MSRA Flashcards

1
Q

Criteria for AKI

A

Rise in creatinine of 26µmol/L or more in 48 hours OR
>= 50% rise in creatinine over 7 days OR
Fall in urine output to < 0.5ml/kg/hour for more than 6 hours in adults (8 hours in children) OR
>= 25% fall in eGFR in children / young adults in 7 days.

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2
Q

Diabetic drug causing SIADH

A

SU - gliclazide, end in -ide

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3
Q

Night blindness, tunnel vision, black pigmentation in peripheral retina

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

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4
Q

Most common nephritic syndrome

A

IgA nephropathy - presents following upper respiratory tract infection - treat proteinuria with ACEi

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5
Q

Lump in ear canal associated with cold water swimming

A

Osteoma

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6
Q

First line neuropathic pain killers

A

Pre-gabalin, amitriptyline, gabapentin, duloxetine

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7
Q

Cushings triad

A

Irregular breathing, hypertension, bradycardia

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8
Q

Example of dopamine agonist

A

Ropinirole

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9
Q

What can help with rigidity, tremors in particularly in drug induced Parkinsonism

A

Procyclidine

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10
Q

When to treat campylobacter

A

> 8 stools per day, high fever, lots of blood in stool, last >1w

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11
Q

Amiodarone monitoring

A

Liver and thyroid function tests on a 6 monthly basis. Chest x-rays should be performed prior to starting

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12
Q

Stemi criteria on ECG

A

M, <45 - > 2.5mm in V2-3
M, >45 - > 2mm in V2-3
W - > 1.5mm V2-3
Elsewhere >1mm
New LBBB

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13
Q

What is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis in pregnant woman

A

Fusidic acid

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14
Q

C.diff mx

A
  • first-line therapy is oral vancomycin for 10 days
  • second-line therapy: oral fidaxomicin
  • third-line therapy: oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole
  • If recurrent episode within 12w - oral fidaxomicin, after 12w oral vancomycin
  • Can consider faecal transplant if 2 or more episodes
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15
Q

Obstruction of what artery can cause 3rd degree heart block

A

R coronary artery

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16
Q

How soon before surgery to stop COCP

A

4w

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17
Q

Cause of persistent ST elevation post MI with no chest pain

A

Ventricular aneurysm

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18
Q

Post MI - acute heart failure associated with a pan-systolic murmur

A

VSD

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19
Q

Normocytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia and AKI following diarrhoeal illness that turns bloody after several days

A

HUS - most likely triggered by E.coli

Most common cause of acute renal failure in kids

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20
Q

Retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma and encephalopathy in baby

A

Shaken baby

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21
Q

What to do if high risk tetanus exposure and had vaccines >10yr ago or unknown vaccination history

A

Give vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulins

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22
Q

M/F ages for precocious puberty

A

F - 8yo
M - 9yo

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23
Q

Itching after hot shower

A

Polycythemia vera

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24
Q

Cough, haemoptysis many years after TB - air crescent sign on CXR

A

Aspergilloma

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25
Q

First line tx for scalp psoriasis

A

topical potent corticosteroids. If no improvement in 8w try topical vitamin D

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26
Q

QTC changes with hypo/ hypercalcaemia

A

Hypo - Prolonged QTC
Hyper - Short QTC

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27
Q

Cluster headache tx

A

100% O2 and SC triptan, Verapamil used as preventative.

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28
Q

Obstetric cholestasis tx

A
  • ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief
  • weekly liver function tests
  • women are typically induced at 37 weeks
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29
Q

What medication causes dupuytrens

A

Phenytoin

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30
Q

Tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae. Crepitus may present on palpation

A

Gas gangrene - C perfringens

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31
Q

How long to wait for LP to detect xanthachromia

A

12 hours

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32
Q

Treatment for SAH vasospasm

A

Nimodipine

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33
Q

Small irregular pupil that do not react to light but accommodate normally

A

Argyll Robinson pupil

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34
Q

Baby with double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia

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35
Q

ABPI cutoff for PVD

A

<0.9

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36
Q

What is somatisation disorder

A

person experiences excessive distress due to a variety of physical symptoms, with no identifiable cause.

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37
Q

What does antipsychotic in elderly increase risk of

A

Stroke

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38
Q

What abx increases risk of Achilles tendon rupture/ tendinopathy

A

Ciprofloxacin/ levofloxacin

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39
Q

SSRI of choice in children and adolescents

A

Fluoxetine

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40
Q

Older person, bowing of legs, bone pain, isolated ALP rise

A

Pagets - bisphosphonate

Osteomalacia has bone pain, fracture, proximal myopathy, low vit D level

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41
Q

IM adrenaline dose anaphylaxis

A

0.5ml 1in1000

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42
Q

First line management for immune thrombocytopenia pupura

A

Oral prednisolone

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43
Q

Triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Ataxia (wide shuffling gait), memory problems, urinary incontinence

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44
Q

What can occur after E coli

A

HUS

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45
Q

What can occur after Campylobacter

A

Guillain Barre

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46
Q

Most common cause of death in those with CKD on dialysis

A

Ischaemic heart disease

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47
Q

What drug reduces the effectiveness of clopidogrel

A

PPI (omeprazole)

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48
Q

Anti Jo/ anti Mi

A

Polymyositis/ dermatomyositis

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49
Q

Anticentromere

A

limited systemic sclerosis

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50
Q

Antihistone

A

Drug induced SLE

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51
Q

Anti-Scl70, anti topoisomerase 1

A

Diffuse systemic sclerosis

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52
Q

Anti ro/ Anti la

A

Sjogrens

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53
Q

Anti Smith/SM, Anti DS DNA

A

SLE

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54
Q

Treatment for headlice

A

Dimeticone

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55
Q

Normal D-dimer level

A

0.5 or less

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56
Q

High fever for 3-4 days followed by rose coloured non itchy macular rash

A

Roseola infantum - sixth disease

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57
Q

What childhood rash can precipitate an aplastic crisis

A

Slapped cheek - parvovirus

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58
Q

Unsteady, <20, East Asian or American Indian

A

Friedereich’s ataxia - autosomal recessive

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59
Q

Peak age for kids with bronchiolitis

A

3-6m

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60
Q

What drug can mask warning signs for hypoglycaemia

A

B-blocker

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61
Q

What organism causes epiglottitis, sign on X-ray and management

A

Haemophilus influenza type B, thumb sign, ceftriaxone, steroids

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62
Q

What is dissociative fugue

A

memory loss and ends up in an unexpected place

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63
Q

What must you do for all babies in breech position after 36w

A

US hip at 6w

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64
Q

tietze vs costochondritis

A

tietze is swelling

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65
Q

what is the max permitted dose of lidocaine

A

3mg/kg or 7mg/kg with ephedrine

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66
Q

what is Asherman’s syndrome

A

adhesions within uterus causing amenorrhoea - occurs after dilation and curretage for miscarriage

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67
Q

bg of eczema, blistering rash, fever - cause, mx

A

Eczema herpeticum - admit to hospital, may need IV acyclovir

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68
Q

Drugs that increase lithium levels

A

NSAID, ACEi, Metronidazole, diuretics (Thiazides) - treat with IVI, dialysis

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69
Q

Benign fibrous skin lump. small, rubbery, usually solitary- dimple when pinch

A

Dermatofibroma

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70
Q

Raised purple plaques/ papule, HIV

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

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71
Q

HRT contraindications

A

Current or past breast cancer
Any oestrogen-sensitive cancer
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
Untreated endometrial hyperplasia

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72
Q

Reed-sternberg cells

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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73
Q

Alcohol causes LN pain - cause

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

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74
Q

Raised WCC, splenomegaly causing early satiety, abdomen pain - cause?

A

CML - philadelphia chromosome 9,22

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75
Q

confusion, ataxia, nystagmus/ ophthalmoplegia (abducens N palsy)

A

Wernickes

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76
Q

Dementia, ataxia, urinary incontinence

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus

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77
Q

When to do urine antigen tests in pneumonia

A

If suspect legionella or pneumococcal

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78
Q

Headache, diurnal fever 1w after returning from Africa

A

Malaria

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79
Q

Bone/ spine pain, proximal muscle weakness and hypocalcaemia

A

Osteomalacia

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80
Q

what shouldn’t be given prior to thiamine replacement

A

IV glucose

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81
Q

Main complication of neonatal jaundice

A

Kernicterus

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82
Q

Breast lump that changes size with periods

A

Breast cyst

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83
Q

Bleeding, mildly prolonged APTT, normal PT - cause and tx

A

Von willebrands
- tranexamic acid
- desmopressin
- platelet transfusion

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84
Q

What organism causes hand foot and mouth

A

Coxsackie

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85
Q

What organism causes chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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86
Q

Drugs that worsen glycemic control

A

Beta blocker, thiazide, furosemide, antipsychotic, steroids

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87
Q

infections that cause bloody diarrhoea

A

salmonella, e.coli, entamoeba, campylobacter, shigella, yersinia enterocolita

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88
Q

Diarrhoea, followed by liver failure/ abscess - causative organism

A

entamoeba histolytica

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89
Q

Old, weight loss, fear of eating due to abdominal pain - cause?

A

Chronic mesenteric ischaemia

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90
Q

Raised calcium, low phosphate, normal PTH - cause

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism - most common cause of hypercalcaemia

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91
Q

SE of adenosine

A

Bronchospasm, flushing, chest pain

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92
Q

Amiodarone SE

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, grey skin discolouration, corneal deposits, altered taste

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93
Q

Digoxin SE

A

dizziness, blurred/yellow vision, arrhythmia, insomnia, gynaecomastia

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94
Q

Headache, flu like illness, rising and falling fever following travel - how to confirm?

A

Malaria - Giemsa thick and thin peripheral blood films

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95
Q

flushing, high fever, skin mottling, rash over face, thorax, flexors, abdo pain and hemorrhagic manifestations. Hx of recent travel - cause?

A

Dengue fever - serology to diagnose

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96
Q

What is pellagra, how does it present, what deficiency causes it and what type of tumour is it associated with

A

Deficiency of niacin (vit D3) causes dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia. Associated with carcinoid syndrome due to neuroendocrine tumour - most commonly in GI tract

Neuroendocrine tumours can present with flushing, wheeze, diarrhoea

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97
Q

Delayed puberty and reduced sense of smell

A

Kallmans syndrome

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98
Q

Formula for plasma osmolarity

A

2xNa + Glucose + urea

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99
Q

Quick forming red lump with keratin, dip in centre

A

Keratoacanthoma

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100
Q

Hepatomegaly, diabetes and tan coloured skin

A

Haemochromatosis - autosomal recessive - diagnosed with raised transferrin saturation >45%

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101
Q

Most common inherited thrombophilia

A

Factor V leiden

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102
Q

Overdose causing Hyperventilation, nausea, confusion, tinitus and mild deafness - what drug and how to treat

A

Aspirin overdose - urine alkalisation, dialysis

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103
Q

Failure to thrive, symmetrical poor weight/ length, umbilical hernia

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

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104
Q

Poor height in child, subcut fat around trunk, immature face - cause?

