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MT Laws Flashcards

1
Q

RA, approval date, president, # of sections for Philippine Medical Technology Act of 1969

A

RA 5527; June 21, 1969; Ferdinand E. Marcos; 32

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2
Q

Senate Bill number of Medical Technology Act of 2011

A

Senate Bill 2722

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3
Q

Identify whether the ff can be done only be medtech or can be done by other professionals as well:

  1. Research involving human beings or animals requiring the use of or application of Medical Technology knowledge and procedures
  2. Parasitologic, bacteriologic, mycologic, virologic or other microbiologic techniques
  3. Phlebotomy, collection, processing or preservation of spx
  4. Clinical lab quality control
  5. Blood banking procedures and techniques or other blood transfusion services
  6. Examination of tissues, secretions and excretions of the human body and other bodily fluids
  7. Preparations and standardization of rgts, stds, stains or others
  8. Histopathologic or cytotechnologic techniques
  9. Examination of tissues, secretions and excretions of the human body and other bodily fluids
A
  1. Can be done by non medtech
  2. Medtech only
  3. Can be done by non medtech
  4. Can be done by non medtech
  5. Medtech only
  6. Medtech only
  7. Can be done by non medtech
  8. Medtech only
  9. Medtech only
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4
Q

The minimum required medtech course is ____ yrs including ____ mos of internship

A

4 yrs; 12 mos

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5
Q

Who should become the chairman of Board of examiners for medtech?

A

Pathologist appointed by the president of Phils from a list submitted by the Philippine Society of Pathologists

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6
Q

Who can become the 2 members of the Board of examiners for medtech?

A

Medtechs appointed by the president of Phils from a list submitted by PAMET

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7
Q

How long is the term of the board of examiners?

A

3 yrs w/ maximum of 1 reappointment

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8
Q

Current board members and chairman

A

Chairman: Marilyn A. Cabal-Barza

Members: Marilyn R. Atienza, Marian M. Tantingco

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9
Q

Fill in the blanks:

“Qualifications of Examiners:

  1. Filipino citizen
  2. Good moral character
  3. Qualified _______ /________ (profession)
  4. Been in the practice of lab med or medtech for _____ prior to appointment
  5. Not a faculty member for _____ or have any pecuniary interest in an institution”
A

Pathologist / RMT
At least 10 yrs
At least 2 yrs

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10
Q

No person shall practice MT w/o COR unless:

A

Duly registered physician, MT from other countries including professor, MT in the service of US armed force

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11
Q

Qualification for examination

A

Good health, good moral character, completed 4-year course in BS Med Tech or BS Public Health

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12
Q

General average needed to pass board exam

A

75%

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13
Q

board exam: No rating below ____ in any major subject

A

50%

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14
Q

board exam: Has not failed in at least ___% of the subjects computed according to relative weight

A

60%

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15
Q

Board exam: no further exam after ___ (how many) fails unless:

_____ (how long) refresher course in an accredited school
_____ (how long) post-grad training in an accredited lab

A

3 fails

12-month

12-month

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16
Q

Medical lab technician: failed to pass the board exam but obtained a general rating of ____%

A

70%

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17
Q

Refusal to issue certificate:

A

Immoral or dishonorable conduct, unsound mind, incurable communicable dse

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18
Q

Administrative investigative-revocation or suspension of certificates: conducted by at least ____ (how many) board members and ____ (how many) legal officer - together they are called the ______

A

2 board members; 1 legal officer; hearing committee

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19
Q

Unanimous vote; permanent

A

Revocation

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20
Q

Majority vote; up to 2 yrs

A

Suspension

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21
Q

The decision of revocation / suspension is final after ____ (how long)

A

30 days

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22
Q

Replaced the Council of Med Tech Educ

A

Technical Panel in Medical Technology Education (TPMTE)

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23
Q

Chairman of TPMTE

A

President of PASMETH

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24
Q

TPMTE should be composed of:

A

President of PASMETH as chairman, president of PAMET, representative from Board of MedTech / PRC, representative from PAMET and PASMETH

