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MT Laws and Lab Management > Lab Management > Flashcards

Lab Management Flashcards

1
Q

RA, approval date, president and revision of the Clinical Laboratory Act of 1966

A

RA 4688
June 18, 1966
Ferdinand E. Marcos
AO 27 s 2007

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2
Q

What are the types under the ff lab classifications?

  1. Ownership
  2. Function
  3. Institutional Character
  4. Service capability
A
  1. Govt or private
  2. Clin pathology or anatomic pathology
  3. Institution-based or freestanding
  4. Primary, secondary or tertiary
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3
Q

Identify which type of lab can performed the ff services:

  1. Routine hema
  2. Microbiology
  3. Special chem
  4. Routine chem
  5. Routine fecalysis
  6. Blood typing
  7. Crossmatching
  8. Gram staining / KOH
  9. Secondary category lab exam
  10. Primary category lab exam
  11. Routine urinalysis
  12. Qualitative platelet determination
  13. Quantitative platelet determination
  14. Immunology / serology
  15. Special hema
A
  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 3
  4. 2
  5. 1
  6. 1
  7. 2
  8. 2
  9. 3
  10. 2
  11. 1
  12. 1
  13. 2
  14. 3
  15. 3
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4
Q

Provides lab tests required for a particular service in institutions

A

Limited service capability

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5
Q

Identify whether the ff descriptions are for “leadership” or for “management”:

  1. A pattern of behaviors used to engage others to complete tasks in a timely and productive manner.
  2. Provides the “road” to get there.
  3. Uses certain talents to work with people to get things done.
  4. It requires an optimal mix of skilled personnel, dedicated people, and task-oriented ______ to achieve goal.
  5. Must be visionary and must set clear goals with strategic objectives.
  6. Used, in the most efficient manner, the human, financial, physical, and information resources available to an organization.
A
  1. Leadership
  2. Management
  3. Management
  4. Leadership
  5. Leadership
  6. Management
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6
Q

Leadership styles:

  1. Includes one or more employees in the decision-making process.
  2. All three styles are used depending on the situation.
  3. Leader dictates what is to be done and how it is performed.
  4. Leader confers the decision-making ability to the employees.
A
  1. Participative / democratic
  2. Combination
  3. Authoritative / autocratic
  4. Delegative
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7
Q

Theory stating that all individuals focus on the fundamental needs and once those are fulfilled, with progress to higher needs.

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

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8
Q

Enumerate the needs mentioned in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs from the bottom to top.

A

Physiological needs, safety needs, love and belonging, esteem, self-actualization

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9
Q

Which among the needs in Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, are considered as growth needs? How about deficiency needs?

A

Growth needs: self-actualization, esteem

Deficiency needs: love and belonging, safety needs, physiological needs

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10
Q

According to this theory, there are 5 managerial styles namely authoritarian, country club, impoverished, team and middle-of-the-road.

A

Robert Blake and Jane Mouton’s Managerial Grid

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11
Q

Identify the managerial style described:

  1. Low task and low concern for people; uses delegation as the primary management tool
  2. Low task-oriented with higher concern for people; uses reward to maintain discipline and encouragement
  3. Adequate concern for both people and production; balance between company goals and workers’ needs
  4. Highly task-oriented and high concern for people; leads by example
  5. Highly task-oriented with low concern for people; has little allowance for cooperation and collaboration
A
  1. Impoverished manager
  2. Country club manager
  3. Middle-of-the-road manager
  4. Team manager
  5. Authoritarian manager
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12
Q

Theory stating that employees base their satisfaction or dissatisfaction with work on hygiene factors and motivator factors.

A

Frederick Herzberg’s Motivator-Hygiene Theory

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13
Q

Identify whether the ff are under hygiene factors or motivator factors:

  1. Status
  2. Job security
  3. Advancement opportunity
  4. Wages
  5. Company policies
  6. Recognition
  7. Personal achievement
A
  1. Motivator
  2. Hygiene
  3. Motivator
  4. Hygiene
  5. Hygiene
  6. Motivator
  7. Motivator
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14
Q

Theory assuming that humans have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if they can.