A

Growth hormone deficiency

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105
Q

Patient on ITU with meningococcal septicaemia - develops adrenal insufficiency - cause?

A

Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome

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106
Q

Patient has hypokalaemic alkalotic hypertension - not on any diuretics - cause?

A

Conns/ primary aldosteronism

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107
Q

Widespread pain on both sides of body, upper and lower for at least 3m, fatigue, multiple localised tender areas (11 of 18) - cause

A

Fibromyalgia

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108
Q

How long after conception does a pregnancy test become positive

A

9 days

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109
Q

Thyroid lump in upper lobe, facial flushing, diarrhoea, raised calcitonin - cause

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

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110
Q

Slow growing painless irregular thyroid lump, LN spread, previous irradiation - cause?

A

papillary thyroid cancer

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111
Q

Most common cause of sterile pyuria

A

Partially or recently treated UTI - it is presence of leukocytes in urine without demonstrable infection

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112
Q

Pinworm infection - presentation and treatment

A

Itchy anus, worse at night - mebendazole

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113
Q

Skin pigmentation, weight loss, hypotension - cause

A

Addisons

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114
Q

Bilateral hydronephrosis with drawing together of ureters in midline - cause

A

Retroperitoneal fibrosis -

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115
Q

How to treat hypercalcaemia

A

IV NACL, bisphosphonates

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116
Q

Common causes of hypocalcaemia

A

Renal failure, vit d deficiency, acute pancreatitis, tumour lysis, parathyroid gland removal

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117
Q

common drugs that cause erectile dysfunction

A

Beta blocker, thiazides, finasteride, spironolactone, SSRI

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118
Q

Mild anaemia, low MCV and normal ferritin - cause

A

Thalassaemia trait

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119
Q

Low renin, hypertension, low potassium - cause

A

Conns syndrome

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120
Q

How to differentiate bowel obstruction from ileus

A

Obstruction - high pitch tinkling bowel sounds, ileum - absent bowel sounds

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121
Q

Pain and swelling in one hand - associated with skin atrophy/ skin colour changes

A

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (regional pain syndrome)

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122
Q

Cause of bright green on Congo red staining

A

Amyloidosis - extracellular deposition of abnormal proteins

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123
Q

Measles - cause and presentation

A

paramyxovirus - prodromal conjunctivitis, coryza, cough - then develops rash starting on face - white koplik spots on mucosa

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124
Q

How to manage potential scaphoid fracture

A

Cast anyone with pain in snuffbox - re Xray at 7-10 days

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125
Q

Young person with muscle wasting in hands, loss of pain and temperature sensation over arms and trunk in shawl distribution

A

Syringomyelia- fluid filled cyst in spinal cord

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126
Q

Difficulty chewing, swallowing and slurred speech - associated with MS, MND

A

Pseudobulbar palsy

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127
Q

When to not use DOAC

A

eGFR <15-30
Pregnancy or breast feeding
Hepatic impairment - transaminase >2x ULN or bilirubin >1.5x ULN
Mechanical heart valve
Weight >120kg

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128
Q

When to commence metformin and SGLT2

A

If known CVD or Risk >10%

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129
Q

20-30 yo, difficulty whistling and sucking through straw, winging of scapula. Eyes remain open when asleep.

A

facioscapulahumeral muscular dystrophy

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130
Q

Eye deviated upwards, difficulty going downstairs - which cranial nerve

A

IV - trochlear nerve

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131
Q

Headache associated with sexual activity

A

Coital cephalgia

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132
Q

If have asbestosis - what cancer most at risk of?

A

Lung cancer - not mesothelioma (is a lot more rare)

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133
Q

Pizza fundus - flame and blot haemorrhages - patient has HIV - cause

A

Chorioretinitis - due to CMV retinitis (are other causes)

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134
Q

What condition does Keratoconjunctivitis sicca occur in

A

Sjogrens

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135
Q

What genetic condition pre-disposes to COPD in younger individuals

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

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136
Q

Anaemia, bleeding/ bruising and recurrent infections in child - may also be bone pain, splenomegaly

A

ALL

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137
Q

Bilateral progressive symmetrical weakness, increased protein, normal cells in CSF

A

GBS

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138
Q

Recurrent rest infections, diarrhoea, sinusitis - need to warn Dr if have blood transfusion or IVIG

A

IgA deficiency

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139
Q

Dermatitis, recurrent infections of all types (particularly candida, otitis media/ pneumonia and viral infections), chronic diarrhoea, absent or small tonsils/ LN and failure to thrive

A

SCID - treat with bone marrow transplant

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140
Q

What is the cause of hereditary angioedema

A

low plasma protein c1 inhibitor - allows activation of complement pathway

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141
Q

pregnancy - severe abdominal pain, bruising, swelling after coughing

A

epigastric vessel rupture - rectus muscle haematoma

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142
Q

Repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements

A

Tardive dyskinesia

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143
Q

what test to do for acromegaly

A

insulin like growth factor 1 levels

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144
Q

What blood pressure medication limits statin to 20mg

A

Amlodipine

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145
Q

Serotonin syndrome presentation

A

Neuromuscular excitation, altered mental status, autonomic effects

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146
Q

delusion that are loved by celebrity

A

De clerambault syndrome

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147
Q

Delusion when identifies strangers as close friend or family member

A

Fregoli syndrome

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148
Q

Delusion family member has been replaced by identical stranger

A

Capgras syndrome

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149
Q

Delusion part of body has disappeared

A

Cotards syndrome

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150
Q

Flushing, dizziness, splenomegaly, itching worse after hot shower

A

Polycythaemia vera - causes thrombosis

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151
Q

what electrolyte change does rhabdomyolysis cause

A

Hyperkalaemia

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152
Q

3 most common causes of late onset HAP

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, staph aureus, klebsiella

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153
Q

Common causes of early onset HAP (<5d)

A

Strep pneumoniae, haemophilus

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154
Q

When to do urine antigen testing in pneumonia

A

If legionella or pneumococcal pneumonia suspected

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155
Q

What organism that causes CAP is associated with bulls myringitis

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

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156
Q

Most common cause of SIADH

A

Idiopathic

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157
Q

when to do knee X-ray in trauma

A

Age > 55
Isolated patella tenderness
Tenderness of fibula head
Inability to flex to 90 degrees
Inability to weight bear

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158
Q

Child < 2 presents with failure to pass meconium within 48hrs, longstanding constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting

A

Hirschprungs disease

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159
Q

What pain killer can cause short, self limiting tonic clonic seizures

A

Tramadol

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160
Q

What is prinzmetal syndrome

A

Cyclical angina at rest due to vasospasm also known as variant angina

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161
Q

First line treatment for biliary colic

A

NSAID e.g. naproxen

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162
Q

When is lithium contraindicated

A

Cardiac disease
Renal failure
Addisons, low sodium
untreated hypothyroidism
1st trimester pregnancy
Breastfeeding

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163
Q

X linked condition causing sensorineural deafness at birth, haematuria, eyes abnormalities, pyelonephritis and renal failure

A

Alport syndrome

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164
Q

Foreign travel, abdominal pain, bloating, constipation, fever, rash on abdomen - cause

A

Salmonella typhi (typhoid) - diagnose with blood culture - treat with ciprofloxacin

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165
Q

watery nasal discharge that turns purulent and bloody. Swelling of lymph nodes in neck causing bulls neck. Inflamed pharynx with grey membrane

A

Diphtheria - treat with antitoxin and IV ben pen for 10-14d

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166
Q

Intestinal polyps and pigmented freckles on the lips, face, palms and soles. - cause?

A

Peutz-jeghers syndrome

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167
Q

Aggressive rapidly growing lung cancer associated with paraneoplastic syndromes

A

Small cell lung cancer - SIADH, ACTH

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168
Q

red/purple bumps that become Yellow brown plaque on shin of patient with diabetes - surrounded by telengectasia

A

Necrobiosis lipoidica - can ulcerate and transform to SCC

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169
Q

Small red/ skin colour bumps on wrist, hands, ankles - form rings/ circles

A

Granuloma annulare is associated with thyroid disease, hyperlipidaemia and diabetes

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170
Q

yellow/white papule/pustules with erythematous base on 3d-2w old baby who is otherwise well - cause

A

erythema toxic neonatorum

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171
Q

When Is pericardial friction rub best heard

A

Left lower sternal boarder, sat up during expiration

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172
Q

medical management of ectopic

A

Methotrexate

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173
Q

Termination of pregnancy drugs

A

Mifepristone and 48hr later misoprostol
Give anti-D if after 10w if rhesus D negative
Multilevel pregnancy test that detects HVG level should be done 2w after

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174
Q

lateral epicondylitis - common name

A

Tennis elbow

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175
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of scarlet fever

A

antistreptolysin antibodies, pen V for 10 days

antistreptolysin also raised in post strep glomerulonephritis

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176
Q

Carbamazepine - what need to monitor and why - what drug need to be careful about interaction with

A

Monitor FBC as can cause aplastic anaemia - careful about interaction with COCP

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177
Q

How to treat supra ventricular tachycardia

A

Vagal manœuvre, if not then adenosine 6mg, 12mg, 18mg - 1to 2 min intervals

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178
Q

Condition causing rash and febrile seizures

A

Roseola infantum

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179
Q

Patient with arthritis, diabetes develops lump behind knee after twisting ankle

A

Bakers cyst

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180
Q

Yellow waxy rash on feet of people with reactive arthritis

A

keratoderma blenorrhagica

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181
Q

Pregnancy glucose diagnostic levels - fasting and 2hr, treatme

A

Fasting 5.6, 2hr 7.8

Fasting > 7 start insulin
Fasting 5.6-7 - 1-2w diet and exercise, if no improvement then commence metformin

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182
Q

What drug can cause anal ulceration

A

Nicorandil

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183
Q

Older man with bone pain, isolated raise ALP, bossing of skull and bowing of legs - cause and tx

A

Pagets, tx = Bisphosphonate

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184
Q

Dose of atropine for bradycardia

A

0.5-1mg IV repeated every 3-5min to max 3mg

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185
Q

What organism causes peritonsillar abscess

A

Strep pyogenes - treat with benpen and metro

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186
Q

Antepartum haemorrhage after artificial rupture of membranes - cause

A

Vasa praevia

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187
Q

Which diabetic drug can cause B12 deficiency

A

Metformin

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188
Q

what drug can interact with azathioprine to cause myelosupression?

A

Ace inhibitor

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189
Q

CKD eGFR definition

A

eGFR < 60 on 2 or more occasions separated by 90 days

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190
Q

Child pulling on ears, red swollen bulging tympanic membrane - cause?

