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SAM II > MT I - PQ > Flashcards

MT I - PQ Flashcards

1
Q

Possible complication of IV drug application
1. Aspiration
2. Phelbits
3. Overhydration
4. neuritis

A
  1. Phelbits
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2
Q

Please choose the correct answer. The peripheral venous catheter is
1. Ianppropriate for blood sampling
2. Appropriate for monitoring central blood pressure
3. Inappropriate for fluid therapy with colloids
4. Appropriate for repeated IV application

A
  1. Appropriate for repeated IV application
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3
Q

The proper administration of the vaccination in the vaccine book contains at least
1. Date, vaccine sticker, signature of the vaccinating vet
2. Data, vaccine sticker, signature of the vaccinating vet, date of last deworming
3. Date, vaccine sticker, stamp of the vaccinating vet
4. Date, name and batch nr. of the vaccine, stamp and signature of the vaccinating vet

A
  1. Date, name and batch nr. of the vaccine, stamp and signature of the vaccinating vet
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4
Q

Which statement is true?
1. There is no valve in the upper port of the venous catheter, therfore we can take blood
from there
2. There is a valve at the upper port of the venous catheter, therefore we cannot take blood from there
3. There is no valve in the end port of the venous catheter, therefore we cannot connect infusion here
4. There is a valve in the end port of the venous catheter, therefore we can connect infusion here

A
  1. There is a valve at the upper port of the venous catheter, therefore we cannot take blood from there
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5
Q

What is prognathic bite?
1. Mandible is longer than maxilla
2. Maxilla is longer than mandible
3. Mandible is missing
4. Maxilla is missing

A
  1. Mandible is longer than maxilla
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6
Q

Prognathic bite is normal in:
1. Siamese cat, bulldogs, pugs
2. Persian cats, bulldogs, boxers
3. Pugs, griffons, springer spaniels
4. Boxer, sheltie, pulis, bulldogs

A
  1. Persian cats, bulldogs, boxers

(bulldog, boxer, persian, himalayan cat)

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7
Q

Thoracic ultrasonography can be performed favourably
1. In the presence of free thoracic fluid
2. By the increased air content of the lungs
3. In case of cardiac enlargement
4. During thinning of the mediastinum

A
  1. In the presence of free thoracic fluid
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8
Q

Which of the following is not a basic clinical value
1. Respiratory rate 2. Temperature
3. Capillary refill time
4. Ammonia value of the blood

A
  1. Ammonia value of the blood

(temperature, p, respiratory rate, capillary refill time, blood glucose)

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9
Q

Which site must the microchip be placed in Hungary?
1. Left side of the neck
2. Right side of the neck
3. Between the scapulae
4. Anywhere

A
  1. Left side of the neck
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10
Q

Which is the odd one out? Veins suitable for blood sampling in dogs
1. V. subclavia
2. V. cephalica antebrachii
3. V. jugularis externa
4. V. saphena lateralis

A
  1. V. subclavia
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11
Q

Which statement is true regarding macrocyclic lactones?
1. Selamectin is the strongest microfilacide drug
2. Ivermectin is the strongest microfilacide drug
3. Moxidectin is the strongest microfilacide drug
4. Mibemycin is the strongest microfilacide drug

A
  1. Mibemycin is the strongest microfilacide drug
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12
Q

A wound in a proliferative phase is very sensitive for
1. Infections
2. Excication
3. Temperature changes
4. 4. Contamination

A

Excication

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13
Q

Which instrument is not member of the thoracic surgical set?
1. Balfour rib splitter
2. De Bakey / Satinsky vascular occluder
3. Mixter dissector
4. Long Mayo-Hegar pliers

A
  1. Mixter dissector
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14
Q

During pneumothorax
1. The lungs are distending
2. The heart is elevated from the sternum
3. The heart overlies on the sternum
4. The borders of the intrathoracic organs are burred on the x-rays

A
  1. The heart is elevated from the sternum

(elevation of the heart from sternum, obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic organs, compression of the lung lobes)

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15
Q

Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer!
1. Detection of bleeding
2. Check mucous membranes and CRT
3. Check pulse rate and quality
4. Perform ECG and heart US examination

A
  1. Perform ECG and heart US examination
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16
Q

Characteristic of nasal foreign body
1. Spontaneously healing rhinitis
2. Requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment
3. Improper treatment can cause fungal rhinitis
4. Rhinoscopy can be delayed for months

A
  1. Improper treatment can cause fungal rhinitis
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17
Q

We give atropin injection during resuscitation
1. If there are no heart sound
2. If the heartrate is <5-10/10 seconds
3. Everytime 1-2 minutes after adrenalin administration
4. Everytime after intubation

A
  1. If there are no heart sound
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18
Q

Sign of mild dehydration
1. Sunken eyes
2. Tachy mucous membrane of oral cavity
3. Persistent skin tenting
4. Cold extremities

A
  1. Tachy mucous membrane of oral cavity
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19
Q

Last combinated core vaccine in the puppy vaccination schedule (according to Vaccination Guidelines - 2016) is recommended after the age of:
1. 16 weeks of age
2. 14 weeks of age
3. 12 weeks of age
4. 10 weeks of age

A
  1. 16 weeks of age
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20
Q

Which one is a normal temperature in cats?
1. 32
2. 34
3. 36
4. 38

A
  1. 38
    (38.5-39.2)

(38.5-39.2)

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21
Q

Clinical impression means the judgement of
1. Haemotology result
2. Efficacy of training
3. Behavior, grooming, nutritional state
4. Human-pet interaction

A
  1. Behavior, grooming, nutritional state
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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a congenital disease?
1. Hydrocephalus
2. Pancreatitis
3. Umbilical hernia
4. Cryptorchidism

A
  1. Pancreatitis
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23
Q

How long a nasogastric tube can be used after insertion?
1. 2 days
2. 5-10 days
3. 2-3 weeks
4. 1 month

A
  1. 5-10 days
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24
Q

In the early phases of healing, the most essential white blood cell in the wound is
1. The neutrophyl ganulocyte
2. The monocyte
3. The T-lymphocyte
4. The eosinophyl granulocyte

A
  1. The neutrophyl ganulocyte
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25
Q

