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SAM II > MT 2 - PQ > Flashcards

MT 2 - PQ Flashcards

1
Q

The upper boarder of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is
* Concave
* Convex
* Horizontal
* Changing in direction but never horizontal

A
  • Horizontal
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2
Q

Which answer is wrong: consequence of left sided heart failure:
* Thoracic fluid accumulation in cats
* Pulmonary oedema in dogs
* Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
* Pulmonary oedema in cats

A
  • Thoracic fluid accumulation in dogs
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3
Q

Which answer is false:
* During surgical scrubbing , the skin surface can be made completely sterile
* The outer surface of the surgical glove is considered sterile when it is put on
* The open gloving method is used for minor interventions (eg. Catheterization)
* When performing the open gloving method, the folded -back inner surface of the glove cuff
can be touched with your bare hands

A
  • During surgical scrubbing , the skin surface can be made completely sterile
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4
Q

Which step is not recommended when treating animals with refractory heart failure (stage D)?
* Administration of amlodipine
* Administration of higher doses of pimobendane
* Parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor
* Parenteral administration of furosemide

A
  • Parenteral administration of an ACE inhibitor
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5
Q

Lidocaine and mexitil may be used :
* For the treatment of the silent atrium
* For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
* For the treatment of 3rd-degree AV block
* For the treatment of junctional tachycardia

A
  • For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
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6
Q

Which is not one of the main indications for ECG in pets?
* Tachycardia, Bradycardia
* Monitoring surgical anesthesia
* Arrythmia with pulse deficits
* Heart murmur with weak pulse

A
  • Heart murmur with weak pulse
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7
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular and a supraventricular arrythmia on the ECG?
* The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmia
* The QRS complex is always of normal width in the case of supraventricular arrythmia
* P-wave is always visible in front of QRS complex in supraventricular arrythmias
* P-wave never seen in supraventricular arrythmias before QRS complex

A
  • The QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrythmia
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8
Q

Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of a spaniel 3rd degree AV block ?
* Determination of the potassium level
* Administration of atropine
* Administration of Diltiazem
* Administration of prednisolone, doxycycline

A
  • Administration of Diltiazem
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9
Q

What is the most common cardiac disease in cats?
* ARVC
* DCM
* HCM
* RCM

A

HCM

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10
Q

Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in axial (sliding) hiatal hernia?
* Cardia
* Fundus
* Corpus
* Antrum pylori

A

Cardia

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11
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?
- It is a iatrogenic complication
- It might be suppurative
- It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases
- It may be caused by surgical technical error

A
  • It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases
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12
Q

Reduction of ventricular afterload during heart failure:
- Always beneficial
- Should only be used in mild heart failure
- Should only be used in severe heart failure
- Extremely risky

A
  • Should only be used in severe heart failure
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13
Q

Typical echocardiographic findings in dogs in case of DCM:
- Dilated cardiac chambers
- Decreased FS%
- Both of them
- None of them

A
  • Both of them
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14
Q

Which has the highest microbial number at the beginning of surgery
- Surgical glove
- Artery clamp
- The skin of the patient
- Gauze sponges

A
  • The skin of the patient
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15
Q

What are three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease?
- Doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
- Fenbendazole, doramectin, clopidrogel
- Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
- Doxycycline, milbemicin-oxim, melarsomine

A
  • Doxycycline, moxidectin, melarsomine
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16
Q

Tying surgical knots. Pick the false answer! (more than one correct answer is possible)
* In surgery, at least two half knots with opposite direction are considered to be a knot
* Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening
* Two handed , one handed and instrumental knotting may be performed
* Instrumental knotting is safer for ligating large vessels and bundle of tissues

A

Fewer knots (3-4) for synthetic monofilament and more knots (5-6) for multifilament materials are needed for secure fastening

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17
Q

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle is:
- The scapula
- The cranial part of the heart
- The descendent aorta
- The caudal part of the heart