A

Otitis media

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191
Q

Most common nephrotic syndrome in adults and kids

A

Adult: membranous, kids: minimal change disease

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192
Q

Most common cause of nephritic syndrome

A

IgA

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193
Q

White lump in external auditory meatus, hearing loss, ear pain, associated with cold swimming

A

Osteoma

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194
Q

when and how to treat campylobacter infection

A

> 8 stools per day, high fever, blood in stool, >7d length - clarithromycin

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195
Q

MI ECG definition

A

2.5mm V2-V3 in men <40, 2mm >40, 1.5mm women
1mm all other leads
New LBBB

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196
Q

what diuretics can precipitate gout attack

A

Thiazide like diuretic, furosemide

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197
Q

Treatment for breast candida

A

Topical miconazole applied to nipple and baby mouth after feeding

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198
Q

When to stop COCP prior to surgery

A

4w

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199
Q

When can start COCP post partum

A

6w

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200
Q

Cephalohaematoma vs caput succadeneum

A

Cephalo - forceps delivery, not present at birth, not cross suture lines

Caput - present at birth, crosses suture lines - associated with prolonged labour

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201
Q

Definition of hypertension in pregnancy

A

After20w: > 140/90
rise >30 systolic or >15 diastolic

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202
Q

Contraindications to External cephalic version and when to perform

A

Perform if breech after 36w
Contraindications:
* where caesarean delivery is required
* antepartum haemorrhage within the last 7 days
* abnormal cardiotocography
* major uterine anomaly
* ruptured membranes
* multiple pregnancy

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203
Q

punctate fluoroscein staining of cornea - cause

A

Dry eye

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204
Q

Cervical screening

A

25-49 every 3 years
50-64 every 5 years

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205
Q

Tender oedematous skin, hemorrhagic blebs and bullae, crepitus on palpation - cause

A

Gas gangrene - Clostridium perfringens

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206
Q

what meds contraindicated in HOCM

A

ACEi, Nitrates, Ionotropes

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207
Q

Meds for PVD

A

Statin and clopidogrel

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208
Q

How long after SAH does xanthachromia take to develop. What drug is given in SAH to prevent vasospasm

A

12 hr, nimodipine

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209
Q

Treatment for whooping cough

A

<6m old - admit
If <21d Clarithromycin - treat family, exclude from school for 48hrs after abx

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210
Q

DKA diagnostic criteria and mx, resolution criteria

A

Glucose >11/ known diabetes, pH <7.3, Ketones >3 or ++ on dipstick, bicarb <15. commence insulin at 0.1 unit/kg/hour. Once blood glucose is < 14 mmol/l an infusion of 10% dextrose should be started at 125 mls/hr in addition to the 0.9% sodium chloride regime. Replace K+ (>5.5 nil, 3.5-5.5 40mmol/L in each bag, <3.5 - ITU). Fluid: 1,2,2,4,4,6. Resolution when pH >7.3, Ketones <0.6, bicarb >15.

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211
Q

Diabetic with shiny, painless areas of yellow/red/brown skin typically on the shin. often associated with surrounding telangiectasia

A

Necrobiosis lipoidica

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212
Q

Causes of postpartum haemorrhage and definition

A

> 500ml blood loss
Uterine atony
Trauma - tear
Tissue - retained placenta
Thrombin - clotting disorder

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213
Q

PPH management

A

Bimanual compression
IV oxytocin
Ergometrine - not give if HTN
IM carboprost - not give if asthma
Rectal misoprostol
Balloon tamponade

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214
Q

Common cause of recurrent UTI in children, how to diagnose

A

Vesicoureteric reflux - micturating cystourethrogram

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215
Q

When to give dexamethasone in meningitis?

A
  • frankly purulent CSF
    • CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre
    • raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre
    • bacteria on Gram stain
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216
Q

Cut off for normal ABPI

A

<0.9 = PVD

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217
Q

Pain when walking, improves when sitting or leaning forward. No pain when walking up hill - cause

A

Canal stenosis

If similar symptoms but normal straight leg raise = facet joint disease

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218
Q

hormone levels in premature ovarian failure - how to test is ovulating

A

Oestrogen/ progesterone Low
FSH/LH high
Mid luteal progesterone (7d prior to period)

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219
Q

white cyst in mouth, mistaken for tooth - name?

A

Epsteins pearl - spent resolve

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220
Q

Fever, LUTS, lower abdominal/ back pain, urethral discharge and pain on ejaculation - cause and tx

A

Acute prostatitis - Ciprofloxacin 500mg BD for 14d

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221
Q

Bleeding, bruising and non blanching petechial rash post viral illness - cause (mainly in kids)

A

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

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222
Q

Safety net time period for forgetting POP

A

3 hours unless taking desogestrel which is 12 hours

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223
Q

Wide (>120ms) QRS in V1

A

LBBB

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224
Q

Abdominal distension, constipation, fever, pain, rose coloured spots on abdomen - organism

A

Salmonella typhi

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225
Q

Treatment for latent TB

A

3m of isoniazid and rifampicin or 6m rifampicin

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226
Q

Treatment of hypercalcaemia

A

1st - IV NaCl
2nd - Biphosphonate
If sarcoid - steroid

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227
Q

Drugs that cause bulls eye retinopathy

A

Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine - can also cause whorl like corneal deposits

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228
Q

What does CHADSVAS stand for

A

Congestive HF 1
Hypertension 1
Age - >75 (2), 65-74 (1)
Diabetes 1
Stroke/ TIA/ VTE (2)
Vascular disease (1)
Sex - female (1)

2 or more anticoag
Male 1 - consider anticoagulant
Female 1 - do not offer

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229
Q

What electrolyte can show kidney disease is chronic

A

Hypocalacaemia - due to reduced active Vit D

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230
Q

Graves disease, orange peel skin lesions - name

A

pretibial myxoedema

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231
Q

Physical developmental milestones when to refer

A

Baby should be able
- to sit at 7-8 months refer if not able at 12m
- to walk at 13-15m, refer if not able at 18m
- Refer if unable to smile at 10w

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232
Q

How to treat chlamydia in pregnancy

A

Azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin

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233
Q

What additional drug should those having a MI due to cocaine have - dilated pupils, hypertonia and hyper-reflexia

A

IV benzo and GTN
Reduces vasospasm which is the cause of MI

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234
Q

Bishop score and induction

A

Bishop <6
- vaginal prostoglandins or oral misoprostol
- mechanical e.g. balloon catheter

Bishop >6
- Amniotomy and IV oxytocin

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235
Q

Endometrial cancer RF

A

nulliparity
early menarche
Late menopause
Unopposed oestrogen
tamoxifen
PCOS

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236
Q

Diagnostic values for gestational diabetes - also targets

A
  • fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L, or
  • 2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L
  • If fasting >7 go straight onto insulin

Targets
- Fasting 5.3
- 1 hr post meal 7.8
- 2 hr post meal 6.4

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237
Q

What antibiotic do you need to stop statin whilst taking

A

Erythromycin, clarithromycin

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238
Q

Centor scoring (out of 4) - when to give abx?

A

Fever
Tonsilar exudate
Tender lymphadenopathy
Absence of cough

Give abx if >3

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239
Q

At what age is intermittent squint normal

A

<3m

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240
Q

What meds can reduce levothyroxine absorption so should be taken 4hr apart

A

Iron and calcium carbonate

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241
Q

Neurosyphilis/ DM, small irregular pupil that accommodates but not react to light

A

Argyll-robinson pupil

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242
Q

neonatal resp distress syndrome - cause, how can be presented, what can be given to wean from ventilator

A

Lack of surfactant, give steroids to mother, caffeine can help wean from ventilator

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243
Q

Overdose, hyperventilations, sweating, tinnitus - cause and tx

A

Aspirin overdose - urine alkalisation, haemodialysis.

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244
Q

Baby 1-2m old presents with episodes where turns blue, tachypnoeic and faint - cause, tx

A

Tet spell - caused by tetralogy of fallow - treat with beta blocker

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245
Q

Child: Pallor, dizziness, frequent infections, bruising, fever, bone pain - cause

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia - all 3 cell lines involved
- leukopenia
- thombocytopenia
- Anaemia

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246
Q

what can be used to ease pain associated with constricted pupil in anterior uveitis

A

Cyclopentolate
Also treat with steroid drops

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247
Q

sharply defined, ragged, painful ulcer on genitals with undermined border and tender LN - cause

A

Chancroid - Haemophilus ducreyi

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248
Q

Common ph/ electrolyte disturbance in cushings syndrome

A

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis

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249
Q

Red eye, gritty foreign body sensation, photophobia, hypopyon - cause and tx

A

Keratitis (staph or pseudomonas in contact wearer), topical ciprofloxacin, cyclopentolate for pain relief

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250
Q

Overgrowth of what bacteria causes BV

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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251
Q

How to differentiate IgA and post strep glomerulonephritis as causes of nephritic syndrome (haematuria, hypertension, oliguria)

A

IgA - 1-2d post, strep 1-2w

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252
Q

1st line treatment for CML

A

Imatinib

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253
Q

Cutoff for cup disc ratio being abnormal

A

0.7 (0.4-0.7 normal)

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254
Q

Intense itchy, burning blisters/ vesicles on palms - worse in hot sweaty environment

A

pompholyx eczema - emollient, avoid irritants and potent steroids

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255
Q

pustules on palms and feet with thick red scaly skin and hx of psoriasis

A

palmoplantar pustulosis

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256
Q

definition of neutropenic sepsis

A

Neutrophil <0.5, Temp >38

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257
Q

newborn child with dry erythematous rash on scalp with yellow scale

A

Cradle cal (seborrheic dermatitis) - emollient, reassurance, can consider imidazole cream

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258
Q

Second line gout urate lowering therapy

A

Febuxostat

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259
Q

RUQ pain in patient with history of chlamydia/ gonorrhoea

A

Fitz - Hugh- Curtis syndrome
- scar tissue and peri-hepatic adhesion formation

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260
Q

What diabetic med C/I in HF

A

Pioglitazone

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261
Q

Xray findings in child with surfactant deficiency

A

Ground glass

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262
Q

Only drug that prolongs survival in MND

A

Riluzole
May eventually require BiPAP/ PEG

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263
Q

Raised C-peptide - T1 or T2

A

T2

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264
Q

Thiazide like diuretic - electrolyte disturbance

A

hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia

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265
Q

What diabetic drug increases risk of bladder cancer

A

Pioglitazone

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266
Q

what antimalarial can cause anxiety, depression

A

mefloquine

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267
Q

papular lesions on back of hands, hyper pigmented and depressed centrally

A

Granuloma annulare

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268
Q

First line for raynauds

A

CCB e.g. nifedipine

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269
Q

What medication should be stopped when giving iodine containing contrast

A

Metformin

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270
Q

Heliotrope rash and gottrons papule are signs of what

A

Dermatomyositis

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271
Q

How to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome and serotonin syndrome

A

NMS - muscle rigidity and normal pupils - treat with dantrolene
Serotonin - increased tone and dilated pupils

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272
Q

What lung cancers produce SIADH, ACTH, Lambert eaton, PTHrP

A

Small cell - SIADH, ACTH, Lambert
Squamous PTHrP

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273
Q

What to do if DVT US normal but D-dimer raised

A

Stop Interim anticoagulant and repeat scan in 6-8d

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274
Q

Acute dystonia vs akathisia vs tar dive dyskinesia

A
  • acute dystonia - sustained muscle contraction (e.g. torticollis, oculogyric crisis). may be managed with procyclidine
  • akathisia (severe restlessness)
  • tardive dyskinesia (late onset of choreoathetoid movements, abnormal, involuntary, may occur in 40% of patients, may be irreversible, most common is chewing and pouting of jaw)
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275
Q

Drug/ dose for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine 100mg BD

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276
Q

Pred course in asthma vs COPD

A

COPD 30mg 7d
Asthma 40-50mg for 5d

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277
Q

Best antiemetic for Parkinson’s disease

A

domperidone

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278
Q

Hb lower limit normal, very low MCV

A

Beta thalassaemia trait

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279
Q

Dexamethasone dosing croup

A

0.15 mg/ kilogram.