The ideal frequency of breathing during resuscitation
1. 5-6/minute
2. 10-12/minute
3. 14-16/minute
4. 4. 20-22/minute

A
  1. 10-12/minute
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26
Q

Please mark the INCORRECT answer! Conditions of the respiratory system requiring emergency care
1. Complete airway-blockage
2. Open or tension pneumothorax
3. Severe pulmonary oedema
4. Tracheal hypoplasia

A
  1. Tracheal hypoplasia
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27
Q

Emergency care
1. Othematoma
2. Severe pneumothorax
3. Skin fold dermatitis
4. Tartar-covered theeth

A
  1. Severe pneumothorax
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28
Q

Which drugs are frequently used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
1. Pentobarbital
2. Epinephrine
3. Furosemide
4. Glucocorticoids

A
  1. Epinephrine (Adrenaline/epinephrine and atropine)
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29
Q

Which are the students not allowed to do in the intensive care unit?
1. Give insulin to the patient
2. Help collecting blood sample
3. Give IV medications to the patient
4. Treat patients with parvovirus

A
  1. Give insulin to the patient
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30
Q

The goal of maintenance infusion therapy is
1. Correct dehydration
2. Provide adequate calorie intake
3. Replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
4. Giving low potassium containing infusions

A
  1. Replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
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31
Q

Characteristic of feline asthma
1. Eosinophilia in 70% of the cases
2. Most common in persian cats
3. The cytology and microbiological examination of bronchoalveolar lavage is highly important in its diagnosis
4. All coughing cats have asthma

A
  1. The cytology and microbiological examination of bronchoalveolar lavage is highly important in its diagnosis

1. Eosinophilia in 70% of the cases (30%)
2. Most common in persian cats

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32
Q

The ideal frequency of chest compressions during resuscitation
1. 40-60/minute
2. 80-90/minute
3. 100-120/minute
4. 140-160/minute

A
  1. 100-120/minute
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33
Q

When suggested the start of the vaccinations of puppies?
1. 6-8 weeks
2. 8-10 weeks
3. 10-12 weeks
4. 12-14 weeks

A
  1. 8-10 weeks
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34
Q

The concept of wet wound care
1. Is obsolete / out of date
2. Can be used in the vascular phase of wound healing
3. Is based on the retention/keeping of wound secretions on the wound surface.
4. Is only applicable to chronic wounds

A
  1. Is obsolete / out of date
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35
Q

Which of the following sutures is absorbed?
1. Polypropylene (ProleneO)
2. Polyamide (SupramidÔ)
3. Both
4. Neither

A
  1. Neither
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36
Q

During lateral thoracotomy, which is the most superficial muscle layer to be cut? 1. m. latissimus dorsi
2. m. serratus dorsalis
3. m. serratus ventralis
4. m. cutaneus trunci

A
  1. m. cutaneus trunci
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37
Q

The ideal frequency of breathing during resuscitation
5. 6-7 / min
6. 20-30 / min
7. 30-40/min
8. 10-12 / min

A
  1. 10-12 / min
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38
Q

How many lung lobes does the dog have?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 8
A
  1. 6
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39
Q

The concept of wet wound treatment
1. Is obsolete
2. Can be used in the maturation phase of wound healing
3. Is based on the retention of wound secretion on the wound surface.
4. It can only be used for chronic wounds

A
  1. Is obsolete
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40
Q

Select the CORRECT answer.
The peripheral venous cannula
1. Not suitable for purchase stroke
2. Suitable for monitoring of central venous pressure
3. Not suitable for infusion therapy with colloids
4. Suitable for re-administration

A

4. Suitable for re-administration
The peripheral venous cannula
(fluid therapy, partial parenteral nutrition, repeated IV treatment, multiple blood samples)

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41
Q

Which is not the task of the students in the intensive care unit?
1. Treating the patients
2. Monitoring
3. Keep the environment clean
4. Consult with the owners

A
  1. Consult with the owners
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42
Q

Which sterilization procedure operates at the highest temperature of the following?
1. Autoclave
2. Gamma radiation
3. Ethylene dioxide
4. Heat sterilization

A

4. Heat sterilization (160 ̊C)
1. Autoclave (121-132 ̊C)
2. Gamma radiation
3. Ethylene dioxide (29-65 ̊C)

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43
Q

What drug/ medicine can be given intravenously?
1. Oil injection
2. Vaccine
3. Tissue irritant drugs
4. Long-acting antibiotic suspension

A
  1. Tissue irritant drugs
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44
Q

Select the CORRECT answer. Open-system blood collection
1. blood obtained by this method is suitable for blood testing
2. Suitable for receiving large amounts of blood
3. Is easy to perform / implement
4. No contamination

A
  1. Is easy to perform / implement
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45
Q

After a perivenous injection
1. The toes of the patient become swollen
2. A swelling develops at the injection site
3. The injection resistance drops
4. Apnea is frequent

A
  1. A swelling develops at the injection site (swelling, resistance, pain)
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46
Q

Characteristic of the foreign body in the nasal cavity:
1. In most cases, spontaneously healing rhinitis
2. Requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment
3. Improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis
4. Rhinoscopy can be postponed for months

A
  1. Improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis
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47
Q

Which statement is correct?
1. There is no valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we take blood from
here
2. There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot take
blood from here.
3. There is no valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so no infusion can
be given here
4. There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can infuse it here

A
  1. There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can infuse it here
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48
Q

Deferred primary closure
1. Can usually be performed on the first day after the injury.
2. Performed on deep wounds suspected of being infected
3. 3. Can be performed 2-5 days after the injury
4. Complete development of the developed granulation tissue is performed afterwards

A
    1. Can be performed 2-5 days after the injury
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49
Q

Which of the following surgical instruments is not part of the chest kit?
1. Balfour rib splitter
2. De Bakey / Satinsky vascular occluder
3. Mixter dissector
4. Long Mayo-Hegar pliers

A
  1. Mixter dissector
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50
Q

Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
1. Irritation of the nasopharynx is suspected in the background
2. Indicates a serious, life-threatening disease/illness
3. Usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
4. Indicates a laryngeal lesion

A
  1. Irritation of the nasopharynx is suspected in the background
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51
Q