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25
Q

Student instructor ratio in lec and lab

A

40: 1 (lec)
20: 1 (lab)

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26
Q

Amendments to RA 5527 and enumerate the amended sections

A

RA 6138 - 16, 21, 22

PD 498 - 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 16, 17, 21, 29

PD 1534 - 3, 8, 13

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27
Q

Blood Bank Act of 1956 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections

A

RA 1517
June 16, 1956
Ramon Magsaysay
7 sections

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28
Q

National Blood Services Act of 1994 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections

A

RA 7719
May 5, 1994
Fidel V. Ramos
15

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29
Q

Blood bank that exists for profit

A

Commercial blood bank

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30
Q

Individual included in the list of qualified voluntary blood donors ready to donate blood when needed in his/her community

A

Walking blood donor

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31
Q

True or false: blood banks/centers may collect service fees not greater than the maximum prescribed by the DOH

A

True

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32
Q

Blood which have been proven contaminated with blood transfusion transmissible disease must be disposed within ____. Failure to do so leads to what punishment?

A

48 hrs; imprisonment up to 10 yrs

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33
Q

AO no. of the Rules and Regulations Governing the Regulation of Blood Service Facilities

A

2008-0008

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34
Q

Identify which BSFs can perform the ff:

  1. Advocacy and promotion of voluntary blood donation and healthy lifestyle
  2. Provision of whole blood and pRBC only
  3. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and pRBC
  4. Compatibility testing if hospital based
  5. Recruitment, retention and care of voluntary blood donors
  6. Screening and selection of voluntary blood donors
  7. Conduct of health educ and counseling services
  8. Collection of blood (mobile or facility-based) from qualified voluntary blood donors
  9. Storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components obtained from a BC (compat testing of red cell, direct coombs, Ab screen, investigation of transfusion rxns, assist the HBTC in the conduct of post-transfusion surveillance)
  10. Transport of blood to BC for testing and processing
  11. Testing of units of blood for TTIs (transfusion transmitted infections)
  12. Processing and provision of blood components
  13. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of units of whole blood and/or blood products to hospitals and other health facilities
A
  1. BS, BCU, BB, BC
  2. BS
  3. BS, BB, BC
  4. BS, BCU, BB
  5. BCU, BC
  6. BCU
  7. BCU, BC
  8. BCU, BC
  9. BB
  10. BCU
  11. BC
  12. BC
  13. BC
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35
Q

Organ Donation Act of 1991 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections

A

RA 7170, Jan 7, 1992, Corazon Aquino, 19 sections

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36
Q

Decreased individual, includes a still-born infant or fetus

A

Decedent

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37
Q

Makes a legacy of all or part of his body

A

Testator

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38
Q

Individual authorized to donate all or part of the body of a decedent

A

Donor

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39
Q

Irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory fxns or of all fxns of the brain and brain stem

A

Death

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40
Q

Any individual (the testator) who is at least ____ yrs of age and of sound mind may execute a legacy by writing a will or through other documents

A

18

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41
Q

Arrange the ff according to the order of property of a person who may execute a donation

Son/daughter of legal age, 
brother or sister of legal age, 
spouse, 
either parent, 
guardian over the person of the decedent at time of death
A
  1. Spouse
  2. Son or daughter of legal age
  3. Either parent
  4. Brother or sister of legal age
  5. Guardian over the person of the decedent at a time of death
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42
Q

Death must be diagnosed separately and certified by _____

A

2 qualified physicians

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43
Q

Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 RA, approval date, president, number of articles and sections

A 
RA 8504
Feb 13, 1998
Fidel V Ramos
9 articles
52 sections
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44
Q

Individual being tested does not reveal his or her true identity

A

Anonymous testing

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45
Q

Imposed testing, lack of consent

A

Compulsory testing

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46
Q

Finding and counseling the sexual partner(s) of a person diagnosed of STD

A

Contact tracing

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47
Q

HIV window period refers to the period of time, usually lasting from ____ to ____ during which an infected individual will test negative upon HIV testing but can actually transmit the infection