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280
Q

What ligament is injured in a ankle inversion injury?

A

Talofibular

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281
Q

lymes disease management

A

Doxycycline

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282
Q

Raised LFTs and ferritin in patient with diabetes

A

Haemochromatosis

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283
Q

Liver, transaminases in non-alcoholic fatty liver disease and alcoholic disease

A

ALD AST>ALT
NAFLD ALT>AST

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284
Q

Small painless lesion that forms, and heals within few days, swollen LN, adenopathy and proctocolitis

A

Lymphogranuloma venerum

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285
Q

What antibiotic should be avoided when taking methotrexate

A

Trimethoprim and co-trimoxazole

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286
Q

How long after taking methotrexate, should men and women wait to get pregnant

A

6m

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287
Q

1st line mx of dermatomyositis

A

steroid

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288
Q

What drug should be given before for fibrinolysis to prevent clotting

A

fondaparinux

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289
Q

anticoagulant used during PCI

A

UFH with bailout GPI

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290
Q

Chalky white plaque on tympanic membrane

A

tympanosclerosis = calcification due to repeat/ chronic infections

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291
Q

How to convert oral to SC morphine dosing

A

divide by 2

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292
Q

screening tool for postnatal depression

A

Edinburgh scale

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293
Q

Name of bulls eye rash with tic bite

A

erythema migrans

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294
Q

First line treatment for prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonist e.g. bromocriptine, capergoline

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295
Q

HRT contraindications

A

Prev breast cancer or oestrogen sensitive cancer
History of VTE
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

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296
Q

Polygonal rash with white lines on surface

A

Lichen planus - treat with steroid

Can cause scaring alopecia

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297
Q

Fever >5d, red tongue, desquamation, conjunctival injection, lymphadenopathy - cause and treatment, necessary ix

A

Kawasaki - give aspirin, do echo

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298
Q

What abx can cause cholestasis

A

co-amox

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299
Q

Abdo pain, arthritis, haematuria, purpuric rash over buttocks

A

Henoch-schonlein purpura

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300
Q

Treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma - acute and definitive

A

pilocarpine (constricts pupil), IV acetazolamide (reduces secretions)
Laser peripheral iridotomy

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301
Q

Xray findings rheumatoid vs osteo

A

Rheum
- soft tissue swelling
- junta-articular osteoporosis
- joint space narrowing
- erosions

Osteo
- joint space narrowing
- subchondral cysts
- subchondral sclerosis
- osteophyte

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302
Q

eye pain/swelling, proptosis, rock hard eyelids, RAPD - cause and treatment

A

Orbital compartment syndrome - urgent canthotomy

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303
Q

what changes in eGFR/ creatinine are acceptable when commencing ACEi

A

25% drop in eGFR and 30% rise in creatinine

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304
Q

When is FIT testing offered

A

Every 2 years between 60-74

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305
Q

What conditions are associated with ankylosing spondylitis - all the A’s

A

Aortic regurgitation
Apical fibrosis
Ant uveitis
Achilles tendonitis
Amyloidosis
AV node block
CE

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306
Q

Management of POAG

A

360 selective laser trabeculoplasty
Prostoglandin analogue e.g. latanoprost
Beta blocker e.g. timolol
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor e.g. brinzolamide
Sympathomimetic - brimonidine

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307
Q

Knee pain associated with prolonged kneeling

A

Prepatellar (more upright, housemaids) and infra patellar (more leant forward, clergyman) bursitis

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308
Q

Injury from anterior force hitting proximal tibia e.g. dashboard of car

A

Posterior cruciate ligament

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309
Q

At what point in pregnancy should nitrofurantoin be avoided

A

Near term

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310
Q

How long to treat UTI/ asymptomatic UTI in pregnancy

A

7d

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311
Q

<55 or diabetic what BP med

A

ACEi

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312
Q

> 55 or black what BP med

A

CCB

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313
Q

Dose of atorvastatin if known CVD

A

80mg

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314
Q

What electrolyte level should be measured following long lie/ rhabdomyolysis and is it high or low

A

Hypocalcaemia - binds to myoglobin when being excreted

Can also get hyperkalaemia from myocyte breakdown

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315
Q

Older female presents with petechia, purpura, epistaxis. FBC shows low platelets - cause and tx

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura - treat with prednisolone, IVIG

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316
Q

Teenage girl or older person with arthritis, knee pain walking up and down stairs or getting up from sitting

A

chondromalacia patellae

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317
Q

Sporty teen, pain and swelling on tibial tubercle

A

Osgood schlatter

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318
Q

Knee pain after exercise, locking and intermittent swelling

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

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319
Q

Anterior knee pain worse after running, tender below patella - teenage boy

A

Patellar tendonitis

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320
Q

Small red lump in umbilicus - name and treatment

A

Umbilical granuloma
- application of salt/ cautery

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321
Q

Persistent urachus vs vitello-intestinal duct

A

urachus - urine from umbilicus
vitello - faeces from umbilicus

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322
Q

Most common extra-articular manifestation of IBD

A

Arthritis

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323
Q

How to reduce insulin for surgery

A

Once daily dose - reduce by 20%
Twice daily long acting - half morning, evening dose as normal

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324
Q

Burn - dry, red, painful, blanching - thickness

A

Superficial, 1st degree

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325
Q

Burn - weeping, blistering, painful, blanches with pressure - thickness?

A

Superficial partial thickness

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326
Q

Burn - red, leathery, only painful with pressure, non blanching - thickness?

A

Deep partial thickness

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327
Q

White leathery/ charred burn, painless, stiff - thickness?

A

Full thickness

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328
Q

Pregnant woman exposure to VZV - how to manage - no sx

A

Check vaccine status/ immunity
If neither of above:
acyclovir day 7-14 post exposure

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329
Q

Left homonymous hemianopia - cause

A

R optic tract lesion

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330
Q

L Homonymous quadrantinopia

A

Upper - R Temporal
Lower - R parietal

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331
Q

SCC margins

A

4mm if <20mm
6mm if >20mm

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332
Q

Painful heavy calves, pruritis, ulcers, swelling, varicose veins post DVT - cause and tx

A

Post thrombotic syndrome causing venous insufficiency
Treat with compression stockings

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333
Q

Very painful ulcer on lower leg bg of arthitis/ IBD/ haematological condition

A

Pyoderma gangrenosum - treat with oral steroids, infliximab, cyclosporin

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334
Q

What drugs can be used for cholestatic itch

A

Rifampicin, cholestyramine, sertraline

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335
Q

What antidepressant to give in diabetes/ Parkinson’s - why

A

Mirtazepine - Give as SSRI reduce hypo awareness

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336
Q

Patient presents with epistaxis, rectal bleeding and skin/ mucosal telangiectasia. Family member with same - cause

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia - Autosomal dominant.

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337
Q

AV nicking on fundoscopy

A

Hypertensive retinopathy

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338
Q

Treatment of epipidymo-orchitis old vs young

A

Old - ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin for 14d
Young ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly single dose, plus oral doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 10-14 days

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339
Q

CAP with erythema multiform and haemolytic anaemia - cause

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

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340
Q

Autosomal dominant condition causing exertion dyspnoea, angina, syncope. Systolic murmur that quietens on squatting and becomes louder on valsava. Bifid double apex pulse

A

HOCM
- Most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people
- Treat with Ca channel blocker, Beta blocker
- Heart transplant

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341
Q

How to differentiate radial tunnel syndrome and lateral epicondylitis

A

Radial tunnel - tenderness distal to epicondyle and pain worse on pronation

Lateral epicondylitis - pain over condyle, worse on supination

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342
Q

Drugs causing tinnitus

A
  • Aspirin/ NSAID
  • Aminoglycosides e.g. gentamicin
  • Loop diuretic
  • Quinine
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343
Q

What organism causes CAP with flu-like symptoms and a dry cough, relative bradycardia and confusion. Blood tests may show hyponatraemia

A

Legionella - urine antigen test, treat with clarithromycin

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344
Q

Chest pain, SOB, exertional syncope, ejection systolic murmur

A

Aortic stenosis

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345
Q

Apixaban/ rivaroxaban reversal agent

A

Andexanet alfa

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346
Q

Dabigatran reversal agent

A

Idarucizumab

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347
Q

Older patient presents with episodic sweating, palpitations, headache and hypertension - cause

A

Phaeochromocytoma

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348
Q

What electrolyte disturbance typically triggers digoxin toxicity

A

Hypokalaemia

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349
Q

What drugs precipitate digoxin toxicity

A

amiodarone, thiazide like, quinidine, CCB, spironolactone, furosemide

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350
Q

What chromosome is Huntingtons gene on

A

4

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351
Q

Farmer, sewage worker, river fisherman etc with:
- fever
- myalgia
- subconjunctival haemorrhages

A

Leptospirosis - contact with infected rat urine

Dry cough, headache, aching muscles
Can then develop Weil’s disease
- AKI, jaundice
- Hepatitis
- Aseptic meningitis

Treat with benpen or doxy

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352
Q

Salmonella/ typhoid abx management

A

Ciprofloxacin

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353
Q

Cellulitis second line abx if pen allergic

A

Clarithromycin

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354
Q

What type of RBC seen on blood film in DIC

A

Schistocytes

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355
Q

Young female with amenorrhoea, stigmata of liver disease and deranged LFT - cause

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

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356
Q

What drugs falsely lower BNP

A

Acei, aldosterone, beta blocker, diuretic

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357
Q

Haemophilia a - what factor deficiency

A

Factor 8

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358
Q

Haemophilia b - what factor deficient

A

Factor 9

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359
Q

Type of pneumonia that causes cavitating upper lobe disease in diabetics and alcoholics

A

Klebsiella

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360
Q

Has only been demonstrated to improve mortality in patients with NYHA class III or IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor

A

Spironolactone

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361
Q

What drug is strongly indicated if co-existing HF and AF

A

Digoxin

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362
Q

Peripheral cyanosis in otherwise well baby

A

acrocyanosis

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363
Q

How long to wait between MMR doses

A

3m

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364
Q

Groin pain, limited range of movement in 3rd trimester of pregnancy

A

Transient idiopathic osteoporosis

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365
Q

Groin pain, Femoral nerve stretch test positive - lie the patient prone. Extend the hip joint with a straight leg then bend the knee.

