
insomnia in response to depression, anxiety or another condition is a) primary or b) secondary
b) secondary
73
insomnia with no obvious causal factor is known as a) primary or b) secondary
a) primary
74
what is the disorder called when people stop breathing for brief periods of time while asleep
sleep apnea
75
sleep apnea results in snoring due to ?
involuntary obstruction of breathing passages
76
sleepwalking (somnambulism) is what?
when a person arises and walks around while asleep
77
sleepwalking (somnambulism) usually occurs during which stage of sleep?
stage 3/4 or SWS
78
_____ is the sudden sleep attacks in the middle of waking activities
narcolepsy
79
_____ is when someone wakes up but are unable to move
sleep paralysis
80
sleep paralysis usually occurs when waking from which stage of sleep?
REM
81
_____ is the abrupt awakenings with panic/intense emotional arousal
sleep/night terrors
82
sleep/night terrors usually occurs in which stage of sleep?
non-REM, earlier in sleep cycle
83
nightmares are most prevalent in which group of individuals?
congenitally blind people (25% of their dreams)
84
freud believed dreams were a representation of wishes and said there were two types of content. what are they?
manifest and latent
85
manifest content is what?
apparent topic of dream, superficial meaning
86
latent content is what?
dream's true underlying meaning
87
which model pertains to the brain's attempt to make sense of random neural activity during sleep?
activation-synthesis model
88
when dreaming, which parts of the brain are active?
amygdala, visual association areas, motor cortex and brain stem
89
when dreaming, which parts of the brain are inactive?
prefrontal cortex (except during lucid dreaming)
90
psychoactive drugs are what?
chemicals that influence consciousness/behaviour by altering the brain's chemical messaging system
91
do agonists or antagonists increase the activity of a neurotransmitter?
agonist
92
T or F: antagonists decrease the activity of neurotransmitters
true
93
initial motivation for drug use is linked to what?
positive reinforcement
94
overtime, what becomes the motivation for continued drug use?
negative reinforcement; reduce withdrawal symptoms
95
when someone needs larger drug dosages to achieve the same effect, this is linked to what?
drug tolerance
96
_____ dependence is when pain/convulsions/hallucinations are present during withdrawal
physical dependence
97
the emotional desire to return to a drug (when physical withdrawal symptoms are gone), particularly when reminded of the drug, is known as?
psychological dependence
98
alcohol, barbiturates and benzodiazepines are examples of which type of drug
depressants
99
which type of drug reduces the activity of the central nervous system?
depressants
100
euphoria and reduced anxiety are the initial effects of which depressant?
alcohol
101
high doses of this type of drug results in slow reactions, slurred speech and poor judgement
alcohol
102
alcohol increases ____ activity
GABA
103
explain expectancy theory
effects can be produced by people's expectations of how alcohol will influence them in a situation
104
explain the balanced placebo design and the results
people were observed after being given alcohol (stimulus) or a fake alcoholic beverage (placebo stimulus). showed that people who believed they had alcohol showed effects of alcohol regardless
105
explain myopia theory
alcohol hampers attention -> people respond in simple ways to complex situations. impairment of fine judgement
106
these two theories combined result in those consuming alcohol to go to the extreme
expectancy and myopia theory
107
barbiturates are which type of drug? what are they prescribed as?
depressant, sleep aid
108
benzodiazepines (valium, xanax) are which type of drug? what are they prescribed as?
depressant, anxiety
109
"minor tranquilizers" are another name for?
benzodiazepines
110
which type of drug excites the central nervous system, heightens arousal and activity?
stimulants
111
caffeine, nicotine, cocaine, ecstasy are all examples of which type of drug?
stimulants
112
increased dopamine and norepinephrine levels are a result of which type of drug use?
stimulant
113
highly addictive drugs derived from opium that relieve pain are known as?
narcotics/opiates
114
heroin, morphine, methadone, codeine, oxycontin are all examples of which type of drug?
narcotic
115
what drug can be administered to rapidly reverse opioid overdoses?
naloxone
116
which type of drug produces extreme alternations of consciousness
hallucinogens
117
which type of drug alters sensation/perception, and causes visual/auditory hallucinations?
hallucinogens
118
LSD, cannabis, mescaline and ketamine are all examples of which type of drug?
hallucinogens
119
which class of drug will animals not work to self-administer?
hallucinogens
120
THC binds to receptors normally activated by which neurotransmitter?
anandamide
121
social interactions in which a ____ makes suggestions that leads to a change in the participant's subjective experience of the world is known as ?
hynosis
122
failure to retrieve memories following hypnotic suggestions to forget is known as?
posthypnotic amnesia
123
reduction of pain through hypnosis in people susceptible to hypnosis is known as?
hypnotic analgesia
124
when dreaming, what's happening with the motor cortex?
although active, the signal is blocked by spinal neurons in the brainstem
125
when dreaming, the visual association areas are involved with imagery or perception?
imagery
126
the simple stimulation of a sense organ is known as?
sensation
127
the organization, identification, interpretation of a sensation is known as?
perception
128
the process where sense receptors convert physical environmental signals into neural signals is known as?