A

2 wks to 6 mos

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48
Q

Agent or device used to prevent transmission of a disease

A

Prophylactic

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49
Q

EO number of Family Code of the Phils

A

209

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50
Q

Comprehensive HIV/AIDS monitoring program established under the DOH to determine and monitor the magnitude and progression of HIV infection in the Phils

A

AIDSWATCH

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51
Q

Shall be the central advisory, planning, and policy-making body for the comprehensive and integrated HIV/AIDS prevention and control program in the Phils

A

PNAC (Philippine National AIDS Council)

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52
Q

PNAC was created by virtue of EO ____ dated ____

A

EO 39

Dec 3, 1992

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53
Q

PNAC consists of how many members

A

26

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54
Q

Newborn Screening Act of 2004 RA, approval date, president, number of articles and sections

A 
RA 9288
April 7, 2004
Gloria M Arroyo
5 articles
19 sections
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55
Q

Monitoring of a newborn with a heritable condition to ensure compliance with medicine and dietary prescriptions

A

Follow-up

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56
Q

Locating a newborn with a possible heritable condition to confirm diagnosis and provide treatment if appropriate

A

Recall

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57
Q

A newborn is defined as:

A

Child from time of delivery to 30 days old

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58
Q

Newborn screening reference center:

A

office under the national institute of health (NIH) in UP Manila

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59
Q

A newborn that must be placed in ICU must be tested for newborn screening by _____

A

7 days

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60
Q

True or False: newborn screening is compulsory

A

False. Parents/guardian may refuse testing

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61
Q

Enumerate the 6 parameters of newborn screening program in the philippines

A

PKU, galactosemia, congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), congenital hypothyroidism (CH), G6PD deficiency, MSUD

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62
Q

Most common IEM in the Phils

A

MSUD

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63
Q

MSUD was added through DOH memorandum No. _______, dated _______

A

2015-0154

May 15, 2012

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64
Q

Student instructor ratio in lec and lab

A

40: 1 (lec)
20: 1 (lab)

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65
Q

Amendments to RA 5527 and enumerate the amended sections

A

RA 6138 - 16, 21, 22

PD 498 - 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 11, 13, 16, 17, 21, 29

PD 1534 - 3, 8, 13

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66
Q

Blood Bank Act of 1956 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections

A

RA 1517
June 16, 1956
Ramon Magsaysay
7 sections

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67
Q

National Blood Services Act of 1994 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections

A

RA 7719
May 5, 1994
Fidel V. Ramos
15

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68
Q

Blood bank that exists for profit

A

Commercial blood bank

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69
Q

Individual included in the list of qualified voluntary blood donors ready to donate blood when needed in his/her community

A

Walking blood donor

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70
Q

True or false: blood banks/centers may collect service fees not greater than the maximum prescribed by the DOH

A

True

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71
Q

Blood which have been proven contaminated with blood transfusion transmissible disease must be disposed within ____. Failure to do so leads to what punishment?

A

48 hrs; imprisonment up to 10 yrs

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72
Q

AO no. of the Rules and Regulations Governing the Regulation of Blood Service Facilities

A

2008-0008

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73
Q

Identify which BSFs can perform the ff:

  1. Advocacy and promotion of voluntary blood donation and healthy lifestyle
  2. Provision of whole blood and pRBC only
  3. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and pRBC
  4. Compatibility testing if hospital based
  5. Recruitment, retention and care of voluntary blood donors
  6. Screening and selection of voluntary blood donors
  7. Conduct of health educ and counseling services
  8. Collection of blood (mobile or facility-based) from qualified voluntary blood donors
  9. Storage and issuance of whole blood and blood components obtained from a BC (compat testing of red cell, direct coombs, Ab screen, investigation of transfusion rxns, assist the HBTC in the conduct of post-transfusion surveillance)
  10. Transport of blood to BC for testing and processing
  11. Testing of units of blood for TTIs (transfusion transmitted infections)
  12. Processing and provision of blood components
  13. Storage, issuance, transport and distribution of units of whole blood and/or blood products to hospitals and other health facilities
A
  1. BS, BCU, BB, BC
  2. BS
  3. BS, BB, BC
  4. BS, BCU, BB
  5. BCU, BC
  6. BCU
  7. BCU, BC
  8. BCU, BC
  9. BB
  10. BCU
  11. BC
  12. BC
  13. BC
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74
Q