A

Referred lumbar back pain

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366
Q

All clotting factors low except factor VIII

A

Liver failure

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367
Q

When and how to treat bradycardia

A

If shock, MI, HF, syncope

Atropine 500mcg, repeat up to 3mg
Transcutaneous pacing
isoprenaline/ adrenaline infusion
Transvenous pacing

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368
Q

Neonate with feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, bloody stool, discoloured abdomen

A

Necrotising enterocolitis

On XR:
bowel wall oedema
pneumatosis intestinalis (intramural gas)
air both inside and outside of the bowel wall (Rigler sign)
air outlining the falciform ligament (football sign)

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369
Q

what helps differentiate episcleritis and scleritis

A

Scleritis causes pain, episcleritis does not

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370
Q

Cushings ulcer

A

Stomach ulcer after head trauma

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371
Q

Curlings ulcer

A

Stomach ulcer after severe burn

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372
Q

Advice for hip replacements to reduce dislocation risk

A
  • avoiding flexing the hip > 90 degrees
  • avoid low chairs
  • do not cross your legs
  • sleep on your back for the first 6 weeks
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373
Q

First line for excess sweating

A

Aluminium chloride
Iontophoresis - electric current
Botulinum injection

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374
Q

Young male smoker with cold, poorly perfused finger tips, ulcers - or patient with reynauds develops new ischaemia - cause and findings on angio

A

Buergers disease - corkscrew collaterals

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375
Q

Pain and tenderness over lateral thigh middle aged woman worse when lying on affected side, tender to palpation

A

Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

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376
Q

Burning/ paraesthesia over antero-lateral thigh, nerve affected

A

Meralgia parasthetica - lat cutaneous nerve of thigh

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377
Q

First line treatment of VTE in pregnancy

A

LMWH

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378
Q

Older woman presenting with bruising, epistaxis and petechiae - FBC shows isolated low platelets - cause and tx

A

ITP, oral prednisolone

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379
Q

Malignant otitis externa mx

A

Ciprofloxacin

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380
Q

Breast screening programme

A

50-70 every 3 years

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381
Q

Medical mx of PPH, which drug is contra-indicated in asthma

A
  • IV oxytocin: slow IV injection followed by an IV infusion
    • ergometrine slow IV or IM (unless there is a history of hypertension)
    • carboprost IM (unless there is a history of asthma)
    • misoprostol sublingual
    • there is also interest in the role tranexamic acid may play in PPH
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382
Q

How to differentiate crohns and UC

A

UC more bloody diarrhoea, faecal urgency and tenesmus

Crohns more malabsorbtive, whole GI tract sx

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383
Q

Pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which are up to 5 mm in diameter. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body (except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet)

A

Molluscum contagiosum - pox virus- no active treatment

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384
Q

What drug to give in phaeochromocytoma crisis

A

Phentolamin

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385
Q

White tongue, bleed when scraped, changes in taste, cracking at corner of mouth - cause and tx

A

Candidiasis - nystatin

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386
Q

Drugs to reduce alcohol consumption

A

Acamprosate - reduce cravings
disulfram - severe symptoms when drink

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387
Q

Treatment for atypical pneumonia

A

clarithromycin

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388
Q

Persistent ST elevation following MI with no chest pain

A

Ventricular aneurysm

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389
Q

What nerve damaged?
motor: paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below knee
sensory: loss below knee
reflexes: ankle + plantar lost, knee jerk intact

A

Sciatic

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390
Q

most common reason total hip replacements need to be revised

A

Aseptic loosening

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391
Q

Child with asymptomatic flank mass

A

Wilms tumour

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392
Q

When to offer urgent PCI for NSTEMI

A

GRACE > 3 or unstable

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393
Q

Common drugs that precipitate psoriasis

A

Alcohol, beta blocker, ACEi, NSAID, lithium

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394
Q

What level measure to confirm anaphylaxis

A

Tryptase

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395
Q

Sildenafil contraindications

A

patients taking nitrates and related drugs such as nicorandil
hypotension
recent stroke or myocardial infarction (NICE recommend waiting 6 months)
Can cause blue discolouration of vision

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396
Q

What drug used to open/ close patent ductus arteriosus

A

Keep open - prostaglandins
Close - indomethacin or ibuprofen

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397
Q

Coarse tremor, hyper-reflexia, polyuria, weakness, seizures, diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, muscle twitches and blurred vision

A

Lithium toxicity - treat with IVI

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398
Q

dry red regions become plaques with adherent scale - can cause scarring and alopecia associated with lupus

A

discoid lupus

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399
Q

Multiple misscarriages, skin rash - cause, APTT level and treatment

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome
Raised APTT
Low dose aspirin prophylaxis, warfarin after ischaemic event INR 2-3, if recurrent 3-4

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400
Q

What is pseudocushings

A

Symptoms of cushings associated with alcohol consumption that improve on cessation

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401
Q

Ptosis and pupil constriction

A

horners

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402
Q

Ptosis and pupil dilation

A

3rd nerve palsy

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403
Q

What to do if young person with hydrocele

A

2ww referral for testicular cancer

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404
Q

Neonate with
- SOB
- Sweating
- Hepatomegaly

A

HF

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405
Q

What to give women if GBS grown in urine during pregnancy

A

IV benpen during labour

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406
Q

When can you insert IUD/ IUS post pregnancy

A

48hr or 4w

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407
Q

Hypopigmented lesions more noticeable following sun tan

A

pityriasis versicolour - treat with ketoconazole

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408
Q

If pneumonia secondary to influenza what abx should be added

A

Amox + fluclox as caused by staph aureus

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409
Q

Tender swelling near edge of external ear canal

A

furunculosis - infected hair follicle

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410
Q

What type of testicular cancer causes raised AFP

A

teratoma (non-seminonatous testicular cancer)

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411
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

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412
Q

How to treat breastfed infants who have persisting symptoms of frequent regurgitation associated with marked distress

A

Alginate therapy (gaviscon)

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413
Q

What to do if Sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss

A

Same day ENT referral

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414
Q

Can HIV mothers breast feed

A

No

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415
Q

How to convert from codeine to morphine

A

Codeine/10 = morphine

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416
Q

transfusion threshold for patients with ACS

A

< 80

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417
Q

Metformin contraindications

A

Recent MI, Sepsis, AKI
dose should be reviewed if the creatinine is > 130 µmol/l (or eGFR < 45 ml/min) and stopped if the creatinine is > 150 µmol/l (or eGFR < 30 ml/min)
Iodine containing contrast
Alcohol abuse

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418
Q

How long to exclude from school the following
- scarlet fever
- whooping cough
- measles
- rubella
- mumps
- impetigo

A
  • scarlet - 24hrs post abx
  • whooping - 48hrs post abx
  • measles - 4d after rash
  • Rubella - 5d after rash
  • Mumps - 5d after swollen gland
  • Impetigo - until crusted and healed or 48hr post abx
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419
Q

Mx of Alzheimers

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor e.g. rivastigmine, donepezil
Memantine if can’t tolerate above

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420
Q

How to manage rheumatoid flares

A

oral or IM steroids

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421
Q

How to treat genital wart

A

multiple, non-keratinised warts: topical podophyllum
solitary, keratinised warts: cryotherapy

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422
Q

How to maintain remission if severe UC flare or >2 in last year

A

Azathioprine or Mercaptopurine

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423
Q

Do newborn inguinal hernias need surgical treatment

A

Yes

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424
Q

Excessive cough and lump in epigastrium

A

Epigastric hernia

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425
Q

A rare type of hernia where only the antimesenteric border of the bowel herniates through the fascial defect

A

Richter hernia

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426
Q

Amenorrhoea at 15, little or no pubic hair, groin swellings - cause

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome - treat with counselling, orchidectomy and oestrogen therapy

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427
Q

Best antiemetic for Parkinson’s

A

Domperidone

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428
Q

What organism commonly causes CAP in cystic fibrosis patients

A

Pseudomonas aeurginosa

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429
Q

How to treat venous ulcer - normal ABPI >9

A

Compression bandages

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430
Q

How to take bisphosphonate

A

swallowed with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medication); the patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking

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431
Q

Child with AKI, bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain, vomiting

A

HUS

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432
Q

Child presenting with petechiae but no fever following recent viral illness

A

Immune thrombocytopenia

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433
Q

Scleritis treatment

A

Oral NSAID first line, 2nd line steroid

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434
Q

Most common cyanotic heart disorder present at birth

A

Transposition of great vessels

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435
Q

Hip pain, stiffness and snapping sensation, previous perthes disease - active young adult

A

femoral acetabular impingement

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436
Q

Vasculitis associated with asthma and raised eosinophilia

A

Churg strauss

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437
Q

Should PPI be given prior to endoscopy in non vatical bleeds

A

No

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438
Q

What drug can cause protein in the urine (nephrotic syndrome) and exacerbation of myasthenia gravis

A

Penicillamine - have urinalysis 3monthly

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439
Q

What are reflexes like in severe pre-eclampsia

A

Hyper-reflexia, can also have papilloedema, low platelet

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440
Q

Army recruit/ runner presents with tender lump on top (dorsum) of foot

A

March fracture - due to repetitive walking - 2nd MT shaft

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441
Q

Badly swollen, deformed knee with bruising following trauma

A

Tibial plateau fracture

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442
Q

Weakness worse in morning that improves with movement, reduced reflexes, autonomic sx (dry mouth, impotence) - bg of lung cancer

A

Lambert eaton syndrome
- Small cell LC
- Spares resp muscles and face muscles
- steroids, azathioprine

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443
Q

Toddler with delayed milestones, calf hypertrophy, proximal hip girdle tenderness, raised CK

A

DMD - X linked recessive

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444
Q

25yo patient presents with long haggard face, bilateral ptosis, cataracts, frontal balding, distal weakness, myotonia, DM, testicular atrophy - cause

A

Myotonic dystrophy - autosomal dominant

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445
Q

Microcytic anaemia with normal ferritin

A

Beta thalassaemia trait

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446
Q

Two causes of pancytopenia

A

Aplastic anaemia (reduced stem cell production) and Myelodysplastic syndrome (abnormal stem cell production)

MDS commonly caused by chemo/radio and can become AML

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447
Q

What bacteria does a splenectomy expose you to

A

Encapsulated backteria
- Salmonella
- Haemophillus
- Neisseria
- GBS
- Strep pneumonia
- klebsiella

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448
Q

Management of intracranial abscess

A

Craniotomy
IV abx - cef+metro
Dex to reduce pressure

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449
Q

L sided neck lump present at birth/ early life - posterior triangle of neck
soft and compressible
typically not painful
no movement on swallowing
transillumination is detected
may interfere with respiration or compromise the airway

A

Cystic hygroma

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450
Q

Oval mobile painless cystic mass that sits between sternocleidomastoid and pharynx. Presents in early adulthood, slowly growing

A

Branchial cyst

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451
Q

When to screen neonatal hips with US

A
  • first-degree family history of hip problems in early life
  • breech presentation at or after 36 weeks gestation, irrespective of presentation at birth or mode of delivery
  • multiple pregnancy
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452
Q

When to refer for cerebral palsy during babies development

A
  • Not sitting by 8 months
  • Not walking by 18 months
  • Early asymmetry of hand function before 1 year
  • Persistent toe-walking
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453
Q

When is Men B vaccine given

A

2,4,12m

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454
Q

First line for urticaria

A

Antihistamines

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455
Q

How to treat hiccups in palliative care

A

Chlorpromazine or haloperidol

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456
Q

Round red lesion on scalp causing alopecia, becomes pustular and boggy - cause and tx

A

Tinea capitis - boggy pustular change is called a kerion

Treat with terbinafine, ketoconazole shampoo, oral griseofulvin

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457
Q

Erythematous, scaly plaques with an active, advancing, and often pruritic border. The centre of the lesion clears up as expands, resulting in ring-like appearance,

A

Tinea corporis
- oral terbinafine, clotrimazole

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458
Q

Tinea pedis management

A

Topical terbinafine/ miconazole

459
Q

Othello syndrome

A

Othello syndrome is the irrational belief that one’s partner is having an affair with no objective evidence.