A
  • The caudal part of the heart
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18
Q

Why can we boldly reduce preload in heart failure?
- Because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrythmia
- Because in heart failure , reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
- Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
- Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the pre-load anyway

A

Because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrythmia

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19
Q

Which answer is false?
- During surgical scrubbing the hand should be higher than the elbow
- During autoclaving , all pathogenic germs are destroyed , however , apathogenic microbes may remain on the surface of the devices
- Sterile devices in soaked packaging should not be used
- In the operating room, the sterile person should not lower the hands below table level

A

During autoclaving , all pathogenic germs are destroyed , however , apathogenic microbes may remain on the surface of the devices

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20
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia?
- Thoracocentesis
- Abdominocentesis
- Ultrasonography
- Respiratory endoscopy

A

Ultrasonography

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21
Q

Which of the following types of shock SIRS is rated in ?
- Hypovolemic
- Cardiogenic/obstructive
- Distributive
- Hypoxic

A

Distributive

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22
Q

Which can be a congenital pericardial disease
- PPDH
- PHDP
- PHPD
- PDHP

A

PPDH

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23
Q

Which answer is true
* During surgical scrubbing, the number of germs in the skin of the forearm increases from the elbow to the finger tips
* The back of the surgical gown is considered sterile after putting it on
* If the surgical gloves tear, one must scrub in again
* The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not on
how hard you rub it

A
  • The efficiency of the surgical scrubbing depends primarily on the exposure time and not on
    how hard you rub it
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24
Q

Which is the first compensation during heart failure
- The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated
- Processes that reduce plasma volume are initiated
- The peripheral blood vessels dilate
- Heart rate increases

A
  • Heart rate increases
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25
Q

The administration of digoxin may be justified to treat :
- III-degree AV block
- Ventricular tachycardia
- Atrial fibrillation
- Ainus tachycardia

A
  • Atrial fibrillation
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26
Q

Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC:
- Fibrinogen
- PTT
- APTT
- FDP

A

Fibrinogen

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27
Q

What changes do you expect to find in case of severe aortic stenosis?
* Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
* Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
* Left ventricular dilation
* Right ventricular dilation

A
  • Left ventricular concentric hypertrophy
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28
Q

What is the wrong answer? If we increase cardiac preload?
* It increase the strength of cardiac contractions
* It can cause congestion
* The heart dilates
* Heart performance will decrease

A
  • It can cause congestion
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29
Q

In which clinical category can ascites occur in canine heartworm disease?
- During the 2. Category
- During the 3. Category
- During the 2. And 3. Category
- During none of them

A
  • During the 3. Category
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30
Q

Ventricular extrasystoles are:
- Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilatation)
- Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g splenic tumour)
- Always caused by heart failure
- Caused by increased vagal tone

A
  • Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilatation)
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31
Q

Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic root ratio?
- Short axis at heart base from right side
- Long axis at right side
- Apical view
- Subcostal view

A
  • Short axis at heart base from right side
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32
Q

What is the typical physical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?
- Honey-like , viscous exudate during puncture
- Thin, water-like fluid during puncture
- Bloody fluid during puncture
- None of them

A
  • Honey-like , viscous exudate during puncture
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33
Q

Which parameter is decreased in DIC?
a. fibrinogen
b. APTT
c. PTT
d. FDP

A

a. fibrinogen

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34
Q

Which parameter is the most specific for DIC?
a. fibrinogen
b. APTT (ac=vated par=al thromboplas=n =me)
c. PTT (par=al thromboplas=n =me)
d. FDP (fibrin degrada=on products)

A

a. fibrinogen

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35
Q

Which is not a typical symptom in cats in case of a riding thrombus:
a. paralysis of the hindlimbs
b. loud (painful) vocaliza=on
c. dyspnoe
d. loss of femoral pulse