A

McGregor’s Theory X

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15
Q

Theory assuming that humans can perceive their job as relaxing or normal and exercise their physical and mental efforts in an inherent manner.

A

McGregor’s Theory Y

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16
Q

Theory assuming that humans need to be controlled, forced, and entices by rewards.

A

McGregor’s Theory X

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17
Q

Theory assuming that managers adopt a decentralized, participative management style

A

McGregor’s Theory Y

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18
Q

Acronym PODC stands for:

A

Planning
Organizing
Directing
Controlling

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19
Q

Process of influencing people to attain predetermined objectives

A

Directing

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20
Q

Process of formulating objectives and determining the steps which will be employed in obtaining them

A

Planning

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21
Q

Process of structuring activities, materials, and personnel for accomplishing predetermined objectives

A

Organizing

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22
Q

Process of determining that everything is going according to plan

A

Controlling

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23
Q

Identify whether the ff is under planning, organizing, directing and controlling:

  1. Making SWOT analysis
  2. Benchmarking
  3. Reviewing current situation in the lab to ensure there are no unattended details
  4. Empowerment
  5. Coaching
  6. Formulating goal
  7. Formulating objective
  8. Reengineering
A
  1. Planning
  2. Organizing
  3. Controlling
  4. Directing
  5. Directing
  6. Planning
  7. Planning
  8. Organizing
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24
Q

SWOT acronym stands for:

A

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats

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25
Q

Answers the question “What is it for?”

A. Mission
B. Vision

A

A

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26
Q

Answers the question “what services do you offer?”

A. Mission
B. Vision

A

A

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27
Q

Long term goal

A. Mission
B. Vision

A

B

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28
Q

Areas to be improved

A. Strengths
B. Weaknesses
C. Opportunities
D. Threats

A

B

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29
Q

Potential problems/risks caused by external factors that your organization may face.

A. Strengths
B. Weaknesses
C. Opportunities
D. Threats

A

D

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30
Q

External factors that may contribute to your organization and can build up your strengths.

A. Strengths
B. Weaknesses
C. Opportunities
D. Threats

A

C

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31
Q

Areas you do well or advantages of your organization.

A. Strengths
B. Weaknesses
C. Opportunities
D. Threats

A

A

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32
Q

A type of plan described the day-to-day running of a company and includes single use plans or ongoing plans.

A

Operational planning

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33
Q

A type of plan described as: “plans made when something unexpected happens or when something needs to be changed”

A

Contingency planning

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34
Q

A type of plan aka backup plan

A

Contingency planning

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35
Q

A type of plan described as: focused, specific, short-term plans; supports strategic planning by breaking it down to actionable chunks

A

Tactical planning

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36
Q

A type of plan described as: “includes a high-level overview of the entire business; it is the foundational basis of the organization and will dictate long-term decisions”

A

Strategic planning

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37
Q

A type of plan that answers the question, “why things happen”?

A

Strategic planning

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38
Q

A type of plan that answers the question, “what is going to happen”?

A

Tactical planning

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39
Q

Identify each description whether it is a goal or an objective:

  1. Intangible and abstract
  2. Strategic
  3. Specific statements
  4. Defined short-term results or targets
  5. Tactical
  6. Tangible and measurable
  7. Broad/general statements
  8. Sets the long-term direction
A
  1. Goal
  2. Goal
  3. Objective
  4. Objective
  5. Objective
  6. Objective
  7. Goal
  8. Goal
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40
Q

SMART acronym stands for:

A

Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, time bound

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41
Q

Reorganizing work process in an organization and determining if more effective processes can be implemented

A

Reengineering

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42
Q

Best process in one organization is modified to fit similar processes in another organization; the process of measuring products, services, and practices against leaders in a field, allowing the identification of best practices that will lead to sustained and improved performance.

A

Benchmarking

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43
Q

Measurement of an organization’s products or services against specific standards for comparison and improvement

A

Benchmarking

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44
Q

What type of communication flow is described?

From superior to immediate subordinate to provide instruction.

A

Downward

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45
Q

What type of communication flow is described?

Between people on the same level of authority.

A

Lateral

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46
Q

What type of communication flow is described?

From subordinate to immediate supervisor to provide feedback

A

Upward

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47
Q

What type of communication flow is described?

