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PBS 603 MEDCHEM > MT 3 Materials > Flashcards

MT 3 Materials Flashcards

1
Q

DMARDs (Disease Modifying AntiRheumatic Drugs)

A
  • Methotrexate, hydroxycholoroquine, sulfasalizine, leflunomide, azathioprine
  • Organic gold compounds ( Aurothioglucose, Auranofin)
  • Penicillamine ( Cuprimine)
  • Chlorambucil ( Leukeran)
  • Cyclophosphamide (also anticancer)
  • Cyclosporine
  • Etanercept (mechanism - antagonism of tumor necrosis factor)
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2
Q

Chronic Gout Drugs

A
  • Colchicine
  • Allopurinol, Oxypurinol, Febuxostate (Xanthine oxidase inhibitors)
  • Probenecid, Sulfinpyrazone (Uricosuric Agents)
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3
Q

Short Acting Glucocortioids

A
  • hydrocortisone, cortisone
  • Prednisone, Prednisolone
  • Methylprednisolone
  • Meprednisone
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4
Q

Long Acting Glucocorticoids

A

Betamethasone

Dexamethasone

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5
Q

Intermediate Acting Glucocorticoids

A
  • Triamcinolone
  • Paramethasone
  • Fluprednisolone
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6
Q

Topical Corticosteroid

A

Bechlomethasone

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7
Q

Inhaled Corticosteroids

A

Beclomethasone, Budesonide, Fluticasone, Mometasone, Triamcinolone

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8
Q

Glucocorticoids used for anti-inflammatory effects and that have both glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid

A

Hydrocortisone, cortisone, prednisone, prednisolone

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9
Q

Glucocorticoid activity & no mineralocorticoid activity

A
  • Triamcinolone
  • Methylprednisolone
  • Fluticasone
  • Beclomethasone
  • Budesonide
  • Mometasone
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10
Q

Opioid Agonists

A

Pure Phenanthrenes ( 3 six carbon rings)

  • Codeine, Hydrocodone ( Weak)
  • Hydromorphone, Morphine, Oxycodone, Levorphanol (Strong)

Pure Phenylpiperidines

  • Alfentanil, Fentanyl, meperidine, Sulfentanil, Tapentadole

Pure Diphenylheptanes

  • Metadone (strong)
  • Propoxyphene (Weak)
  • Hepatic Metabolism
  • Toxicities: respiratory depression, constipation, addiction
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11
Q

Mixed Opiate Agonist/Antagonists

A
  • Buprenorphine
  • Nalbuphine
  • Pentazocine
  • Butorphanol
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12
Q

Opioid Antagonists

A
  • Naloxone
  • Naltrexone
  • Nalmefene
  • Methylnaltrexone
  • Alvimopan
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13
Q

Antitussives

A
  • Codeine
  • Dextromethorphan
  • Tramadol ( seizures if overdose)
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14
Q

Opioid Partial Agonists

A
  • Codeine
  • Hydrocodone
  • Genetic Variation in metabolism ( due to being metabolized by CYP2D6)
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15
Q

`Glucocorticoids ( Agonist)

A
  • Cortisol
  • Hydrocortisone
  • Dexamethasone
  • Betamethasone
  • Prednisone
  • Triamcinolone
  • Budesonide
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16
Q

Mineralocorticoids (Agonist)

A
  • Aldosterone
  • Deoxycortisone
  • Fludrocortisone
17
Q

GLucocorticoids Antagonists

A

Mifepristone

18
Q

Mineralocorticoid Antagonist

A
  • Eplerenone
  • Spironolactone
19
Q

Synthesis inhibitors (antagonist)

A
  • Ketoconazole
  • Aminoglutethimide
  • Metyrapone
20
Q

Most ototoxic (auditory damage) agents

A

Neomycin, kanamycin, and amikacin

Vancomycin

21
Q

Most Nephrotoxic agents

A

Neomycin, tobramycin, and gentamicin

Vancomycin

22
Q

induce ethanol intolerance, disulfiram-like reaction

A
  • Tinidazole, Metronidazole
  • Cefoperazone, Cefotelan, Cefamandole (Cephalosporins)
23
Q

Quinupritin/Dalfopristin (Synercid)

A
  • Spectogramins class of antibacterials
  • CYP3A4 inhibitos
  • Can cause myopathy (muscle pain)
  • Activity against aerobic gram + microorganisms
24
Q

Linezolid

A
  • Weak MAO inhibitor
  • DDI with SSRI’s
  • The first oxazolidinone created
25
Q

Beta LActamase Inhibitors

A
  • Sulbactam
  • Tazobactam
  • Clavulanic
26
Q

Which antibacterial would be the drug of choice for a patient with an upper respiratory infection and who has experienced an episode of bronchospasm following carbapenem therapy?

A

Telithromycin (Ketolide)

27
Q

Respiratory Fluoroquinolones

A

Levofloxacin, Moxifloxacin, Gemifloxacin

28
Q

Caution is warranted for which antibacterial/s in patients with renal dysfunction?

A
  • Penicillins (except Methicillin, nafcillin) and Cephalosporins (except ceftriaxone)
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Tetracyclines (except doxy & mino)
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Fluroquinolones (80% excreted through kidney)
  • Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim
  • Clindamycin (is excreted by both kidney and via bile tract)
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Vancomycin
  • Metronidazole
29
Q

Which drugs work on anaerobes?

A

 Clindamycin (drug of choice against B. fragilis)

 Metronidazole (drug of choice against B. fragilis & Clostridium species)

 Penicillin G (Clostridium perfringens)

 Ticarcillin (effective against Bacteroides fragilis)

 Piperacillin & Mezlocillin (more effective against B. fragilis)

 Imipenem (effective against anaerobes)

30
Q

Alternative drugs in patients with a history of severe (anaphylactic) penicillin allergy

A
  • Macrolides
  • Vancomycin
  • Clindamycin
  • Aztreonam (a monobactam; primarily indicated for Gram negative organisms and is not a drug of first choice)
31
Q

Exhibits excellent MRSA activity

A
  • Vancomycin
  • 3rd gen Quinolones
  • Tigecycline (IV only)
  • Clindamycin
  • Quinupristin-Dalfopristin
  • ceftaroline (5th gen cephalosporins)
  • Linezolid
32
Q

Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibitor

A
  • Beta lactams;
  • cephalosporins;
  • carbapenems;
  • monobactams;
  • glycopeptide antibiotics (Vancomycin )
33
Q

Patients allergic to sulfonamides antibiotics can have a risk of allergic reactions to

A

Celecoxib

34
Q

Gram-Negative Antibacterial

A
  • Aztreonam;
  • Meropenem;
  • Aminopenicillins;
  • Cephoslosporins ( 2nd and 3rd );
  • Ceftaroline
  • Fluoroquinolones (both - and +)
  • Aminoglyosides
35
Q

The mechanism/property attributed to the gastric ulcer by NSAIDs includes

A

Acidic functional groups and the ability to decrease gastric secretion by inhibition of COX-1

36
Q

eliminated mainly by the liver

A
  • Macrolides,
  • Ketolides (Telithromycin),
  • Lincosamide (Clindamycin),
  • Chloramphencol,
  • streptogramins (Synercid) ,
  • oxazolidinones (Linezolid)
37
Q

Which of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of penicillin-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Vancomycin in combination with 3rd generation cephalosporin such as ceftriaxone.

PBS 603 MEDCHEM (5 decks)

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