A

c. dyspnoe

36
Q

When does cardiac dullness occur during percussion of the thorax?
a. Thoracic fluid accumulation
b. Pneumonia
c. Lung tumors
d. Enlargement of the heart

A

a. Thoracic fluid accumulation

37
Q

What is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneumothorax?
a. X-rays
b. physical exam
c. ultrasound
d. thoracoscopy

A

d. thoracoscopy

38
Q

Electrosurgery. Choose the incorrect statement:
a. In monopolar systems a large surface return electrode should be placed on the patient’s body.
b. In monopolar systems the return electrode can cause burn wounds in the patient in case of small contact area.
c. In forceps-like bipolar systems there is no need for a large sized recurrent electrode.
d. The efficiency and safety of monopolar systems is better.

A

d. The efficiency and safety of monopolar systems is better.

39
Q

In case of PPDH, the dislocation of which abdominal organ is NOT common?
a. spleen
b. omentum
c. liver
d. small intestines

A

a. spleen

40
Q

What can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography?
a. the MAP
b. the direction of flow
c. the pressure difference between the heart chambers
d. the character of flow (laminal or turbulent)

A

c. the pressure difference between the heart chambers

41
Q

Which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia?
a. cardia
b. fundus
c. corpus
d. antrum pylori

A

a. cardia

42
Q

What lesions are expected in severe endocardosis?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

c. left heart distension

43
Q

What lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

c. left heart distension

44
Q

What lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

b. right ventricular hypertrophy

45
Q

What lesions are expected in severe aortic stenosis?
a. left ventricular hypertrophy
b. right ventricular hypertrophy
c. left heart distension
d. right heart distension

A

a. left ventricular hypertrophy

46
Q

Which one is a congenital pericardial disease?
a. PPDH
b. PPHD
c. PHPD
d. PDHP

A

a. PPDH

47
Q

Which step is incorrect in a patient suffering from ventricular arrhythmia after ECG:
a. blood analysis, abdominal US
b. c-troponin-I measurement
c. digoxin administration
d. echocardiography

A

c. digoxin administration

48
Q

Which organ is the source of MDF in shock?
a. liver
b. lung
c. GI tract
d. pancreas

A

d. pancreas

49
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardosis?
a. ACE-I
b. pimobendan
c. furosemide
d. none of the above

A

b. pimobendan

50
Q

Choose the incorrect anwer
a. during surgical scrubbing, the hands should be higher than the elbow.
b. during autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes can remain on the surface of instruments.
c. the sterile instruments of which the packages are soaked should not be used.
d. in the surgery room, a sterile person should not let their hand hang lower than the operating
table.

A

b. during autoclave all pathogen microbes are destroyed, but non-pathogenic microbes can remain on the surface of instruments.

51
Q

Which is not part of the pathological remodeling of the heart?
a. MHC receptor formation on the membranes of myocardial cells
b. the macroscopic transforma=on of the heart (dilation, hypertrophy)
c. change of the myocardial cell function (contractility, arrhythmias)
d. change in the myocardial cell connections

A

d. change in the myocardial cell connections

52
Q

For which disease is “heart palpation” obtusio cordis specific?
a. pulmonary oedema
b. pulmonary fibrosis
c. something space consuming in the chest
d. fluid accumulation in thorax

A

c. something space consuming in the chest

53
Q

After physical and auxiliary examinations we diagnose mitral endocardosis, but the typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?
a. AHA-A
b. AHA-B
c. AHA-
C d. AHA-D

A

b. AHA-B

54
Q

Pimobendan is:
a. an ACE-inhibitor
b. Ca channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor
c. bipyridine-derivate
d. Ca channel sensitizer and alpha-adrenergic blocker

A

b. Ca channel sensitizer and phosphodiesterase inhibitor

55
Q

Basic therapy for endocardosis with typical symptoms present:
a. furosemide, potassium, pimobendan
b. furosemide, spironolactone, digoxin
c. ACE-I, bronchodilators
d. furosemide, ACE-I