When used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating properties
1. Iodine
2. Sugar
3. Silver
4. Paraffin

A
  1. Silver
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52
Q

Which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug administration?
1. M. quadriceps fermoris
2. M. gastrocnemius
3. M. tibialis cranialis
4. M. deltoideus

A
  1. M. quadriceps fermoris
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53
Q

According to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical condition of the grade III cathegory?
1. Severity of the stridor/stertor
2. Syncope
3. Duration of clinical signs
4. Grade III laryngeal collapse

A
  1. Syncope
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54
Q

Which nasal excision is recommended in brachycephalic dogs?
1. Dorsal rhinotomy
2. Ventral rhinotomy
3. Dorsal rhinotomy + sinus trepanation
4. Ventral rhinotomy + sinus trepanation

A
  1. Ventral rhinotomy
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55
Q

Which statement is correct?
1. Dogs have preformed antibodies to DEA L1 blood group antigens
2. The first transfusion is dangerous in dogs
3. Dogs have preformed antibodies to blood group antigens DEA
4. There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

A
  1. There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

(2nd transfusion is risky)

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56
Q

Which of the following statements is false about chest trachea and resection?
1. Aitala right 2-4. rib lateral thoracotomy
2. Up to 50% of the trachea can be removed in cavities
3. Up to 25% of the trachea can be removed
4. Only a pressure suture is used to establish tracheal anastomosis

A
  1. Up to 50% of the trachea can be removed in cavities

1. Aitala right 2-4. rib lateral thoracotomy (Rib 3-6)

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57
Q

In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS is
1. Milbemycin oxime
2. Moxidectin
3. Melarsomine
4. Ivermectin

A
  1. Melarsomine
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58
Q

What is the normal capillary filling time?
1. 1-2 sec
2. 2-4 sec
3. 45 sec
4. 6-7 sec

A
  1. 1-2 sec
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59
Q

The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary vaccination series of the pup
5. 16 weeks of age
6. 14 weeks of age
7. 12 weeks of age
8. 10 weeks of age

A
  1. 16 weeks of age
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60
Q

Which contact layer is best to cover the wound in the exudative phase?
1. Sponge-free
2. hydrogel
3. B. Iodine-paraffin pad C.
4. Calcium alginate

A
  1. Calcium alginate
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61
Q

Choose the correct answer!
About fluid therapy

A
  1. Colloidal infusions contain low molecular weight solute used to treat dehydration at a
    dose of 20 ml / kg / day
  2. Used in combination with crystalloid solutions in a patient who may cause
    coagulopathy
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62
Q

What is the correct frequency of chest compression during resuscitation?
1. 100-120 / min
2. 50-60 / min
3. 10-12 / min
4. 150-200 / min

A
  1. 100-120 / min
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63
Q

The study found that the cat had a prolonged skin tuberculosis due to hypovolaemic dehydrated hypovolaemic and dehydrated old age. “In case of hypovolaemic shock, the first choice for starting infusion therapy is

A
  1. 5% Glucose infusion
  2. HAES infusion
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64
Q

Choose the correct answer!
1. Colloidal infusions contain low molecular weight (High molecular weight)
2. Solute used to treat dehydration at doses less than 20 ml / kg / day in combination
with crystalloid solutions in patients who may cause coagulopathy

A

?

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65
Q

Which statement is true? Passive drain .. (one or two exit drain)
1. … can only be single-pass
2. … only double-pass ..
3. ..can only be double-pass .
4. Covered with a pressure bandage, the effectiveness of drainage can be increased

A
  1. Covered with a pressure bandage, the effectiveness of drainage can be increased
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66
Q

At what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs?

A

● 6-8 weeks

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67
Q

Which part of the canal cartilage is fixed during CAL surgery?
1. Processus muscularis
2. Processus cuneiformis
3. Processus corniculatus
4. None

A
  1. Processus muscularis
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68
Q

Prognathic bite is normal in:
1. Siamese cat, bulldog, pug persian
2. Cat, bulldog, boxer pug,
3. Griffon, springer spaniel boxer,
4. Sheltie, puli, bulldog

A

(bulldog, boxer, persian, himalayan cat)

  1. Cat, bulldog, boxer pug,
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69
Q

What is the correct marking method on the medical record at temperature?
1. Plus sign (+)
2. Arrow (->)
3. 38
4. Cross (x)

A
  1. 38
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70
Q

Where can I get blood to measure my blood sugar?
1. Ear skin
2. Oral Mucous membrane
3. Both
4. None

A
  1. Both
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71
Q

Bacterial pneumonia in dogs / cats is typical:
1. Usually primary disease
2. Is a good general condition
3. Cough is usually caused by a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
4. Patients are usually feverish, lively, have a good appetite

A
  1. Cough is usually caused by a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

1. Usually primary disease (secondary)

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72
Q

Which of the following cannot be administered subcutaneously?
1. Microchip
2. Crystalloid infusion
3. Hormone implant
4. Glucose-containing injections

A
  1. Glucose-containing injections
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73
Q

If a wound infection is suspected
1. Treat the surface with a concentrated cytotoxic agent B
2. Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed
3. The affected area should be surgically excised
4. The wound should be sprayed with rocking powder and covered with a bandage

A
  1. Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed
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74
Q

Characteristic of ingestion pneumonia:
1. Megaoesophageal or laryngeal dysfunction
2. The course of the disease is affected by the pH, volume and quality of the aspirated
content
3. Glucocorticoid and furosemide administration is not recommended
4. All

A
  1. All
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75
Q

Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal surgical instrument kit?
1. Balfour wound dressing
2. Doyen pliers
3. Finochietto wound dressing
4. Atraumatic forceps

A
  1. Finochietto wound dressing
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76
Q

Closed system blood collection
1. For mandatory blood count
2. For BHB measurement
3. For ammonia measurement
4. For fructosamine measurement

A
  1. For mandatory blood count
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77
Q

Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed
1. The affected area should be surgically excised
2. The wound should be sprayed with rocking powder
3. Covered with a dressing

A
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78
Q

The vena cava syndrome due to heartworm disease
1. Can be obviously diagnosed by echocardiography
2. Is the mild form of hearworm disease
3. Corresponds to Class 2 of heartworm diseases
4. Can be treated with moxidektin