transduction
129
what is sensory adaptation?
when the sensitivity of a stimulus declines over time
130
psychophysics is what?
methods to relate physical characteristics of a stimulus with an obsersver's perception
131
how strong a stimulus needs to be to be detected 50% of the time is known as?
absolute threshold
132
what is sensitivity?
how responsive we are to a stimulus
133
what is acuity?
how well we can distinguish between two very similar stimuli
134
the just noticeable difference (JND) is what?
minimal change in a stimulus that can just barely be detected
135
if the standard stimulus is small, does the JND need to be small or big?
small
136
if the standard stimulus is big, does the JND need to be small or big?
big
137
the psychophysics analyses for perceptual sensitivity given noise/motivations is known as which theory?
signal detection theory
138
the amount of evidence necessary to decide a stimulus is present is know as ?
decision criterion
139
_____ is when a radiologist correctly detects cancer on a scan
hit
140
_____ is when a radiologist fails to detect cancer on a scan
miss
141
_____ is when a radiologist reports a scan as clear for a healthy person
correct rejection
142
_____ is when a radiologist incorrectly reports cancer when it is actually a healthy person
false alarm
143
in regards to the signal detection theory, the decision criterion does what
determines misses vs false alarm rate
144
T or F: liberal criterion identifies cancer without the slightest doubt... produces lots of false alarms
true
145
T or F: conservative criterion requires stronger evidence to identify cancer ... produces lots of misses
true
146
the ability to see fine detail is known as?
visual acuity
147
_____ determines the brightness of light
amplitude
148
the degree to which a light source is emitting 1 or many wavelengths is known as?
purity
149
T or F: pure lights, like lasers, have low saturation
false
150
T or F: the length of a wavelength is how colour is determined
true
151
light passes through _______ where light is bent and then sent to the pupil
cornea
152
the _____ is a hole in the coloured iris which changes sizes to control the amount of light let through
pupil
153
the pupil sends light to the ?
lens
154
muscles control the shape of this part of the eye so that it can bend light and change its thickness before sending it to the retina
lens
155
what is the final destination for light that contains rods and cones?
retina
156
both the lens and cornea can bend light but only this one can accomadate for light
lens
157
the shape of the lens is a) flatter b) rounder when focusing on distant objects
a) flatter
158
the shape of the lens is a) flatter b) rounder when focusing on nearby objects
b) rounder
159
what is myopia?
see close, not far--nearsighted. eyes are too long, images will be focused in front of the retina.
160
what is hyperopia?
see far, not close--farsighted. eyes too short, images focused behind retina.
161
a) cones b)rods detect colour, daylight and have high visual acuity
cones
162
these photoreceptor cells are of the highest concentration in the fovea
cones
163
a) cones b)rods are good in low-light conditions, have low visual acuity and higher sensitivity
rods
164
these photoreceptor cells are found primarily in the periphery
rods
165
these cells send transduced information to retinal ganglion cells (RGCs)
bipolar cells
166
RGC's make up which nerve
optic nerve
167
no photoreceptors are found in this location of the retina
blind spot
168
T or F: different cones have different sensitivities to wavelengths which is how colour gets perceived
true
169
which system explains how staring at one colour too long will fatigue the relevant cones hence producing another colour
colour opponent system
170
the "what pathway" is used to see an objects shape and identity. which steam is it related to? ventral or dorsal?
ventral
171
the "where pathway" is used to see where an object is/how it is moving. which steam is it related to? ventral or dorsal?
dorsal
172
guiding actions such as aiming, reaching, tracking with eyes are controlled by which pathway/stream
where pathway, dorsal stream
173
the brains capacity to perform many activities at the same time while still having a unified representation is known as?
parallel processing
174
the perceptual mistake where the brain incorrectly combines features from multiple objects in known as?
illusory conjunction
175
T or F: the feature-integration theory says that focused attention isn't necessary to detect individual features of a stimulus but attention is required to bind the individual features together
true
176
active and conscious processing of particular information is known as?
attention
177
modular view says what about brain areas and detection?
different parts of the brain detect different stimulus
178
T or F: conceptual knowledge is having to have meaning/facts associated with an object in order to recognize the object as a whole
true
179
perceptual constancy is what?
even as aspects of sensory signals change, perception remains constant
180
being able to recognize that someone is still themselves, even when they dress differently, is associated with what?
perceptual constancy
181
if an actor changes how they look so well that you no longer can tell they're who they are, this is associated with what?
perceptual contrast
182
T or F: being able to group/segregate features to create whole organized objects in a meaningful way is known as perceptual organization
true
183
______: when the visual system selects the simplest interpretation
simplicity
184
______: when the visual system fills in missing elements to create complete objects
closure
185
______: when the visual system perceives objects together because their edges/contours are in the same orientation with good continuation
continutity
186
______: when the visual system perceives objects as being together since they have similar colour/shape
similarity
187
______: when the visual system groups objects together since they're close to one another
proximity
188
______: when the visual system groups objects moving together as part of a single object
common fate
189
______: when the visual system perceives movement as a result of alternating signals in rapid succession in different locations
apparent motion
190
when viewing with only one eye, is it monocular or binocular depth cues that are used?