A

a. furosemide, potassium, pimobendan

56
Q

Which congenital heart disease has a specific continuous „machinery” heart murmur as a symptom?
a. pulmonic stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. tetralogy of fallot
d. PDA

A

d. PDA

57
Q

What is the common „shock organ” in horses and dogs?
a. liver
b. lung
c. GI tract
d. pancreas

A

c. GI tract

58
Q

Which corticosteroid is recommended in shock?
a. methylprednisolone sodium succinate
b. prednisolone sodium succinate
c. dexamethasone
d. corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

A

d. corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

59
Q

Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs?
a. lateral
b. dorsal
c. ventral
d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

A

d. perineal hernia does not happen in females

60
Q

The herniation/strangulation of which organ causes acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?
a. small intestine
b. large intestine
c. uterus
d. bladder

A

d. bladder

61
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone do we use in our university clinic in complex therapy for dogs with HWD?
a. selamectin
b. ivermectin
c. moxidectin
d. milbemycin-oxime

A

c. moxidectin

62
Q

Which is the common „shock organ” in horses and cats?
a. liver
b. lungs
c. small intestine
d. pancreas

A

b. lungs

63
Q

The most common color code meaning in color Doppler echocardiography:
a. red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer
b. blue: bloodflow towards the transducer; red: bloodflow away from the transducer
c. blue: venous bloodflow; red: arterial bloodflow
d. blue: decreasing speed bloodflow; red: increasing speed bloodflow

A

a. red: bloodflow towards the transducer; blue: bloodflow away from the transducer

64
Q

Typical for PRAA:
a. abnormal development of ductus Botalli
b. the permeable aspect of ductus Botalli
c. abnormal development of the aortic arch
d. abnormal development of the subclavicular artery

A

c. abnormal development of the aortic arch

65
Q

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?
a. pulmonic stenosis
b. ventricular septal defect
c. Fallot-tetralogy
d. PDA

A

d. PDA

66
Q

In which stage of HWD can ascites happen in dogs?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 2and3
d. in none

A

b. 3

67
Q

Which is the wrong answer? If we increase the preload, …
a. it increases the contractility of the heart
b. we can induce stagnancy ?? pangás
c. the heart dilates
d. the cardiac performance will decrease

A

b. we can induce stagnancy ?? pangás

68
Q

Choose the wrong answer: in the progression of cardiac failure, a role is aributed to:
a. chronic activation of the RAAS and the sympathic nervous system
b. cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)
c. inflammatory mediators and free radicals
d. insufficient oxygen and energy supply of the cardiomyocytes despite of the increased demand

A

b. cardiac acetylcholine receptor numbers and function altered (down regulation)

69
Q

Which mode can be used for real-time 2d visualization of the structure of the myocardium?
a. B-mode
b. color Doppler
c. M-mode
d. spectral Doppler

A

c. M-mode

70
Q

What diagnostic tests are needed for HWD screening?
a. only modified Knot test
b. only antigen test
c. both
d. neither

A

a. only modified Knot test

71
Q

What drug should be given for a B1 stage mitral endocardosis canine patient?
a. ACE-I
b. pimobendan
c. furosemide
d. none of the above

A

c. furosemide

72
Q

What CANNOT be determined by color Doppler ultrasound?
a. the presence of bloodflow
b. the direction of bloodflow
c. the speed of bloodflow
d. the character of bloodflow (laminal or turbulent)

A

d. the character of bloodflow (laminal or turbulent)

73
Q

Suture techniques. Choose the incorrect answer!
a. According to the number of layers can be single layer or multiple layer
b. According to apposition can be „layer to layer”, inward turning and relaxing
c. Something about interrupted and continuous
d. Regardless of the suture type, the knots need to be placed on the suture line