A
  1. Can be obviously diagnosed by echocardiography
  2. Is the mild form of hearworm disease (late case)
  3. Corresponds to Class 2 of heartworm diseases (vena cava syndrome is class 4)
  4. Can be treated with moxidektin (surgery)
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79
Q

What is the normal blood glucose value?
1. 0.2-2.2 mmol/L
2. 3.3-6.2 mmol/L
3. 8-15 mmol/L
4. More than 15 mmol/L

A

2. 3.3-6.2 mmol/L

(5 (3-5.5) mmol/L)

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80
Q

How to start resuscitation if you are alone?
1. Check and clean the airways, intubate, start chest compressions
2. Check and clean the airways, intubate, call help
3. 3. Check and clean the airways, call help, start chest compressions
4. Start chest compressions, call help

A
  1. Start chest compressions, call help (chest compressions until help arrives)
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81
Q

General physical examination of the dog involves
1. The examination of skin, ears, evaluation of respiration, circulation by ultrasound
2. The examination of skin, ears, lymph nodes, chest, auscultation, abdominal palpation
3. The examination of respiration and circulation, checking chip number in the data base
4. Collecting samples for laboratory evaluation

A
  1. The examination of skin, ears, lymph nodes, chest, auscultation, abdominal palpation
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82
Q

Characteristic of laryngeal paralysis
1. Usually old, large breed dogs are affected and the background is usually idiopathic
2. Its background cannot be a viral infection
3. Can not be congenital
4. Endoscopy is unsuitable for diagnosis due to anaesthesia

A
  1. Usually old, large breed dogs are affected and the background is usually idiopathic
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83
Q

Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia
1. Can be caused by megaesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction
2. Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH, volume and quality of aspirated volume
3. Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for treatment
4. All above mentioned are true

A
  1. All above mentioned are true
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84
Q

Which of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2< 60 mmHg )
1. Dyspnea
2. Cyanosis
3. Hyperventilation
4. 4. Labial breathing

A
  1. Cyanosis
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85
Q

Characteristic of canine/feline pneumonia
1. Usually, a primary disease
2. Good general condition, cough
3. Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
4. Normal body temperature, good general condition, good appetite

A
  1. Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
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86
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis?
1. Ventral cervical approach is usually applied
2. In adults even the 50% of the tracheal length can be resected
3. In immature dogs even the 25% of the tracheal length can be resected
4. Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis

A
  1. Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis
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87
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the approximation of the wound edge?
1. Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - …
2. Interrupted vs. continuous
3. Appositional - inverting - tension-relieving …
4. simple - mattress - cruciate ligament …

A
  1. Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - …
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88
Q

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNeil al (JAVMA, 1997) analyzing cases with primary lung tumor removed pulmonary lobectomy?
1. The histopathologic grade of the lung tumor
2. Clinical signs
3. Regional lymph node metastases
4. Plus or minus chemotherapy

A
  1. Plus or minus chemotherapy
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89
Q

Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
1. Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
2. Indicates a serious, life- threatening illness
3. Usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
4. Indicates a laryngeal lesion

A
  1. Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
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90
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
1. Status of the thoracic wall
2. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
3. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
4. ARD

A
  1. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
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91
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?
1. Male
2. Bite trauma
3. Bodyweight <10 kg
4. Body weight <20 kg

A
  1. Body weight <20 kg
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92
Q

In which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated therapy?
1. Nasal foreign body abscess
2. Nasopharyngeal polyp
3. Chronic, conservative therapy-resistant rhinitis
4. Nasal adenocarcinoma

A
  1. Nasal adenocarcinoma
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93
Q

Which muscle / muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application?
1. M femoralis
2. M. gastrocnemius
3. M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus
4. Tibialis cranialis muscle

A
  1. M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus
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94
Q

Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?
1. Polypropylene (Prolene (tm))
2. Polyamides (Supramid (tm))
3. Both of them
4. None of them

A
  1. None of them

Absorbable:
Natural:
● Catgut
● Collagen
Synthetic:
● Polyglycolic acid (dexon, maxon)
● Polyglactin (Vicryl, monacryl)
● Polydioxanone (PDS)

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95
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?
1. Polyglactin (Vicryl (tm))
2. Polydioxanones (PDS (tm))
3. Both of them
4. None of them

A
  1. None of them

Non-absorbable:
Natural:
● Silk (mersilk)
● Cotton
Synthetic:
● Polyamide (nylon, supramid, suturamid, Ethilon)
● Polyesther (Dagrofil, Ethibond, Ti-cron, Mersilene)
● Polyolefins (polipropilén, polietilén)
Stainless steel

1. Polyglactin (Vicryl (tm)) (absorbable)
2. Polydioxanones (PDS (tm)) (

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96
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain …
1. … is not recommended as flushing drain
2. … can be open suction-drain
3. … can be closed suction-drain
4. … is used as flushing drain

A
  1. … is not recommended as flushing drain
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97
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain …
1. … is a tube drain
2. … is made of latex
3. … can be used as passive drain
4. … is mostly used as active drain

A
  1. … is made of latex
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98
Q

Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer!
1. Determine all organic disorders
2. Reveal direct life-threatening conditions
3. Check and stabilize circulation and respiration
4. Check and stabilize CNS

A
  1. Determine all organic disorders
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99
Q

What does “3-Metric “mean on a suture material pack? 1. The suture material has” grade 3” tensile strength
2. The suture material absorption time is 3 months
3. The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
4. The suture material is 0.3 meter (30 cm) long

A
  1. The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
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100
Q

Characteristic of feline herpes viral rhinitis:
1. The vaccinated animals can not be infected
2. Bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
3. Vaccination is not recommended against this disease
4. Easy to cure

A
  1. Bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
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101
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?
1. Autoclave (steam)
2. Gamma-beam radiation
3. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
4. Dry heat sterilization

A
  1. Dry heat sterilization (160 ̊C)
  2. Autoclave (steam) (121-132 ̊C)
  3. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization (29-65 ̊C)
  4. Dry heat sterilization (160 ̊C)
102
Q

To perform a complete blood count examination, you need a(n)