460
Q

Itchy tense blisters without mucosal involvement

A

Bullous pemphigoid
- steroid

461
Q

Flaccid blisters progressing to erosions affecting mucosal membranes

A

pemphigus vulgaris
- steroid

462
Q

Systemic sepsis and changing lower lim neurology

A

Epidural abscess

463
Q

When to refer fibroadenoma for surgery

A

> 3cm

464
Q

Recurrent watery/ sticky eye in neonates

A

Congenital lacrimal duct obstruction - self resolves by 1yo - reassure, massage lacrimal duct

465
Q

Left subclavian thrill, continuous machinary murmur, large volume bounding pulse with wide pulse pressure

A

patent ductus arteriosus- give indomethacin or ibuprofen

466
Q

only method of contraception which has a proven link with weight gain

A

Depo Provera - injectable contraception

467
Q

Management of meningitis across ages

A

<3m or >50 Cefotaxime and amoxicillin

3m-50 Cefotaxime

IM benpen if meningococcal suspected
IV dexamethasone to reduce neurological sequelae

468
Q

Hairless following stressful period

A

telogen effluvium

469
Q

trichotillomania

A

compulsive desire to pull ones hair out

470
Q

How to decide between alpha/beta blocker and spironolactone as antihypertensive

A

K < 4.5 - spirono
K >4.5 - alpha or beta blocker

471
Q

Decolonisation regime for MSRA

A

nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine wash for the skin

472
Q

When to double levonorgestrel dose, how soon after can take hormonal contraception, how affect breast feeding

A

if BMI >26 or weight > 70kg
Can start immediately
Nil affect

473
Q

When to avoid ellaone and how soon after can start hormonal contraception, how affect breastfeeding

A

Severe asthma, 5d
Delay breastfeeding for 1w

474
Q

Anti-Hbs after hep B vaccine course

A

> 100 - good response
<10 - poor response, repeat full vaccination series
10-100 - booster

475
Q

What ix for adult with hydrocele

A

US to exclude testicular cancer

476
Q

Combined pill - increase/ decrease risk of what cancers

A

Increase breast and cervical
Reduce endometrial and ovarian

477
Q

Hep B antigens - what do they mean

A

HbsAg - active infection
Anti-Hbc - previous or current infection
Anti-Hbs - marker of immunity (previous vaccine/ infection)
HbeAg - marker of infectivity

478
Q

Flushing, diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and weight loss. Cause and investigation?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

investigation for this is urinary 5-HIAA, as the tumour will secrete serotonin. Treat with octreotide.

Octreotide also used for acromegaly

479
Q

Metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose

A

Alcohol

480
Q

Patient presents with confusion, hypothermia, non pitting periorbital and leg oedema, anaemia, reduced resp drive - bg of weight gain - cause and mx

A

Myxoedema coma

IVI
IV thyroxine
IV steroid

481
Q

Bowed legs in <3yo - normal or abnormal

A

Normal

482
Q

Main side effect of colchicine

A

Diarrhoea

483
Q

Downs screening dates

A
  • The combined blood sample can be taken from 10w - 14w + 1d PAPPA-A and BHCG
  • US 11w + 2d and 14w + 1d
  • The quadruple test 14 + 2 to 20 + 0
  • High risk women: offer them diagnostic testing using either NIPT, chorionic villus sampling (if less than 13 weeks of gestation) or amniocentesis (if beyond 15 weeks of gestation).
484
Q

What mutation is associated with prostate cancer in men

A

BRCA 2

485
Q

Pigmentation of bowel wall - name and cause

A

Melanosis coli - caused by laxative abuse e.g. Senna

Pigment laden macrophages

486
Q

When does pregnancy count as para/ + for miscarriage

A

After 24w counts as para irrespective of whether child is born alive

487
Q

When to treat subclinical hypothyroidism

A

> 10
5.5-10 on 2 occasions over 3m, age >65 and symptoms

488
Q

What is Bennett fracture

A

Fracture of base of thumb into 2 parts

489
Q

What to consider if otitis external not respondant to abx

A

consider aspergillus/ candida

490
Q

flu-like symptoms, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly and deranged LFTs

A

hepatitis A

491
Q

What drug should be used in caution for patients with sick sinus syndrome

A

Donepazil

492
Q

Needle stick in someone who not completed hep b vaccinations

A

accelerated course of the hepatitis B vaccine and administration of hepatitis B immune globulin

493
Q

What is used to calculate GRACE score

A

age, ECG, troponin, renal function.

494
Q

What phototherapy is first line for psoriasis

A

narrowband ultraviolet B light

495
Q

Patient presents with ophthalmoplegia followed by areflexia and ataxia. Associated descending weakness - after recent campylobacter

A

Miller Fisher syndrome

496
Q

When to start statin in T1 DM

A

older than 40 years, or
have had diabetes for more than 10 years or
have established nephropathy or
have other CVD risk factors

497
Q

When to increase statin dose in CKD

A

<40% reduction, eGFR >30

498
Q

CURB 65

A

Confusion
Urea >7
RR > 30
BP < 90/60
Age >65

499
Q

Newborn with SOB, CXR shows hyperinfalated lungs with fluid in horizontal fissure

A

Transient tachypnoea of newborn
Fluid in lung, more common post C-section

500
Q

Newborn with SOB, CXR shows ground glass

A

RDS - surfactant deficiency
Pre-term babies

501
Q

Newborn with SOB, CXR shows patchy consolidation

A

Meconium aspiration
Post term babies

502
Q

Heinz bodies - cause

A

G6PD deficiency

503
Q
  • Bone pain, muscle tenderness, proximal myopathy causing waddling gait.
  • Low ca, low phos, raised ALP
  • Translucent bands on XR
A

Osteomalacia

Due to Vit D deficiency

Give calcium and vit d replacement

504
Q

RLQ pain with prodrome of fever, bloody diarrhoea

A

Campylobacter

505
Q

What drugs cause corneal opacities

A

Amiodarone, indomethacin

506
Q

What drugs cause retinopathy

A

chloroquine, quinine

507
Q

What drugs cause optic neuritis

A
  • ethambutol
  • amiodarone
  • metronidazole
508
Q

First line Abx for COPD non-smokers with recurrent infections

A

Azithromycin

509
Q

Baby in first 24-48 hours of life presents with abdominal distension and bilious vomiting

A

Meconium ileus - most common in cystic fibrosis

510
Q

Waxy yellow/brown papule on feet associated with joint pain

A

Reactive arthritis - keratoderma blenorrhagica

511
Q

When to measure plasma paracetamol level after overdose

A

4 hours

512
Q

Osler vs Janeway lesions

A

Osler on finger tips, painful
Janeway on palm, non-painful

513
Q

Most common ovarian cyst

A

follicular

514
Q

Contraindication to triptan use

A

CVD

515
Q

Causes of spider navi

A

Liver disease, COCP, pregnancy

516
Q

When to women need contraception post birth

A

21 days

517
Q

What type of eye drop causes brown pigmentation of iris and elongation of eyelashes

A

Latanoprost (prostoglandin)

518
Q

What eye drop should be avoided if taking TCA or MAOi

A

Sympathomimetics (e.g. brimonidine, an alpha2-adrenoceptor agonist)

519
Q

What is seen on a blood smear in DIC

A

Schistocytes

520
Q

CCB - what used in angina

A

Monotherapy - Verapamil or diltiazem
With B-blocker - nifedipine, amlodipine

521
Q

What is puerperal pyrexia, what concerned about and how to treat

A

Temp > 38 within 14 days post partum
Concernded about endometritits
Treat with IV clindamycin and gentamicin

522
Q

Incarcerated vs strangulated hernia

A

Incarcerated - irreducible
Strangulated - ischaemia

523
Q

How to treat methanol poisoning

A
  • fomepizole or ethanol
  • haemodialysis
524
Q

Abrupt onset of haemoptysis, cough, shortness of breath, peripheral oedema, dark urine and oliguria.

A

Goodpastures

525
Q

Painless, monocular loss of vision in Marfan’s syndrome

A

Lens dislocation

526
Q

How to confirm h pylori eradication

A

Urea breath test

527
Q

Cause of hand foot and mouth disease

A

Coxsackie A19

528
Q

Electrolyte changes in rhabdomyolysis

A

Hyperkalaemia
Hyperphosphataemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hyponatraemia
Raised CK > 5x ULN
Myoglobinuria
Acidosis

529
Q

Treatment for Toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

IVIG

530
Q

Painless vision loss - starting peripherally and moving centrally

A

retinal detachment

531
Q

Schirmers test

A

Used to test for sjogrens

532
Q

Epididymo-orchitis - unknown cause

A

IM cef 500mg IM single dose, doxy 100mg BD for 10-14d

533
Q

Patient presents with :

Ipsilateral: ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy e.g. Horner’s
contralateral: limb sensory loss

A

Lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery)

534
Q

Patient presents with
* ipsilateral III palsy
* contralateral weakness

A

Weber’s syndrome
Midbrain stroke

535
Q

Most common cause or erysipelas

A

Strep pyogenes
- has sharp boarders

536
Q

Patient with bleeding/ bruising has large platelets, low platelet count and prolonged bleeding time

A

Bernard soulier syndrome

537
Q

amenorrhea, short stature and webbed neck - condition, heart defect, chromosomal cause

A

Turners, Single X, associated with bifid aortic valve causing systolic murmur

538
Q

Pink, irregularly shaped mark on back of babys neck

A

Stalks kiss - telengectatic naevus

539
Q

IIH management

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - acetazolamide, topiramate, repeat LP, shunt

540
Q

Boggy enlarged tender uterus - US shows ectopic endometrial tissue in myometrium - what condition

A

Adenomyosis

541
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes angular cheilitis, mouth ulcers, inflammation of oral mucosa, red sensitive eyes

A

Riboflavin - Vit B2

542
Q

Molluscum contagiosa cause

A

Pox virus

543
Q

Sever acne with burrowing and interconnected abscesses and irregular scars

A

Acne conglobata

544
Q

At what age should all children with suspected UTI be urgently admitted/ referred