Between people who are neither in the same dept nor same level of authority within the org

A

Diagonal

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48
Q

It allows the instilling of confidence and motivation into an employee about accomplishing a task.

A

Coaching

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49
Q

The employee has more “say-so” in how to accomplish a task.

A

Coaching

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50
Q

It allows an employee to determine the task and how to accomplish the task.

A

Empowerment

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51
Q

Employees are allowed to be creative and innovative to solve problems and to take risks without fear of admonishment for failing.

A

Empowerment

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52
Q

Is the supply, labor, and overhead money spent on a product or service

A

Cost

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53
Q

Cost aka

A

Expense

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54
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Routine charge that does not change with test production volume.

A

Fixed cost

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55
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Related to all components considered overhead or administrative, such as marketing/sales, insurance, proficiency testing, utility expenses, etc.

A

Indirect cost

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56
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Changes proportionally based on fluctuations in test volume and hours worked

A

Variable cost

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57
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Related to all components associated with performing the test

A

Direct cost

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58
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Examples are lab equipment, reagents, consumables, hands-on technologist, service contract, and quality control

A

Direct cost

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59
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Examples are rent and taxes

A

Fixed cost

60
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Examples are reagent usage, and regular and overtime costs

A

Variable costs

61
Q

Type of cost / expense:

not directly related to a billable test but are necessary for its production

A

Indirect cost

62
Q

Type of cost / expense:

Expenses that can easily be traced directly to an end product (billable test)

A

Direct cost

63
Q

These are physical factors within the environment that harms the musculoskeletal system such as repetitive movement and uncomfortable workstation design.

A

Ergonomic hazards

64
Q

Color coding of lab waste:

  1. Wet, non-infectious
  2. Radioactive
  3. Sharps and pressurized container
  4. Dry, non-infectious
  5. Infectious and pathological
  6. Chemical waste including heavy metals
A
  1. Green
  2. Orange
  3. Red
  4. Black
  5. Yellow
  6. Yellow with black band
65
Q

Sequence for putting on PPE

A

Gown - mask or respirator - goggles or face shield - gloves

66
Q

Chain of infection

A 
Infectious agent
Reservoir
Exit portal
Mode of transmission
Entry portal
Susceptible host
67
Q

From an animal or insect bite

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Vector

68
Q

Host touches the reservoir

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Direct contact

69
Q

Ingestion of a contaminated substance

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Vehicle

70
Q

Inhalation of dried aerosol particles circulating or attached to dust particles

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Airborne

71
Q

Host inhales material from the reservoir

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Droplet

72
Q

Remain suspended in air for a long period of time that can reach alveoli once inhaled

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Airborne

73
Q

Larger particles that causes them to not stay suspended in the air for too long and they do not reach the alveoli

What mode of transmission is described?

A

Droplet

74
Q

The best way to break the chai of infection since hand contact is the primary method of infection transmission.

A

Hand hygiene

75
Q

If hands are visibly soiled…

A

Use soap and water

76
Q

If hands are not visibly soiled…

A

Use alcohol based cleansers

77
Q

Handwashing is done for at least ____ (how long and in what position)

A

15 secs ; downward position

78
Q

All sharp objects must be disposed in a puncture-resistant, leak-proof container w/ what symbol?

A

Biohazard symbol

79
Q

When skin contact with chemicals occurs, flush the area with large amounts of ______ for _____(how long)

A

Water ; at least 15 mins

80
Q

Acid to water or water to acid?

A

Acid to water

81
Q

NFPA Hazard Identification System:

  1. Health hazard color
  2. Flammability hazard color
  3. Reactivity hazard color
  4. Other / specific hazard color
  5. Number signifying slight hazard
  6. Number signifying no or minimal hazard
  7. Number signifying extreme hazard
  8. Number signifying moderate hazard
  9. Number signifying serious hazard
A
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. Yellow
  4. White
  5. 1
  6. 0
  7. 4
  8. 2
  9. 3
82
Q

The amount of radiation exposure is a combination of ____, ____ and ____

A

Time, distance and shielding

83
Q

All electrical equipment must be grounded with ____

A

Three-pronged plugs

84
Q

When you witness an electric shock, what should you do first?