  1. Heparinized blood sampling tube
  2. EDTA blood sampling tube
  3. Citrated blood sampling tube
  4. NaF blood sampling tube
A
  1. EDTA blood sampling tube
103
Q

Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer!
1. Check for bleeding
2. Check mucous membranes and CRT
3. Check pulse rate and quality
4. Perform ECG and heart US examination

A
  1. Perform ECG and heart US examination
104
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material?
1. 0
2. 2. 2-0
3. 3. 2
4. 4. 3-0

A
  1. 0
105
Q

In the case of acute epistaxis / nasal bleeding:
1. Immediate X-Ray examination is required
2. Immediate rhinoscopy is required
3. As soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
required
4. Nasal foreign body and fungal rhinitis cannot be presumed in the background

A
  1. As soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
    required

(radiography and rhinoscopy should be delayed for 48 hours)

106
Q

According to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical condition of the grade III category?
1. Severity of stridor / stertor
2. Syncope
3. Duration of clinical signs
4. Grade III laryngeal collapse

A
  1. Syncope
107
Q

Which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the ??pective multicenter study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 201)
1. Primary lung tumors were represented in 52% of the indications
2. 76% of dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications
3. The acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%
4. Subacute (<2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

A
  1. The acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%

● Retrospective „multicenter” study
● Dogs (n=17) and cats (n=10) underwent pneumonectomy
● Left sided n=17 (12 dogs, 5 cats), right sided n=10 (5 dogs, 5 cats) - lung tumour in
52% of patients
● Complications: 76% dogs (major 41%), 80% cats (major 50%)
● Compromised respiration
● No acute (≤ 24 h) mortality
● „Subacute” postoperative (≤ 2 weeks) mortality:1 dog (6%) and 2 cats (20%)

108
Q

Which statement is Incorrect regarding midline sternotomy
1. It causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy
2. Oscillating saw or osteotome is necessary for the approach
3. Finachietto rib retractor or Gelpi retractor is applicable
4. It is indicated by mediastinal and/or bilateral thoracic conditions

A
  1. It causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy
109
Q

Characteristics of critical care. Mark the incorrect answer!
1. The order of examination and therapeutical methods are different than in
non-emergency cases
2. Diagnostics and therapy overlap each other in order to gain time
3. The examination consists of two phases. primary and secondary survey
4. All emergency patients require intensive ward care

A
  1. All emergency patients require intensive ward care
110
Q

Choose the correct answer. Colloid infusions
1. Contain small molecular weight compounds
2. In a dosage less than 20ml / kg/day they may induce coagulopathy
3. Are used to treat dehydration
4. Are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

A
  1. Are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids (isotonic crystalloids +
    colloids and/or hypertonic saline)
  2. Contain small molecular weight compounds (Crystalloids)
  3. Are used to treat dehydration (Isotonic crystalloids, used for hypovolemia)
111
Q

In case of hypovolemia, the first choice of infusion is:
1. 5% glucose
2. HAES infusion
3. Lactated Ringer Solution
4. 10% NaCI infusion

A
  1. Lactated Ringer Solution (Isotonic crystalloids: 0.9% NaCl (Salsol A), Ringer, Lactated Ringer, Sterofundin)
  2. 10% NaCI infusion (hypertonic crystalloid)
  3. 5% glucose (colloid)
  4. HAES infusion (colloid)
112
Q

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is
1. Treat dehydration
2. Replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
3. Provide appropriate calorie intake
4. Giving low potassium containing infusions

A
  1. Replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
113
Q

Delayed primary closure
1. Is normally performed on the first day post-trauma
2. May be indicated in deep infected puncture wounds
3. Is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury
4. Involves the complete excision of granulation tissue

A
  1. Is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury
114
Q

What does ‘atypical’ operation mean?
1. One sort of ide-saving surgeries
2. One sort of tumor removal procedures
3. Specific plastic surgical intervention
4. An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition of the surgeon

A
  1. An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition of the surgeon
115
Q

Which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?
1. Hungarian vizsla
2. Husky
3. Greyhound
4. Pointer

A
  1. Husky (Bouvier des Flandres, Siberian huskey, Bull terrier)

(Acquired: Labrador, Saint bernards, Irish setter)

116
Q

What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid Lateralization?
1. Laryngeal collapse
2. Recurrence
3. Aspiration
4. None of them

A
  1. Aspiration
117
Q

Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material?
1. Monofilament feature
2. Good tensile strength
3. Good knot security
4. Unique thrombophobic feature

A
  1. Monofilament feature
118
Q

Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic breeds?
1. Dorsal rhinotomy
2. Ventral rhinotomy
3. Dorsal rhinotomy sinus trephination
4. Ventral rhinotomy sinus trephination

A
  1. Ventral rhinotomy
119
Q

Which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable?
1. Stenotic nares
2. Elongated soft palate
3. Laryngeal collapse
4. Tracheal hypoplasia

A
  1. Tracheal hypoplasia
120
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
1. Bronchial pattern on X-Ray
2. Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy
3. Cytology and microbiology of BAL are required
4. All the above mentioned are true

A
  1. All the above mentioned are true
121
Q

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?
1. Parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarths disease
2. Panleukopenia, parvoviral enteritis, Rubarths-disease
3. Panleukopenia, distemper ruburths-disease
4. Leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

A
  1. Leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease
122
Q

How many lung lobes has the dog?
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8

A
  1. 6
123
Q

Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?
1. Processus muscularis
2. Processus cuneiformis
3. Processus corniculatus
4. None of them

A
  1. Processus muscularis
124
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
1. It is more common in old, large breed dogs
2. It is more common in young, small breed dogs
3. Inspiratory type dyspnoea
4. Crackles and wheezes with auscultation

A
  1. Crackles and wheezes with auscultation
  2. It is more common in old, large breed dogs (middle aged to older dogs, small breeds)
  3. It is more common in young, small breed dogs (middle aged to older dogs, small
    breeds    )
125
Q

The concept of moist wound therapy does not include
1. Surgical debridement
2. Autolytic debridement
3. A wet-to-dry dressing
4. A hydrocolloid dressing