Organ Donation Act of 1991 RA, approval date, president, nos. of sections

A

RA 7170, Jan 7, 1992, Corazon Aquino, 19 sections

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75
Q

Decreased individual, includes a still-born infant or fetus

A

Decedent

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76
Q

Makes a legacy of all or part of his body

A

Testator

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77
Q

Individual authorized to donate all or part of the body of a decedent

A

Donor

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78
Q

Irreversible cessation of circulatory and respiratory fxns or of all fxns of the brain and brain stem

A

Death

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79
Q

Any individual (the testator) who is at least ____ yrs of age and of sound mind may execute a legacy by writing a will or through other documents

A

18

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80
Q

Arrange the ff according to the order of property of a person who may execute a donation

Son/daughter of legal age, 
brother or sister of legal age, 
spouse, 
either parent, 
guardian over the person of the decedent at time of death
A
  1. Spouse
  2. Son or daughter of legal age
  3. Either parent
  4. Brother or sister of legal age
  5. Guardian over the person of the decedent at a time of death
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81
Q

Death must be diagnosed separately and certified by _____

A

2 qualified physicians

82
Q

Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998 RA, approval date, president, number of articles and sections

A 
RA 8504
Feb 13, 1998
Fidel V Ramos
9 articles
52 sections
83
Q

Individual being tested does not reveal his or her true identity

A

Anonymous testing

84
Q

Imposed testing, lack of consent

A

Compulsory testing

85
Q

Finding and counseling the sexual partner(s) of a person diagnosed of STD

A

Contact tracing

86
Q

HIV window period refers to the period of time, usually lasting from ____ to ____ during which an infected individual will test negative upon HIV testing but can actually transmit the infection

A

2 wks to 6 mos

87
Q

Agent or device used to prevent transmission of a disease

A

Prophylactic

88
Q

EO number of Family Code of the Phils

89
Q

Comprehensive HIV/AIDS monitoring program established under the DOH to determine and monitor the magnitude and progression of HIV infection in the Phils

90
Q

Shall be the central advisory, planning, and policy-making body for the comprehensive and integrated HIV/AIDS prevention and control program in the Phils

A

PNAC (Philippine National AIDS Council)

91
Q

PNAC was created by virtue of EO ____ dated ____

A

EO 39

Dec 3, 1992

92
Q

PNAC consists of how many members

93
Q

Water Analysis AO number

A

AO 31 s. 1979

94
Q

Water analysis labs should be under the supervision of

A

Licensed sanitary engineer

95
Q

In areas w/o a licensed sanitary engineer, the ff may provisionally supervise water analysis operation

A

Licensed chemist, med tech, pharmacist

96
Q

Licensed chemist, med tech, pharmacist may supervise water analysis in the absence of licensed sanitary engineer. However, they should have at least _____

A

At least 3 yrs training and experience in a water analysis lab

97
Q

Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 RA number, approval date, president, articles and sections

A 
RA 9165
January 23, 2002
Gloria M Arroyo
13 articles
102 sections
98
Q

RA 9165 repeals ____

A

RA 6425 The Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972

99
Q

The RA 6425 approval date, president, number of articles and sections

A

March 30, 1972
Ferdinand Marcos
10 articles
40 sections

100
Q

Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs

A

Clandestine Lab

101
Q

Where dangerous drugs are administered, delivered, stored, distributed, sold or used

A

Den, dive, resort

102
Q

Organized grp of 2 or more person joining together to commit offense of RA 6125

A

Drug syndicate

103
Q

Person who consents to the unlawful acts of RA 6125 and prevents the arrest of violators

A

Protector / coddler

104
Q

Person who sells, trades, administers, dispenses, delivers dangerous drugs

105
Q

Responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of all provisions in this act

A

PDEA (philippine drug enforcement agency)