monocular
191
linear perspective, texture gradient, interposition and relative height in image are are examples of which depth cue?
monocular depth cue
192
_____: is when one object is perceived as closer because it partly blocks another object
interposition
193
this region at the back of the temporal love is specialized for perception of visual motion
MT
194
when people fail to detect changes to visual details of a scene, this is known as what?
change blindness
195
when people fail to perceive objects that are not the focus of attention, this is known as?
inattention blindess
196
what are changes in air pressure over time
sound waves
197
the frequency of a sound wave is perceived as what
pitch
198
how high or low a sound is is?
pitch
199
the amplitude of a sound wave is perceived as what?
loudness
200
this allows people to differentiate between two sources with the same pitch and loudness
timbre
201
the mixture of sound wave frequencies is known as?
complexity
202
the outer ear consists of?
pinna, auditory canal and eardrum
203
this part of the outer ear vibrates with sound waves
ear drum
204
the middle ear consists of?
ossicles and oval window
205
the air-filled chamber with ossicles transmits and amplifies vibrations from the eardrum to the ?
oval window
206
this part of the ear transduces sounds into neural impulses
inner ear
207
what is the name of the fluid-filled spiral tube in the inner ear?
cochlea
208
inside the cochlea there is what type of membrane?
basilar
209
T or F: at low frequency, the basilar membrane has a wide floppy apex
true
210
T or F: at high frequency, the basilar membrane has a stuff base by the oval window
true
211
as the basilar membrane moves, cochlear fluid moves and stimulates ______ which are auditory receptor neurons that are then sent to the auditory nerve
inner hair cells
212
in the ear, which stream locates the source of a sound
where
213
in the ear, which stream identifies what the sound is?
what
214
this code allows the brain to use information about relative activity of hair cells
place code
215
this code allows the brain to use the timing of action potentials in the auditory nerve to determine pitch
temporal code
216
T or F: binaural location cues makes high-frequency sounds more intense in closer ear
true
217
damages to eardrum or ossicles results in which type of hearing loss?
conductive
218
damage to the cochlea, hair cells or auditory nerve results in which type of hearing loss?
sensorineural
219
which type of hearing loss is associated with decreased sensitivity, decreased acuity and occurs due to age (for ex)
sensorineural hearing loss
220
in a cochlear implant, are the microphone, processor and transmitter external or implanted?
external
221
in a cochlear implant, is the receiver implanted or external?
implanted
222
this type of perception is active when exploring the environment by touching/grasping objects with hands
haptic perception
223
the patch of skin a receptor is sensitive to is known as?
tactile receptive field
224
these types of receptors are nerve fibres that sense cold and warmth
thermoreceptors
225
in touch sensation, which system is associated with the properties of surfaces and objects?
what
226
in touch sensation, which system is associated with information about location in external space being touches or location on body?
where
227
which axon (fast-acting A-delta or slow-acting C) transmit an initial sharp pain?
fast-acting A-delta
228
which axon (fast-acting A-delta or slow-acting C) transmit longer-lasting dull pain?
slow-acting C
229
which axon (fast-acting A-delta or slow-acting C) has less myelin?
slow-acting C
230
what are the two pain pathways?
somatosensory cortex and motivational and emotional centres
231
this pain pathway identifies where and what the pain is
somatosensory cortex
232
this pain pathway is related to unpleasantness and the desire to escape pain
motivational and emotional centres
233
what sort of pain is when pain to internal areas cause pain on external areas due to a shared nerve cell in the spinal cord?
referred pain
234
which theory explains how signals arriving from pain-receptors can be stopped via feedback from the skin or brain?
gate-control theory
235
what is proprioception?
sense of body position
236
this system, 3 semicircular canals & adjacent organs next to the cochlea in the inner ear helps in maintaining balance
vestibular system
237
a mismatch between vision and vestibular information results in what?
motion sickness
238
smell is associated with which type of information?
olfactory
239
this is the mucous membrane along the top of the nasal cavity
oflactory epithelium
240
the oflactory epithelium contains which type of receptor cells?
olfactory receptor neurons (ORNS)
241
groups of ORNs sensitive to the same odourant send axons from the olfactory epithelium to where?
olfactory bulb
242
the ability to detect odours is?
olfactory sensitivity
243
the ability to discriminate up to 1 trillion odours is what?
olfactory acuity
244
the tongue is covered in _____ that contain taste buds
papillae
245
how many tase receptor cells are there per taste bud?
50-100
246
taste receptor tips are known as?
microvilli
247
50% of ppl report bitterness
tasters
248
25% of ppl report no bitterness
nontasters
249
25% of ppl report super duper bitterness
supertasters
250
this group of tasters are at a risk of colon cancer and decreased risk of cardiovascular disease
supertasters
251
this is the contribution made by receptors in the mouth
taste
252
taste and smell together makes the perception of what
flavour
253
the primary gustatory cortex, primary olfactory cortex and the mouth region of the somatosensory cortex are sensitive to what from food?
odours