A
  1. Surgical debridement
126
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture material’s drainage ability?
1. Monofilament vs. multifilament
2. Tensile strength
3. Knot security
4. Absorptioni

A
  1. Tensile strength
127
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?
1. Dorsal latissimus m.
2. Dorsal serratus m.
3. Ventral serratus m.
4. Cutaneus trunc

A
  1. Cutaneus trunc
128
Q

What is the „golden Period“ in the treatment of fresh traumatic wounds

A

6-8h from injury

129
Q

In the early phases of healing, the most essential white blood cell in wounds are the:

A

Monocytes

130
Q

What characterises the proliferation phase of wound healing

A

Angiogenesis

131
Q

Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to

A

Desiccation

132
Q

Primary wound closure should be avoided in:

A

Gunshot and bite wounds

133
Q

Delayed primary closure:

A

Is usually performed 2-5 days after injury

134
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

A

Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogene peroxide

135
Q

The preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is:

A

Surgical

136
Q

In case of a wound infection presumably caused by a multiresistant organism:

A

The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

137
Q

First aid key points:

A

Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination

138
Q

The concept of moist wound treatment is:

A

Obsolete

139
Q

Select the FALSE answer.
A good bandage:

A

A good bandage: Reduces blood flow to the wound

140
Q

Which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds:

A

Calcium alginate

141
Q

Used as topical wound medication, the metabolism of action is based on hyperosmolarity:

A

Sugar & honey

142
Q

Surgical site infection:

A

Is caused my multiresistant microorganisms in about 5% of cases

143
Q

A layer of a Robert-jones bandage:

A

Secondary absorbent layer (e.g cotton wool)

144
Q

NOT a risk factor for wound infection:

A

Clipping a day prior to surgery

145
Q

Which of the following statements are true:

A

Obesity is a likely risk factor for surgical site infection

146
Q

Pseudomonas ssp. Grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy granulation tissue. This is most likely due to:

A

Contamination

147
Q

What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?

A

Distal limb edema

148
Q

The vena cava syndrome due to heartworm disease
1. can be obviously diagnosed by echocardiography
2. is the mild form of heartworm disease
3. corresponds to Class 2 of heartworm disease
4. can be treated with moxidektin

A
  1. can be obviously diagnosed by echocardiography
149
Q

The goal of maintanace infusion therapy is
1. correct dehydration
2. provide adequate calorie intake
3. replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
4. giving low potassium containing infusions

A
  1. correct dehydration
150
Q

Which muscle/muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application?
1. m. quadriceps femoris
2. M. gastrocnemius
3. M. Tibialis cranialis
4. m. deltoideus

A
  1. m. quadriceps femoris
151
Q

Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain…
1. … is always a single-exit drain
2. …can only be used as double exit drain
3. …is mostly used for flushing
4. …is more effective with a compression bandage on it

A
  1. …is more effective with a compression bandage on it
152
Q

Conditions of the musculoskeletal system requiring emergency care. Mark the incorrect answer!
1. Open fracture
2. Intraarticular bone fracture
3. Patellar luxation
4. Severe muscular injury, laceration

A
  1. Intraarticular bone fracture
153
Q

Which statement is true?
1. In dogs there are preformed antibodies against DEA 1.1.
2. In dogs the first transfusion is risky.
3. In dogs there are preformed antibodies against DEA 7.
4. In dogs there are no preformed antibodies against blood group antigens.

A
  1. In dogs there are no preformed antibodies against blood group antigens.
154
Q

How to start resuscitation if you are alone:
1. Check and clean the airways, intubate, start chest compressions
2. Check and clean the airways, intubate, call help
3. Check and clean the airways, call help, start chest compressions
4. Start chest compressions, call help

A
  1. Check and clean the airways, call help, start chest compressions
155
Q

What is prognathic bite?
1. mandible is longer than maxilla
2. maxilla is longer than mandible
3. mandible is missing
4. maxilla is missing

A
  1. mandible is longer than maxilla
156
Q

Which one of the following you can not give subcutaneously ?
1. Microchip
2. Cristalloid infusion
3. Hormon implant
4. Injections containing glucose

A
  1. Injections containing glucose
157
Q

What does „3-Metric” mean on a suture material pack?
1. The suture material has „grade 3” tensile strength
2. The suture material absorption time is 3 months
3. The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
4. The suture material is 0.3 meter (30 cm) long

A
  1. The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
158
Q

Emergency case
1. Othematoma
2. Severe pneumothorax
3. Skin fold dermatitis
4. Tartar-covered teeth

A
  1. Severe pneumothorax
159
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge approximation?
1. Simple – mattress – cruciate …
2. Skin – intradermal – subcutaneous – muscular – fascial - …
3. Interrupted vs. continuous
4. Appositional – inverting – tension relieving …

A
  1. Appositional – inverting – tension relieving …
160
Q

Which muscle can NOT be used for intramuscular injection application?
1. m. biceps brachii
2. m. quadriceps femoris
3. m. triceps brachii
4. m. semitendinosus/semimembranosus

A
  1. m. biceps brachii
161
Q

To perform a complete blood count examination, you need a(n)
1. heparinized blood sampling tube.
2. EDTA blood sampling tube.
3. citrated blood sampling tube.
4. NaF blood sampling tube.

A
  1. EDTA blood sampling tube.
162
Q

What is the normal blood glucose value?
1. 0,2 - 2,2 mmol/L
2. 3,3 - 6,2 mmol/L
3. 8-15 mmol/L
4. more than 15 mmol/L

A
  1. 3,3 - 6,2 mmol/L
163
Q

Which one is not the task of the students?
1. Treating the patients
2. Monitoring
3. Keep the environment clean
4. Consult with the owners

A
  1. Consult with the owners
164
Q

Characteristic of laryngeal paralysis:
1. usually old, large breed dogs are affected and the background is usually idiopathic
2. its background cannot be a viral infection
3. can not be congenital
4. endoscopy is unsuitable for diagnosis due to anaesthesia

A
  1. usually old, large breed dogs are affected and the background is usually idiopathic
165
Q

What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid Lateralisation?
1. laryngeal collapse
2. recurrence
3. aspiration
4. none of them