A

<3m

545
Q

How to treat upper UTI in child

A

Cefalexin or co-amox

546
Q

How long after last drink does alcohol withdrawal occur

A

10-72hrs
- tachycardia, HTN
- tremor
- confusion
- seizure

547
Q

Conjunctivitis within first 4w of life

A

Think about chalmydia/ gonorrhoea

548
Q

Superior vs inferior Quadrantanopia - cause

A

Superior - temporal
Inferior - parietal

549
Q

Hypertension stages

A

Stage 1
- 140/90 - 159/99
- Home BP 135/85-149/94

Stage 2
- 160/100 - <180/120
- >150/95

Stage 3
- > 180/120

Malignant hypertension
- >180/120
- Signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema

550
Q

Colorectal screening

A

FIT from 60-74 - every 2yr

551
Q

Patient with symptoms of COPD but no smoking history, raised LFT on bloods

A

Alpha 1 anti-trypsin deficiency

552
Q

Iron studies in patient with haemochromatosis

A
  • transferrin saturation > 55% in men or > 50% in women
  • raised ferritin (e.g. > 500 ug/l) and iron
  • low TIBC
553
Q

Treatment for haemochromatosis

A

phlebotomy or Deferoxamine

554
Q

Travel history, recurrent UTI not improving with abx, sterile pyuria, fever

A

Genitourinary TB

555
Q

First line tx for impetigo

A

Hydrogen peroxide 1%, second line fuscidic acid - if systemically unwell flucloxacillin

556
Q
A
557
Q

How is HOCM inherited

A

Autosomal dominant

558
Q

Upper and lower resp tract symptoms and glomerulonephritis

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

559
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes bleeding of the gums

A

Vitamin C Ascorbic acid

560
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes Dermatitis, seborrhoea

A

Vit B7 Biotin

561
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes mild haemolytic anaemia in newborn infants, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy

A

Vit E

562
Q

What vitamin deficiency causes anaemia, irritability, seizures

A

Vit B6 Pyridoxine

563
Q

What is used to treat conjunctivitis in pregnancy

A

Fuscidic acid

564
Q

Papular rash with scales after tonsillitis/ strep infection

A

Guttate psoriasis

565
Q

Woman presenting with amenorrhoea, loss of libido, milky discharge from breast - endocrine problem and drug that causes

A

Raised prolactin - metopclopramide, prochlorperazine, domperidone

566
Q

Patient with AF and acute stroke - when to start anticoagulant

A

After 2w

567
Q

How to treat pain in corneal ulcer

A

Oral analgesics - don’t give topical as can cause further injury

568
Q

What investigation must be done prior to starting biologics for rheumatoid or other

A

CXR for TB

569
Q

2 level wells cutoff for US - time period to get done

A

Greater or equal to 2 - do within 4hrs

570
Q

Unpredictable, irregular bleeding that can range from spotting to larger volume bleeding - ix show no identifiable cause - diagnosis and mx

A

Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
1 - mirena coil
2 - tranexamid acid, NSAID, COCP
3 - Norethisterone
4 - <10w size ablation, >10w size uterine artery embolization or myomectomy
5. Hysterectomy

571
Q

Blood vessels on iris - cause and mx

A

rubeosis iridis - caused by retinopathy/ retinal ischaemia - treat with pan retinal photocoag, anti-VEGF - can cause angle closure glaucom

572
Q

Lump over Childs lateral eyebrow, contains mixture of tissues including fat, bone, nails, teeth

A

dermoid cyst - cystic teratoma
If in midline consider MRI for intracranial extension

573
Q

Young East Asian <20 presents with ataxia, kyphoscoliosis, clumsiness and deterioration in athletic performance

A

Friedreichs ataxia - autosomal recessive

574
Q

Young child 1-5yo presents with ataxia, recurrent infections and telengectasia

A

Ataxic telengectasia

575
Q

Primary vs secondary vs tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Primary - raised PTH due to pituitary adenoma
Secondary - raised PTH due to condition causing hypocalcaemia
Tertiary - raised PTH due to longstanding secondary - due to autonomous secretion following long period of hypocalcaemia - can cause hypercalcaemia

576
Q

Primary vs secondary vs pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

Primary - reduced production due to post excision, di George, pernicious anaemia, vitiligo
Secondary - due to hypercalcaemia
Pseudo - Due to failure of target cells to respond to PTH

577
Q

Bruising, epistaxis, purpura following infection/ immunisation in child

A

ITP - often not need tx, repeat FBC in 10d

578
Q

Lymphadenopathy, night sweats, splenomegaly, weight loss, fatigue

A

Non Hodgkins lymphoma

579
Q

Hodgkins vs non-hodgkins differences

A

Hodgkins - less common, upper body lymphadenopathy, spreads from one group of LN to another

Non Hodgkins - more common, affects LN all over body, spreads discontinuously, may be rash or CNS involvement

580
Q

Diagnostic level FENO

A

> 35 in kids
40 in adults

581
Q

Cushings disease vs syndrome

A

Disease = due to pituitary secreting ACTH
Syndrome = any cause

582
Q

Conns vs Addisons electrolytes

A

Conns - hypokalaemia, hypernatraemia
Addisons - Hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia

583
Q

Characteristics of innocent murmur

A

Soft, continuous or during systole, change with position, otherwise healthy, no thrill

Diastolic murmur always pathologic

584
Q

Graves treatment during pregnancy

A
  • Propylthiouracil in 1st trimester
  • Switch to carbimazole in 2nd trimester for rest of pregnancy (PTU has small risk of hepatotoxicity)
585
Q

UTI - nitrites +ve vs -ve

A

+ve in E coli, gram negatice
-ve in staph, gram positive

586
Q

What investigations to do for older person with persistent back/bone pain, renal damage, raised calcium or unexplained fracture

A

Myeloma screen - M protein (serum free light chains), ESR/CRP, FBC (low cell counts due to bone marrow infiltration - anaemia, bleeding ), Calcium, hence jones, U&E, blood film showes rouleaux formation

587
Q

Blood film finding in myeloma

A

rouleaux formation

588
Q

Rain drop vs pepper pot skull

A

Rain drop = myeloma
Pepperpot = primary hyperparathyroidism

589
Q

Asymmetrical loss of motor/ sensory function of individual nerves, associated deep aching pain worse at night

A

Mononeuritis multiplex- associated with diabetes

590
Q

Recent tonsillitis, presents with lymphocytosis and neutropenia

A

EBV - glandular fever

591
Q

Steroid responsive features for COPD management

A

Prev diagnosis of asthma or atopy
>20% diurnal variation
Raised eosinophils
Substantial variation in FEV1 (400ml)

592
Q

What is Evans syndrome

A

ITP with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

593
Q

Swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow. There may be associated pain, warmth and erythema. It typically affects middle-aged male patients.

A

Olecranon bursitis

594
Q

When to consider Familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

in adults total cholesterol (TC) > 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C > 4.9 mmol/l or children TC > 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C > 4.0 mmol/l, plus:
for definite FH: tendon xanthoma in patients or 1st or 2nd degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH
for possible FH: family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in 2nd degree relative, below age 60 in 1st degree relative, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels

Often treat with high dose statin - autosomal dominant

595
Q

Dextrocardia and bronchiectasis

A

Kartagners syndrome - primary ciliary dyskinesia

596
Q

Asthma, vasculitis, sinusitis, mononeuritis multiplex

A

Churg straus - Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

597
Q

vasculitis - pANCA vs cANCA

A

pANCA - churg straus (Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis)
cANCA - Wegeners (granulomatosis with polyangitis)

also differ as churg has raised eosinophils

598
Q

How many antenatal visits in first and second pregnancy if uncomplicated

A

1st - 10
2nd - 7

599
Q

When to give first and second dose of rhesus D

A

28,34 weeks

600
Q

When is booking visit in pregnancy

A

8-12w

601
Q

When is dating scan pregnancy

A

10-13+6w

602
Q

When is anomaly scan

A

18-20+6 week

603
Q

When to check baby presentation and consider ECV

A

36w

604
Q

When to consider iron in pregnancy

A

Hb <110 at 16w
Hb <105 at 28w

605
Q

What anti diabetic drug can cause cholestasis

A

Sulphonylurea

606
Q

What BP is an absolute contraindication for thrombolysis and how to manage

A

> 200/120
Give Labetalol

607
Q

Triad of longstanding CO2 retention on ABG

A

pH normal
CO2 high
HCO3 high

608
Q

Oral lichen planus mx

A

Benzydamine spray

609
Q

Flu like symptoms proceed a dry cough with cold AI haemolytic anaemia, vesicles on ear drum - Cause + treatment

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia - doxycycline

610
Q

BG of HIV, few chest signs, exertion dyspnoea

A

Pneumocystic jirovecci

611
Q

Treatment/ Ix for Giardia

A

Metronidazole
Stool microscopy for ovum and parasites, stool antigen tests

612
Q

Medial knee pain and increased movement of patella

A

Patella subluxation

613
Q

Heart defects in TOF

A

Overriding aorta
Pulmonary stenosis
VSD
RV hypertrophy

614
Q

What murmur is seen in turners syndrome

A

Ejection systolic due to bicuspid aortic valve

615
Q

High yield features of MND

A

Eyes spared
Fasciculations
No sensory involvement
Often get wasting of the small muscles of hand

616
Q

Palpable enlarged gallbladder in presence of painless jaundice - cause

A

Pancreatic cancer

617
Q

Cancer site and type of bowel resection

A

Anal verge - abdomino-perineal resection
Lower rectum - anterior resection (low TME)
Upper rectum - anterior resection (TME)
Sigmoid - High anteior resection
Distal transverse descending - left hemi
Caecal, ascending or proxcimal transverse - right hemi

618
Q

Overdose - lacrimation, salivation, urination, diarrhoea, hypotension, bradycardia, small pupils , muscle fasciculation - cause and tx

A

Organophosphide poisoning - treat with atropine

619
Q

What ix should be done to screen for cause of discitis

A

Echo for endocarditis

620
Q

Early vs late pericarditis post MI

A

Early - fibrous pericarditis (1-3d)
Late - dressler (w to month)

621
Q

What drug is used to prevent RSV infection in children at high risk

A

Palivizumab

622
Q

painful nodule on ear

A

chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

623
Q

When to refer sore throat under 2ww

A

If last >4w

624
Q

Hashimoto vs subacute thyroiditis

A

Hashimoto non tender thyroid
Subacute - tender thyroid

625
Q

What drug sensitivity is associated with asthma and nasal polyps

A

Aspirin

626
Q

Proteinuria cutoff for pre-eclampsia

A

> 0.3g/24hrs

627
Q

Indication for 5mg folic acid replacement in pregnancy

A

Obesity with BMI >30
Previous NTD child in either parent
Family history
Anti-epileptics
Coeliac
Diabetes
Thalassaemia trait

628
Q

Vision changes including flashers and floaters - cause

A

Vitreous/ retinal detachment

With retinal detachment get associated dense shadow across vision

629
Q

Target like lesions initially on back of hands, feet, spreads to mucosa - can involve mucous membranes - can occur post strep/ mycoplasma infection, herpes/ viral infection or due to drugs e.g. COCP