106
Q

Marijuana other names

A

Cannabis, indian hemp

107
Q

Shabu other names

A

Ice, meth, methamphetamine hydrochloride

108
Q

Ecstasy other names

A

MDMA (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)

109
Q

Mandatory drug testing or random drug testing

  1. Applicants for driver’s license
  2. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
  3. applicants for firearms license and permit to carry firearms outside of residence
  4. officers and members of the military, police, and other law enforcement agencies
  5. Officers and employees of public and private offices whether domestic or overseas
  6. candidates for public office, persons with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of imprisonment of not less than 6 yrs and 1 day
  7. persons apprehended or arrested for violating RA 9165
A
  1. Mandatory
  2. Random
  3. Mandatory
  4. Mandatory
  5. Random
  6. Mandatory
  7. Mandatory
110
Q

National reference lab for environmental and occupational health, toxicology, micronutrient assays, and associated social problems related to drug abuse and malnutrition

A

East Avenue Medical Center

111
Q

Classification of drug testing lab

  1. Ownership
  2. Institutional character
  3. Service capability
A
  1. Govt or private
  2. Institution-based or freestanding
  3. Screening lab or confirmatory lab
112
Q

Floor area and work area of screening lab for drug testing

A

Floor area of at least 20 sq meters

Work area of 10 sq meters with exhaust fan, sink, and storage cabinet

113
Q

Floor area and work area of confirmatory lab for drug testing

A

Floor area: at least 60 sq meters

Work area: 30 sq meters with exhaust fan, stock room and instrumentation room

114
Q

Screening and confirmatory labs for drug testing must have an area that can acommodate at least _____ at a time, handwashing facility, toilet facility and stall for collection of spx

115
Q

Accredits drug testing labs

116
Q

Screening lab for Drug testing is supervised by ____

A

Licensed physician

117
Q

Maximum drug testing screening labs in an area

A

10 labs within 5 Km

118
Q

If the drug testing lab is a part of a clincal lab, it may be headed by

A

Licensed physician, chemist, MT, pharmacist, or chem eng

119
Q

Confirmatory lab for drug testing should be supervised by

A

Licensed physician or licensed chemist with a master’s degree and 2 yrs experience

120
Q

Spx with confirmed positive drug test results which are not challenged _____ (how long) after receipt shall be discarded

121
Q

Spx for drug test may be kept for a maximum of ____ upon request

122
Q

Test results of drug test are valid for _____ (how long) from the date of issue

123
Q

PRC Modernization Act of 2002 RA, approval date, president, sections nos

A

RA 8981
Dec 5, 2000
Joseph E. Estrada
21

124
Q

Current commissioners of PRC

Chairman and commissioners

A

Chairman: Teofilo S. Pilando Jr
Commissioners: Yolanda D. Reyes, Jose Y. Cueto Jr

125
Q

PRC stands for

A

Professional Regulation Commission

126
Q

PRC was created by PD ____ and repealed by RA _____

A

PD 223

RA 8981

127
Q

PRC is headed by how many chairperson/s and how many commissioner/s

A

1 chairperson, 2 commissioners

128
Q

The chairperson and commissioners of PRC is appointed by ______ for a term of ______ (how long) with ______ (how many) reappointments

A

The president
7 yrs
No reappointment

129
Q

Chairperson and commissioners of PRC qualifications:

  1. Age
  2. At least _____ (how long) executive or management experience
A
  1. At least 40 yrs of age

2. At least 5 yrs

130
Q

PRC resolutions and executive orders:

  1. ______ delisting names of delinquent professionals from roll of registered professionals
  2. ______ removal of names from the annual roster for delinquency
  3. _______ admission of foreigners to the licensure exam
  4. ______ full computerization of licensure exam
  5. _______ non-admission of examinees arriving late during the licensure exam
A
  1. Res 217
  2. Res 428
  3. Res 323
  4. EO 200
  5. Res 2004-211
131
Q