A
  1. aspiration
166
Q

In case of hypovolaemia, the first choice of infusion is:
1. 5% Glucose solution
2. Lactated Rinegr Solution
3. HAES-infusion
4. 10% NaCl

A
  1. Lactated Rinegr Solution
167
Q

Which acquired condition may be contributing to the idiopathic laryngeal paralysis?
1. polyneuropathy
2. trauma
3. endocrinopathy
4. tumour

A
  1. polyneuropathy
168
Q

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNiel et al (JAVMA, 1997) analysing cases with primary lung tumour removed via pulmonary lobectomy?
1. the histopathologic grade of the lung tumour
2. clinical signs
3. regional lymphonode metastases
4. plus or minus chemotherapy

A
  1. plus or minus chemotherapy
169
Q

Thoracic ultrasonography can be performed favourably
1. in the presence of free thoracic fluid
2. by the increased air content of the lungs in case of
3. cardiac enlargement
4. during the thinning of the mediastinum

A
  1. in the presence of free thoracic fluid
170
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
1. Status of the thoracic wall
2. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
3. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
4. ARD

A
  1. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
171
Q

Delayed primary closure
1. is normally performed the first day post-trauma
2. may be indicated in deep, infected puncture wounds
3. is performed 2 to 5 days after injury
4. involves the complete excision of granulation tissue

A
  1. is performed 2 to 5 days after injury
172
Q

Which muscle/muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application?
1. M. femoralis
2. M. gastrocnemius
3. M. semitendinosus/ semimembranosus
4. M. Tibialis cranialis

A
  1. M. semitendinosus/ semimembranosus
173
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain…
1. … is a tube drain
2. … is made of latex
3. …can be used as passive drain
4. …is mostly used as active drain

A
  1. … is a tube drain
174
Q

Which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the retrospective multicenter study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 2016)?
1. primary lung tumours were represented in 52% of the indications
2. 76% of dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications
3. the acute perioperative (less than or equal to 24h) mortality was around 10 %
4. „subacute” (less than or equal to 2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

A
  1. the acute perioperative (less than or equal to 24h) mortality was around 10 %
175
Q

Regions of intramuscular injections
1. m. triceps, infrascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles
2. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps, ham muscles
3. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps,coracobrachialis
4. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles,

A
  1. m. triceps, suprascapularis, quadriceps, hamstring muscles,
176
Q

The ideal frequency of breathing during resuscitation:
1. 5-6/minute
2. 10-12/minute
3. 14-16/minute
4. 20-22/minute

A
  1. 10-12/minute
177
Q

Possible complication of iv drug application
1. aspiration
2. phlebitis
3. overhydration
4. neuritis

A
  1. phlebitis
178
Q

A 12 years old cat presented with 5 days of anorexia.
During physical examination you find the following parameters:
T: 38.6
HR: 160/min
RP: 20/min
CRT: < 2 sec
The skin turgor is prolonged, the cat has enophtalmus and prolapsed nictating membranes. Based on the examination finding the cat has

‐ Hypovolaemia
‐ Dehydration
‐ Hypovolaemia and dehydration
‐ The prolonged skin turgor because of her old age

A

‐ The prolonged skin turgor because of her old age

179
Q

Laryngeal paralysis
Characteristics of laryngeal paralysis:

A

‐ Endoscopy is unsuitable for diagnosis due to anaesthesia

180
Q

Characteristic of laryngeal paralysis

A

‐ Usually old, large breed dogs are affected ad the background is usually idiopathic

181
Q

In which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?

A

‐ Husky

182
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding thoracic tracheal resection/ anastomosis?

A

‐ Right 2nd to 4th intercostal lateralis thoracotomy is usually applied

183
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection / anastomosis?

A

‐ Either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable for anastomosis

184
Q

Characteristic of canine /feline bacterial pneumonia

A

‐ Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration.

185
Q

Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL

A

‐ Processus muscularis

186
Q

Choose the correct answer. Colloid infusions.

A

‐ Are used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids

187
Q

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is

A

Replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia

188
Q

Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia
‐ Can be caused by megaoesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction
‐ Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH, volume and quality of aspirated content
‐ Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for its treatment
‐ All of the above mentioned are true

A

‐ All of the above mentioned are true

189
Q

In the case of acute epistaxis / nasal bleeding:
‐

A

‐ As soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are required

190
Q

Which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the retrospective multicenter study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 2016)

A

‐ The acute perioperative (<24h) mortality was around 10%

191
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002) which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

A

‐ Bodyweight < 20 kg

192
Q

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNiel et al (JAVMA,1997) analysing cases with primary lung tumour removed via pulmonary lobectomy

A

‐ Chemotherapy

193
Q

Which of the following instrument is not the member of the abdominal instrumentation set?

A

‐ Finochietto self retaining retractor

194
Q

What does atypical operation mean?

A

‐ An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition of the surgeon

195
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis

A

‐ Crackles and wheezes with auscultation

196
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis

A

‐ Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bonchoscopy

197
Q

Which one is forbidden at the ICU?

A

‐ Give information to the owner

198
Q

Which answer is wrong? Blood sampling may fail due to

A

‐ Excessive strangulation

199
Q

After perivenous injection

A

‐ A swelling develops at the injection site

200
Q

Conditions of musculoskeletal system requiring emergency care. Mark the incorrect answer.

A

‐ Patellar luxation

201
Q

Primary survey. Mark the incorrect answer.

A

‐ Determine all organic disorders

202
Q

Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer?

A

Perform ECG and heart rate

203
Q

Characteristics of critical care. Mark the incorrect answer.

A

‐ All emergency patients require intensive ward care.

204
Q

which one of the following you can not give subcutaneously?

A

‐ Injections containing glucose

205
Q

Which answer is wrong? Benefits of a 3‐way stopcock?

A

‐ It is harder for the animal to pull out the catheter from the vein

206
Q

The peripheral venous catheter:

A

‐ Has a valve in the upper (colored cap) connection port
‐ The upper (colored cap) connection port communicates freely with the vein
‐ Has a valve in the rear (white cap) connection port
‐ The rear (white cap) connection port is only suitable for injections

207
Q

Which sing of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 < 60mmHg)?

A

‐ Cyanosis = 6th phase

208
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding midline sternotomy?