A

d. Regardless of the suture type, the knots need to be placed on the suture line

74
Q

ECG is mostly recommended when:
* A dog brought in for vaccines has a 200 bpm heart rate (i’d say this)
* A dog that suffered an accident has a 200 bpm heart rate
* A dog brought in with 40,8 C temperature has a 180 bpm heart rate
* A dog brought in for chip placement has a 160 bpm heart rate

A
  • A dog brought in with 40,8 C temperature has a 180 bpm heart rate
75
Q

ECG is mostly recommended when:
* a cat brought in for vaccines has a 150 bpm heart rate
* a cat that suffered an accident has a 200 bpm heart rate
* a cat brought in with 40,2 C temperature has a 190 bpm heart rate
* a cat brought in for flea treatment has a 120 bpm heart rate

A
  • a cat brought in for flea treatment has a 120 bpm heart rate - bradycardia!???????
76
Q

Suture materials. Choose the incorrect answer!
a. the size of the suture material is given either in metric unit (e.g. 1 – European Pharmacopoea) or in USP unit (5-0, United States Pharmacopoea)
b. catgut is a natural resorbable suture material
c. polyglicolic acid, polyglactin and polidioxanone are synthetic and absorbable
d. polyester, polyamide and polypropylene are synthetic and nonabsorbable

A

c. polyglicolic acid, polyglactin and polidioxanone are synthetc and absorbable

All correct but polidioxanone = Polydioxanone

77
Q

How can you differentiate a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular one on ECG?
a. ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause
b. a supraventricular extrasystole is always normal width
c. the p wave is always visible before the QRS complex in supraventricular extrasystole
d. the p wave is never visible before the QRS complex supraventricular extrasystole

A

a. ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause (i think)

c= (nope, it hides sometimes)

78
Q

Knot tying techniques. Choose the wrong answers! (multiple options)
a. In surgery a knot is considered to be at least two opposite direction half-knots positioned on one another
b. In case of synthetic monofilament suture materials less knots (3-4), in case of multifilament more knots (5-6) are needed for a safe tie
c. We can do a one-handed, a two-handed or an instrument tie
d. For larger vessel and tissue pack ties using an instrument tie is safer.

A

b. In case of synthetic monofilament suture materials less knots (3-4), in case of multifilament more knots (5-6) are needed for a safe tie

a= (first should be double and the second simple, so idk)

79
Q

A typical symptom of haemopericardium in dogs is:
a. strong pulse
b. systolic murmur
c. reddened mucosas
d. distant heart sounds

A

d. distant heart sounds

80
Q

Choose the correct answer:
a. during scrubbing in, in the skin of the forearm some bullshit about the number of cells
b. the back of the surgical gown is considered sterile after putting it on
c. if the sterile gloves break, it is always necessary to redo the scrubbing
d. the efficiency of the scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength of scrubbing.

A

d. the efficiency of the scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength of scrubbing.

81
Q

Which of the following drugs has no afterload decreasing effect?
a. amlodipine
b. pimobendan
c. digoxin
d. hydralazine

A

c. digoxin

82
Q

The most common heart disease in dogs is:
a. mitral endocardosis
b. dilated cardiomyopathy
c. subvalvular aorta stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

A

a. mitral endocardosis

83
Q

The most common heart disease in cats is:
a. mitral endocardosis
b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. subvalvular aorta stenosis (SAS)
d. PDA

A

b. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

84
Q

The most common heart disease in cats is: a. ARVC
b. DCM
c. HCM
d. RCM

A

c. HCM

85
Q

Which surgical method is the most recommended for diaphragmatic hernia correction?
a. laparotomy
b. lateral thoracotomy
c. laparatomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. sternotomy

A

a. laparotomy

86
Q

Which drug does not have a significant diuretic effect in small animals?
a. furosemide
b. torasemide
c. spironolactone
d. chlorothiazide

A

c. spironolactone

87
Q

Can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound?
a. yes
b. no
c. maybe
d. never

A

a. yes

SAM II (3 decks)

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