Higher Education Act of 1994 RA, approval date, president, number of sections

A

RA 7722
May 18, 1994
Fidel V Ramos
21 sections

132
Q

CHED shall be the governing body for ______ and _____ education

A

Tertiary; graduate

133
Q

CHED memorandum orders

  1. Curriculum for the common 2-yr Associate in Health Science Educ (AHSE)
  2. Prohibiting Higher Educ Institutions (HEIs) from forcing their grads and graduating students to enroll in their own review centers and/or review centers of their preference
  3. Policies, standards, and guidelines for medtech educ
  4. Guidelines for the accreditation of clinical labs involved in the training of MLS/MT interns
  5. Policies, standards and guidelines for the BSMT/MLS program
A
  1. CMO 27 s 1998
  2. CMO 13 s 2006
  3. CMO 14 s 2006
  4. CMO 6 s 2008
  5. CMO 13 s 2017
134
Q

All tertiary clin labs that are licensed by the _____ can apply for accreditation with _____ as training labs for interns

135
Q

Renewal of accreditation for training labs happens every ___

136
Q

Intern should render _____ duty hours per week times _____ weeks per year for a total of _____ hours

137
Q

Continuing Professional Development Act of 2016

138
Q

Under resolution No. 2019-1146 there will be a transition period wherein:

  1. ______ are not covered by CPD requirement
  2. Neely licensed professionals are not covered by CPD requirement for _____ (how long)
  3. From ____ CPD units down to ____ CPD units
A
  1. Professional OFWs
  2. 1st renewal
  3. 45 to 15
139
Q

Oldest preserved Egyptian compilation of medical texts containing chapters on intestinal diseases , parasites, etc. It described 3 stages of hookworm infection

A

Ebers Papyrus

140
Q

The oldest known tests performed on body fluids was done on ____

141
Q

The father of medicine who described the four humors: blood, phlegm, yellow bile and black bile

A

Hippocrates

142
Q

Invented the optical microscope

A

Zacharias and Hans Janssen

143
Q

Regarded as the founding father of modern anatomic pathology

A

Marcello Malpighi

144
Q

Created the compound microscope and is considered the father of microbiology

A

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

145
Q

The first clin lab in the US

A

University of Michigan Hospital

146
Q

Opened a teaching lab at Bellevue Medical College and the first physician recruited to be a professor at the John Hopkins University

A

Dr. William Welch

147
Q

Wrote the book Clinical diagnosis: a manual of laboratory methods

A

James Campbell Todd

148
Q

Edited the book which was renamed clinical diagnosis and management by laboratory methods

A

John Bernard Henry

149
Q

Was the first to offer medical technology program in 1923

A

University of Minnesota

150
Q

Med tech was introduced by the ____ in the Phils

A

6th infantry division of the US army

151
Q

Where the first clin lab was built in the Phils

A

208 Quiricada St. Sta Cruz, Manila

152
Q

_____ reorganized the lab in Sta. Cruz, later named the _____

A

Dr. Alfredo Pio de Roda and Dr. Mariano Icasiano

Manila Public Health Laboratory

153
Q

Offered a training program for those interested to work as med technicians

A

Dr alfredo pio de roda and dr prudencia sta ana

154
Q

Created a formal syllabus for a 6 month training program

A

Dr sta ana

155
Q

The first 4 yr BS med tech program was offered by ____ and the ____

A

Philippine union college

Manila sanitarium

156
Q

Founder of medical technology educ in the phils; prepared the course curriculum and put up the 1st medical technology school in the phils

A

Mrs Willa Hilgert-Hedrick

157
Q

First grad of PUC in 1956 was _____ who became an OB-gyne

A

Dr Jesse Umali

158
Q

National org of all registered med tech

A

Philippine association of medical technologists (PAMET)

159
Q

Pamet was formed by ____ who is considered the father of pamet

A

Crisanto G Almario

160
Q

PAMET was born at 10 am at the _____ on _____

A

Manila Public Health Lab

Sep 15, 1963

161
Q

The first PAMET national convention was held in ____ on ____ (the year was placed in the PAMET logo)

A

FEU

Sep 20, 1964

162
Q

Core values of PAMET

A

Professionalism
Unity
Commitment
Excellence

163
Q

What is the meaning of each of the following parts of the PAMET logo?