A

‐ It causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral thoracotomy

209
Q

According to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical condition of the grade III category?

A

‐ Syncope

210
Q

In which of the following conditions in the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated therapy?

A

‐ Nasal adenocarcinoma

211
Q

According to WSAVA Vaccination Guidelines, issued in 2016, the last injection of puppy series is at the age of

A

‐ 16 weeks

211
Q

According to WSAVA Vaccination Guidelines, issued in 2016, the last injection of puppy series is at the age of

A

‐ 16 weeks

212
Q

What is the Golden Period in the treatment of fresh traumatic wounds?

A

‐ 6‐8 hrs form injury

213
Q

What is the normal heat rate per minute in dogs?

A

‐ 60‐120

214
Q

Characteristic of feline asthma

A

‐ The cytological and microbiological examination of BAL is highly important in its diagnosis

215
Q

What approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic breeds?

A

‐ Ventral rhinotomy

216
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

A

‐ Status of thoracic wall

217
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

A

‐ Dorsal latissimus m.

218
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?

A

‐ Dorsal latissimus m.

219
Q

Which of the following sterilisation methods operates at the highest temperature?

A

‐ Dry heat

220
Q

Drainage
Which of the following features defines the suture material’s drainage ability?

A

‐ Absorption

221
Q

Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain…. ‐ .

A

A passive drain…. ‐ ….is more effective with a compression bandage on it

222
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain… ‐ ….

A

Is not recommended as flushing drain

222
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain… ‐ ….

A

Is not recommended as flushing drain

223
Q

Suture material
What is spongostan TM ‐

A

Gelatin sponge

224
Q

What does 3‐metric mean on a suture material pack? ‐

A

The suture material is 0.3mm of diameter

225
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material?

A

‐0

226
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non‐absorbable?

A

‐ None of them (polyglactin, polydioxanone)

227
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non‐absorbable?

A

Polypropylene (ProleneTM)

228
Q

Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?

A

‐ None (Polypropylene, Polyamide)

229
Q

Which of the following features makes polyprolylene the most populat cardiovascular suture material?

A

‐ Good tensile strength

230
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge approximation?
‐ Skin – intradermal – SC – muscular – fascial X
‐ Interrupted vs continuous
‐ Appositional – inverting – tenision relieving X
‐ Simple – mattress – cruciate X

A

‐ Interrupted vs continuous

231
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is tension relieving?

A

‐ Interrupted horizontal mattress

232
Q
  • Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia
    o Can be caused by megaesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction
    o Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH , volume and quality of aspirated volume
    o Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for treatment
    o All above mentioned are true
A

o All above mentioned are true

233
Q
  • Which of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2< 60 mmHg )
    o Dyspnea
    o Cyanosis
    o Hyperventilation
    o Labial breathing
A

o Cyanosis

234
Q
  • Characteristic of canine/feline pneumonia
    o Usually, a primary disease
    o Good general condition, cough
    o Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
    o Normal body temperature, good general condition, good appetite
A

o Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

235
Q
  • Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis?
    o Ventral cervical approach is usually applied
    o In adults even the 50% of the tracheal length can be resected
    o in immature dogs even the 25% of the tracheal length can be resected
    o either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis
A

o either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis

236
Q
  • Which of the following categories is correct according to the approximation of the wound edge?
    o Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - …
    o Interrupted vs. continuous
    o Appositional - inverting - tension-relieving …
    o simple - mattress - cruciate ligament …
A

o Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - …

237
Q
  • Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval (DFI) in a retrospective study by McNeil al (JAVMA, 1997) analyzing cases with primary lung tumor removed pulmonary lobectomy?
    o the histopathologic grade of the lung tumor
    o clinical signs
    o regional lymph node metastases
    o / - chemotherapy
A

o / - chemotherapy

238
Q
  • Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
    o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
    o indicates a serious, life- threatening illness
    o usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
    o indicates a laryngeal lesion
A

o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

239
Q
  • Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
    o Status of the thoracic wall
    o Skin defect on the thoracic wall
    o Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
    o ARD
A

o Skin defect on the thoracic wall

240
Q
  • According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?
    o Male
    o bite trauma
    o bodyweight <10 kg
    o body weight <20 kg
A

o body weight <20 kg

241
Q
  • In which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated therapy?
    o nasal foreign body abscess
    o nasopharyngeal polyp
    o chronic, conservative therapy-resistant rhinitis
    o nasal adenocarcinoma
A

o nasal adenocarcinoma

242
Q
  • Which muscle / muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application?
    o M femoralis
    o M. gastrocnemius
    o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus
    o Tibialis cranialis muscle
A

o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus

243
Q
  • Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?
    o Polypropylene (Prolene (tm))
    o Polyamides (Supramid (tm))
    o Both of them
    o None of them
A

o None of them

244
Q
  • Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain …
    o … is not recommended as flushing drain
    o … can be open suction-drain
    o … can be closed suction-drain
    o … is used as flushing drain
A

o … is not recommended as flushing drain

245
Q
  • Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain …
    o … is a tube drain
    o … is made of latex
    o … can be used as passive drain
    o … is mostly used as active drain
  • Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer!
A

o … is made of latex

246
Q
  • Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer!
    o Determine all organic disorders
    o Reveal direct life-threatening conditions
    o Check and stabilize circulation and respiration
    o Check and stabilize CNS
A

o Determine all organic disorders

247
Q
  • What does “3-Metric “mean on a suture material pack?
    o The suture material has” grade 3” tensile strength
    o The suture material absorption time is 3 months
    o The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
    o The suture material is 0.3 meter (30 cm) long
A

o The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter

248
Q
  • Characteristic of feline herpes viral rhinitis:
    o the vaccinated animals can not be infected
    o bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
    o vaccination is not recommended against this disease
    o easy to cure
A

o bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

249
Q
  • Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?
    o Autoclave (steam)
    o Gamma-beam radiation
    o Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
    o Dry heat sterilization
A

o Dry heat sterilization

250
Q
  • Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?
    o Polyglactin (Vicryl (tm))
    o Polydioxanones (PDS (tm))
    o Both of them
    o None of them Submit
A

o None of them Submit

SAM II (3 decks)

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