A

The electrical source must be removed immediately

85
Q

The acronym PASS stands for:

A

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

86
Q

The acronym RACE stands for:

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

87
Q

Classes of fire:

  1. Combustible cooking media
  2. Combustible metals
  3. Flammable liquids
  4. Ordinary combustibles
  5. Detonation (arsenal fire)
  6. Electrical equipment
A
  1. Class K
  2. Class D
  3. Class B
  4. Class A
  5. Class E
  6. Class C
88
Q

Identify each description whether it is for flammable or combustible:

  1. Have a flash point greater than or equal to 100 deg C
  2. Require a large ignition source to catch fire
  3. Burn at low temperatures
  4. Have a flashpoint less than 100 deg C
  5. Burn at temperatures usually above working temperatures
  6. Need a small ignition source to catch fire
A
  1. Combustible
  2. Combustible
  3. Flammable
  4. Flammable
  5. Combustible
  6. Flammable
89
Q

The minimum temp at which a liquid gives off a vapor in sufficient concentration to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid.

A

Flashpoint

90
Q

Flammable is defined as liquids having a flashpoint of _____ according to OSHA

A

Less than 100 deg C

91
Q

NFPA stands for?

A

National Fire Protection Association

92
Q

OSHA stands for?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

93
Q

Are standard approaches to quality leadership and management

A

Total quality management (TQM) and continuous quality improvement (CQI)

94
Q

Traditional or TQM thinking?

  1. Department focused
  2. System process
  3. Reactive systems
  4. Defects by workers
  5. Quality as expense
  6. Defects by system
  7. System process
  8. Organization focused
  9. Error-free quality
  10. We versus they relationship
A
  1. Traditional
  2. TQM
  3. Traditional
  4. Traditional
  5. Traditional
  6. TQM
  7. TQM
  8. TQM
  9. TQM
  10. Traditional
95
Q

TQM thinking strives to continually look for ways to ______ by empowering employees to assist in solving problems and getting them to understand their integral role within the greater system (universal responsibility).

A

Reduce errors (defect prevention)

96
Q

A structured process improvement program based on statistics and quantitative measurements with the single mantra of “improvement”.

A

Six sigma

97
Q

In six sigma, the number of ______ is measured.

A

Defects per million opportunities (DPMO)

98
Q

A ______ is anything that does not meet customer requirements, for example, a lab result error.

A

Defect

99
Q

The goal of six sigma.

A

To reduce the number of defects to near zero

100
Q

The acronym DMAIC stands for:

A

Define, measure, analyze, improve, control

101
Q

Identify the defects per million and its corresponding yield in the ff sigma levels:

  1. 3
  2. 1
  3. 6
  4. 5
  5. 2
  6. 4
  7. 7
A
  1. 66,800 ; 93.32%
  2. 690,000 ; 30.85%
  3. 3.4 ; 99.99966%
  4. 230 ; 99.977%
  5. 308,000 ; 69.15%
  6. 6,210 ; 99.38%
  7. Walang sigma level 7
102
Q

Was ultimately designed to reduce waste (nonvalued activities)

A

Lean process

103
Q

Lean process was first implemented in _____ by _____

A

in Japan by Toyota

104
Q

Is a set of requirements for quality management specific to medical labs at every level of the healthcare system

A

ISO 15189:2007

105
Q

Labs that meet or exceed the guidelines in ISO 15189:2007 can be ______, indicating a high level of confidence in the quality of services provided by that lab.

A

CAP-certified

106
Q

The acronym CAPA in ISO 15189:2007 stands for:

A

Corrective and Preventive Action

107
Q

Confirmatory testing lab of blood donor units.

A

RITM

108
Q

RITM stands for

A

Research Institute for Tropical Medicine

109
Q

National reference lab for environmental and occupational health, toxicology, micronutrient assays and assoc. social problems related to drug abuse and malnutrition.

A

EAMC

110
Q

National reference lab for hematology, immunohematology, immunopathology, automated urinalysis, and anatomic pathology for renal disease.