  1. Circle
  2. Triangle
  3. Green
  4. Microscope and snake
  5. 1964
A
  1. Continuous involvement
  2. Love, respect and integrity
  3. Health
  4. Medical technology profession
  5. 1st PAMET election
164
Q

Identify the PAMET president:

  1. Emergence of the profession
  2. Legislative agenda
  3. Career advocacy
  4. Image building
  5. Educational enhancement
  6. Celebration of the profession
  7. Interdisciplinary networking
  8. Proactivism
  9. International leadership
  10. Organizational dynamism
  11. Empowerment
  12. Global perspective
  13. Golden celebration
  14. Professional recognition
A
  1. Charlemagne Tamondong
  2. Felix Asprer
  3. Angelina Jose
  4. Carmencita P. Acedera
  5. Venerable CV Oca
  6. Bernardo Tabaosares
  7. Shirley Fabian-Cruzada
  8. Marilyn R. Atienza
  9. Norma Chang
  10. Agnes Medenilla
  11. Rolando Puno
  12. Leila Florento
  13. Romeo Joseph Ignacio
  14. Nardito Moraleta
165
Q

Identify which PAMET president:

  1. Approval of RA 5527
  2. Philippine med tech week
  3. LABNEWS = official newsletter of PAMET
  4. Shortest term
  5. Longest term
  6. PAMET website
  7. PAMET mission-vision
  8. PAMET link = current newsletter of PAMET
  9. Beloved PAMET
  10. Revised code of ethics
  11. Soar higher through VOICE
  12. Research forum for professionals and students during med tech week
  13. Launching of “Alagang Safeguard, Alagang Nanay” ad campaign w/ P&G
  14. PAMET NEWS = 1st official newspaper
A
  1. Nardito Moraleta
  2. Bernardo Tabaosares
  3. Carmencita Acedera
  4. Angelina Jose
  5. Carmencita Acedera
  6. Shirley Fabian-Cruzada
  7. Shirley Fabian-Cruzada
  8. Norma Chang
  9. Carmencita Acedera
  10. Norma Chang
  11. Romeo Joseph Ignacio
  12. Leila Florento
  13. Agnes Medenilla
  14. Nardito Moraleta
166
Q

Identify which PAMET president:

  1. 1st lady president of PAMET
  2. First to serve two terms
  3. Monthly quiz tests
  4. Inclusion of hazard pay for med tech
  5. Monthly seminars for CPE
  6. Amendments to Teves Law regarding salaries of medical professionals
  7. 1st MT board exam was conducted by the 1st board of examiners
  8. PAMET was accredited as a bonafide professional org with the PRC
  9. PAMET was registered with the securities and exchange commission
  10. Approval of professional tax through the BIR
  11. Medtech prayer
A
  1. Angelina Jose
  2. Felix Asprer
  3. Venerable Oca
  4. Marilyn Atienza
  5. Venerable Oca
  6. Bernardo Tabaosares
  7. Nardito Moraleta
  8. Felix Asprer
  9. Bernardo Tabaosares
  10. Angelina Jose
  11. Norma Chang
167
Q

National organization of all registered schools of med tech in the Phils

A

Philippine Association of Schools of Medical Technology and Public Health (PASMETH)

168
Q

PASMETH was formed by ______ on _____

A

Dr serafin juliano and Dr gustavo reyes

On 1970

169
Q

The first pasmeth meeting was held in _____ (place) on _____ (date)

A

UST

June 22, 1970

170
Q

First pasmeth president

A

Dr gustavo reyes

171
Q

Current pasmeth president

A

Dean Bernard Ebuen

172
Q

1st official pamet newspaper

A

Pamet news

173
Q

Current newsletter of pamet

A

Pamet link

174
Q

Title of pamet hymn

A

Beloved pamet

175
Q

Music of beloved pamet was made by

A

Francis jerota pefanco

176
Q

Lyrics of beloved pamet was made by

A

Hector Gentapanan Gayares Jr

177
Q

Original version of MT code of ethics was made by ____

A

Nardito Moraleta

178
Q

Revised version of MT code of ethics was made by ____

A

Norma Chang

179
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Accept the ______ inherent to being a _____
A

Responsibilities

Professional

180
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Uphold the _____ and shall not participate in ______
A

Law

Illegal work

181
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Act in a strict spirit of _____ to all and in a spirit of _____ toward other members of the profession
A

Fairness

Brotherhood

182
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Accept _____ from more than one employer only when there is no ______
A

Employment

Conflict of interest

183
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Perform my task with full ______, absolute ______, and _______
A

Confidence

Reliability

Accuracy

184
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Share my ______ and ______ with my _______
A

Knowledge

Expertise

Colleagues

185
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Contribute to the ________ of the professional organization and other _______
A

Advancement

Allied health organizations

186
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Restrict my _____, ______, ______, and _____ within ______ limits.
A 
Praises
Criticisms
Views
Opinions
Constructive
187
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Treat any information I acquired in the course of my work as ______
A

Strictly confidential

188
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Uphold the _____ and ______ of my profession and conduct myself a reputation of ______, ______, and ______
A 
Dignity
Respect
Reliability
Honesty
Integrity
189
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Be dedicated to the use of clinical laboratory science to _____ and _____
A

Promote life

Benefit mankind

190
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

  1. Report any ______ of the above principles of the professional conduct to authorized agency and to the ______ of the organization
A

Violation

Ethics committee

191
Q

Fill in the blanks (code of ethics):

As I enter the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

….

To these principles, I hereby ______ and _______ to conduct myself at all times in a manner befitting the dignity of my _______.

A

Subscribe

Pledge

Profession

192
Q

An update entitled Philippine HIV and AIDS Policy Act

193
Q

RA 11166 was approved on ______ under president ______

A

Dec 20, 2018

Duterte

194
Q

Regarding RA 11166: refers to the legal principle that recognizes the capacity of some minors to consent independently to medical procedures, if they have been assessed qualified by health professionals to understand the nature of procedures and their consequences to make a decision on their own.

A

Mature minor doctrine

195
Q

RA 11166 mature minor doctrine lowers the age of consent to voluntary HIV testing from ____ to ____ yrs old

196
Q

PLHIV stands for:

A

Person living with HIV

197
Q

In RA 11166, the PNAC shall contain how many members?

198
Q

In RA 11166, the PNAC’s permanent chairperson shall be ____

A

The secretary of health

199
Q

Who is the current secretary of health and is therefore the current PNAC chairperson?

A

Dr. Francisco Duque III

200
Q

An update entitled Mental Health Act

201
Q

RA 11036 was approved on _____ under president _____

A

June 20, 2018

Duterte

202
Q

Recite the titles of the 32 sections of RA 5527

A
  1. Title
  2. Definition of Terms
  3. Council of Medical Technology Education, Its Composition
  4. Compensation and Traveling Expenses of Council Members
  5. Functions of the Council of Medical Technology Education
  6. Minimum Required Course
  7. Board of Examiners for Medical Technology
  8. Qualifications of Examiners
  9. Executive Officer of the Board
  10. Compensation of Members of the Board of Examiners for Medical Technology
  11. Functions and Duties of the Board
  12. Removal of Board Members
  13. Accreditation of Schools of Medical Technology and of Training Laboratories
  14. Inhibition Against the Practice of Medical Technology
  15. Examination
  16. Qualification for Examination
  17. Scope of Coverage and Examination
  18. Report of Rating
  19. Ratings in the Examination
  20. Oath Taking
  21. Issuance of Certificate of Registration
  22. Fees
  23. Refusal to Issue Certificate
  24. Administrative Investigation-Revocation or Suspension of Certificate
  25. Appeal
  26. Reinstatement, Reissue or Replacement of Certificates
  27. Foreign Reciprocity
  28. Roster of Medical Technologists
  29. Penal Provisions
  30. Separability Clause
  31. Repealing Clause
  32. Effectivity

MT Laws and Lab Management (2 decks)

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