A

NKTI

111
Q

EAMC stands for

A

East Avenue Medical Center

112
Q

NKTI stands for

A

National Kidney and Transplant Institute

113
Q

The reference lab for clinical chemistry in the Phils

A

LCP

114
Q

LCP stands for:

A

Lung Center of the Philippines

115
Q

The newborn screening reference center that defines testing and follow-up protocols and maintains an external lab proficiency testing program for newborn screening centers.

A

NIH

116
Q

NIH stands for:

A

National Institute of Health

117
Q

National reference lab for HIV/AIDS, hepatitis, and sexually transmitted infections.

A

SACCL

118
Q

SACCL stands for:

A

STD/AIDS Cooperative Central Laboratory

119
Q

National reference lab for dengue, influenza, enteroviruses, measles and other viral exanthems, polio, TB and other mycobacteria, bacterial enteric dse, mycology, emerging dse, and malaria and other parasites.

A

RITM

120
Q

Bioethical principle:

“Do no harm” ; refrain from harming the px

A

Non-maleficence

121
Q

Bioethical principle:

Px have the right to accept/reject medical care after being provided enough information

A

Autonomy

122
Q

Bioethical principle:

“Do good” ; doing what is best for the px

A

Beneficence

123
Q

Bioethical principle:

Fair allocation of resources, px in similar situations must have access to the same care

A

Justice

124
Q

Suggested retention time for lab records:

  1. Blood bank QC records
  2. Accession logs
  3. Blood/fluid smear
  4. Urine
  5. Requisitions
  6. Maintenance/instrument logs
  7. Blood bank px records
  8. Blood bank donor/receipt records
  9. Quality control records
  10. Blood bank employee signatures/initials
  11. Clinical pathology test records
  12. Serum/CSF/body fluids
A
  1. 5 yrs
  2. 2 yrs
  3. 7 days
  4. 24 hrs
  5. 2 yrs
  6. 2 yrs
  7. 10 yrs
  8. 10 yrs
  9. 2 yrs
  10. 10 yrs
  11. 2 yrs
  12. 48 hrs
125
Q

Suggested retention time for lab records:

  1. Microbiology stained slides
  2. Cytology slides
  3. Paraffin blocks/slides
  4. FNA slides
  5. Flow cytometry plots/histograms
  6. Reports (surgical/cytology/nonforensic)
  7. Wet tissue
  8. Cytogenetic slides
  9. Surgical pathology (bone marrow) slides
  10. Cytogenetic reports/images
A
  1. 7 days
  2. 5 yrs
  3. 10 yrs
  4. 10 yrs
  5. 10 yrs
  6. 10 yrs
  7. 2 wks
  8. 3 yrs
  9. 10 yrs
  10. 20 yrs
126
Q

A device that follows instructions to work with electronic data based on user input.

A

Computer

127
Q

A collection of data identified by a specific name and grouped in relation to a specific purpose.

A

File

128
Q

Refers to programs (which are essentially sets of instructions) that allow computers or other devices to perform tasks.

A

Software

129
Q

Refers to physical components of an information system.

A

Hardware

130
Q

The basic unit of digital information

A

Bit

131
Q

The most common unit of measurement used in digital information.

A

Byte

132
Q

1 byte is how many bits?

A

8 bits

133
Q

Two main types of file

A

Applications and data

134
Q

Type of file that is “executable” files

A

Applications

135
Q

Type of file that is an image, text/document, or sound.

A

Data files

136
Q

Bit (the basic unit of digital information) is derived from ____

A

Binary digit

137
Q

Refers to the circuitry that serves as the main information processor, and is driven by clock pulses.

A

Central processing unit (CPU)

138
Q

The speed of the CPU is most commonly measured in _____

A

Gigahertz

139
Q

Refers to the physical chips on the motherboard that hold programs and data for rapid access by the CPU.

A

Memory

140
Q

Refers to a set of programs responsible for the management and coordination of activities and the sharing of resources.

A

Operating system

141
Q

A type of memory that is volatile (the contents of these chips are lost when the computer is turned off)

A

RAM

142
Q

A type of memory that is permanent

A

ROM

143
Q

RAM stands for?

A

Random access memory

144
Q

ROM stands for?

A

Read only memory

145
Q

Acts as a host for application programs

A

Operating system

MT Laws and Lab Management (2 decks)

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