A

Erythema multiform

630
Q

What type of drug is bumetanide

A

Loop diuretic

631
Q

Cause of cold sores

A

HSV 1

632
Q

How to treat TCA overdose

A

IV bicarb

633
Q

Ethylene glycol antidote

A

Fomepizone

634
Q

cyanide antidote

A

Hydroxycobalamin

635
Q

most common primary malignant bone tumour - sun burst appearance, conman triangle on XR, pRB gene

A

Osteosarcoma

636
Q

Benign overgrowth of bone, mainly on skull associated with gardners syndrome, FAP

A

Osteoma

637
Q

Most common benign bone tumour - cartilage cap on XR

A

Osteochondroma

638
Q

Child with severe pain in long bone, blue cells, XR shows onion skin appearance

A

Ewings sarcoma

639
Q

Becks triad Cardiac tamponade

A

Muffled heart sounds
Hypotension
Raised JVP

640
Q

Baby born with patent ductus arteriorsus, congenital cataract, sensorineural deafness - what infection

A

Rubella

641
Q

Polycythema vera mutation and tx

A

Jak2
Aspirin, venesection

Higher risk get hydroxycarbamide and interferon Alfa or jak2 inhibitors

642
Q

puristic rash that appears in last trimester of pregnancy - may start in abdominal striae

A

Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy

643
Q

Excruciating pain, absent reflexes on bg of poorly controlled diabetes

A

Diabetic amyotrophy

644
Q

influenza after contact with dead/unwell bird

A

Chlamydophilia psittaci

645
Q

Examination findings in cerebellar disease

A

Dysdidokinesia
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Slurred speech
Hypotonia

646
Q

st line for excess sweating

A

topical aluminium chloride - other options include botulinum, CCB, anticholinergics

647
Q

Hb and platelet threshold in pregnancy

A

Hb <110
Platelet <100

648
Q

well circumscribed round patches of hairless

A

Alopecia acreta
- watchful wait
- Topical steroids or steroid injections
- minoxidil

649
Q

Young person with Weight loss, diarrhoea, RLQ pain

A

Crohns

650
Q

Recent infection, fever, painful thyroid and hyperthyroidism followed by hypothyroid

A

De quervains thyroiditis

651
Q
A
652
Q

Congenital disorder with high forehead, large testicles, large low set ears, long thin face, hypotonia, mitral valve prolapse

A

fragile X syndrome - tri-nucleotide repeat

653
Q

Elf like facial appearance, cardiac defects

A

Williams syndrome - chromosome 7

654
Q

Psudopolys on colonoscopy/ barium enema - cause

A

UC

655
Q

Cutoff in temperature rise to warrant stopping transfusion

A

> 1 degrees

656
Q

What blood test should be done in all women with hyperemesis

A

TSH - BHCG can act to increase T3/T4 in same way to TSH

657
Q

Presenting symptoms of compartment syndrome

A

Increasing pain despite resting
Sensory defecit
Swelling and tenderness
Pain on passive stretch of muscles

658
Q

Grey-white line around corneal margin - name and cause

A

Arcus senilis - hypercholesterolaemia

659
Q

Type of breathing seen in metabolic acidosis

A

Kussmauls - at first rapid and shallow, then becomes deep and slow, laboured and gasping

660
Q

What is a sign of septic arthritis rather than transient synovitis

A

Pain on passive movement, joint held in position that maximises joint space (flexion, abduction and external rotation for the hip)

661
Q

Forefoot pain, most commonly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. Feels as though has pebble in shoe

A

Mortons neuroma - nerve compression between metatarsal heads
Click noise on metatarsal squeeze
- metatarsal pad, referral if still ongoing pain at 3m

662
Q

What marker to use to assess for repeat MI

A

CK-MB

663
Q

Recreational drug causing dilated pupils, sweating, fits, tachycardia, nausea, nose bleed

A

Amphetamines

664
Q

Options for fungal nail treatment

A

Topical nail liquor
Oral terbinafine - 6w-3m for finger, 3-6m for toe
Oral itraconazole - 1w on 3w off

665
Q

Anion gap calculation

A

Na - Cl+HCO3

666
Q

Behaviour changes, headache, urinary incontinence in DKA - what has happened

A

Cerebral oedema

667
Q

First line abx for bronchitis

A

Doxycycline

668
Q

Impulsivity, emotional instability, intense and unstable relationships, suicidal thoughts, pseudohallucinations - type of personality disorder

A

Borderline

Pseudohallucination = hallucinations that individual recognises aren’t real

669
Q

Change to TB abx if TB meningitis

A

Use streptomycin instead of ethambutol

670
Q

Painful cutaneous nodules with gelatinous consistency - red/brown apple jelly appearance - bg of TB

A

Lupus vulgaris

671
Q

Painless skin nodules, abscesses overlying LN in patient with TB

A

Scrofuloderma

672
Q

Young female with chronic pelvic pain develops sudden onset pain following fall, trauma, sexual intercourse - tenderness and guarding on exam

A

Ruptured ovarian cyst

673
Q

Intermittent episodic severe retrosternal pain associated with dysphagia and feeling of food stuck in throat - corkscrew appearance on barium swallow

A

Oesophageal spasm

674
Q

Haemophilia a/b inheritance pattern

A

X linked

675
Q

Child with rose pink rash or trunk, back and buttocks, each macule surrounded by halo, fever, mild pharyngitis - cause

A

Roseola infant - human herpes virus 6

676
Q

Drug that commonly increases and reduces sulphonyl urea function

A

Rifampicin reduce
Fluconazole increase

677
Q

Definition of simple febrile seizure

A

Generalised tonic clonic
Last <15mins
Not recur within 24hr
Back to normal within 1h

678
Q

Name for most common damage to kidney in AKI

A

Acute tubular necrosis lido

679
Q

Horners syndrome, unilateral arm oedema, facial engorgement, hoarse voice - cause

A

Pancoast tumour

680
Q

Antidepressant of choice post MI

A

Sertraline

681
Q

Length of phenoxymethylpenicillin course for tonsillitis

A

7-10d

682
Q

1st and second line gestational HTN mx

A

1st labetalol
2nd nifedipine or hydralazine

683
Q

XR of child shows double bubble/ soap bubble sign in long bone

A

Giant cell tumour

684
Q

Valproate monitoring

A

LFT

685
Q

Pioglitazone monitoring

A

LFT

686
Q

Lithium monitoring

A

TFT, U&E, lithium level

687
Q

Methotrexate monitoring

A

FBC, LFT, U&E

688
Q

Azathiprine monitoring

A

FBC, LFT

689
Q

How long does ear drum take to heal, when to refer

A

At 6-8w

690
Q

FEV1 reduced, FEV/FVC >0.7

A

restrictive

691
Q

FEV1 reduced, FEV/FVC <0.7

A

Obstructive

692
Q

most common SE of varenicicline

A

Nausea

693
Q

Ipsilateral loss of motor and proprioception, contralateral loss of pain and temperature

A

Brown sequard syndrome

694
Q

Upper/lower resp tract (ulcers, sinusitis, pulmonary nodules/ ILD), pulmonary haemorrhage, saddle shaped nose and glomerulonephritis

A

Wegeners (Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis)

695
Q

White/yellow nodule on nasal side of cornea - name and what is it called if it grows over the edge of the cornea

A

pinguecula - if over cornea = pterygium

696
Q

White inflammatory patches on genitalia causing constriction/ phimosis

A

lichen sclerosis (aka Balanitis xerotica obliterans)

697
Q

What is used to stage Hodgkins/ NH lymphoma

A

Ann arbor staging

698
Q

FBC findings in myeloma

A

Anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia

699
Q

What vitamin is deficient in wernickes

A

Vitamin B1

700
Q

Asymmetrical tremor, rings in eyes, severe depression

A

Wilsons disease

701
Q

How to differentiate caput medusae from portal hypertension vs IVC obstruction

A

Blood flows towards umbilicus in IVC
Away from umbilicus in portal HTN

702
Q

Flasher, floated, reduced visual field and acuity

A

Retinal detachement

703
Q

Bartonella henselae - what is it

A

Catch scratch disease - fever, constitutional sx and lymphadenopathy

704
Q

What types of jaundice is always pathalogical in newborns

A

Conjugated billirubinaemia is always pathological, rule out obstruction - duodenal atresia

Within first 24hrs always pathalogical
- Haemolysis
- infection
- abo compatability
- Maternal SLE

705
Q

When can measure transcutaneous vs serum bilirubin level in newborn

A

Transcutaneous - >35w, >24hrs old, level <250
Serum - <35w or <24hrs old or level >250

Stop phototherapy once >50 below line

706
Q

What allergy is associated with penicillins

A

Cephalosporins e.g. ceftriaxone

707
Q

Small for gestational age cutoff

A

<10th centile

707
Q

Oligoclonal bands in CSF - diagnosis

A

MS

708
Q

Breast lump that changes size with period

A

Breast cyst

709
Q

Patient presents with amino acid, glucose, phosphate in urine and signs of rickets/ osteomalacia

A

Fanconi syndrome

710
Q

What do red cells look like on blood film in hereditary spherocytosis

A

small, round, hyper chromatic RBC without a central area of pallor

711
Q

Episodes of haemolysis and anaemia following infections - pallor, jaundice, abdo pain, splenomegaly

A

G6PD deficiency - X linked

712
Q

MS: Uhtoffs vs Lhermitte

A
  • Uhtoffs - worsening symptoms with increase in temperature
  • Lhermittes - electric shock sensation down spine when flex neck
713
Q

neurogenic vs nephrogenic Diabetes inspidus

A

Neurogenic = absence of ADH - low urine osmolality on water deprivation test that improves with ADH

Cranial = insensitivity to ADH - low osmolality on water deprivation with no improvement when given ADH

714
Q

Bloody diarrhoea, abdo cramps, fever and hepatomegaly -cause

A

entamoeba histolytica

715
Q

What can give to women with anti phospholipid syndrome if 3 or more pregnancies lost

A

LMWH and low dose aspirin

716
Q

Abdo pain out of proportion with clinical findings

A

Mesenteric ischaemia

717
Q

Focal liver lesion >2cm and raised AFP in patient with cirrhosis

A

HCC

718
Q

SOB, chest pain, tachypnoea after trauma but no acute signs on XR - cause

A

Pulmonary contusion

719
Q

Coin shaped lesions - begin as itchy/ vesicular/ papular - ooze and crust over - recur at same site

A

Discoid eczema

720
Q

What supplement for breastfeeding women

A

Vitamin D 10mcg daily

721
Q

What contraceptive should be stopped if older than 50

A

Injectable e.g. depro provera

722
Q

What antiepileptic can cause weight gain

A

Sodium valproate

723
Q

Newborn with blue/ purple marks all over body - cause

A

TORCH infections

724
Q

Toxoplasmosis mx

A

Pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine

725
Q

most common cause of otitis external

A

pseudomonas

726
Q

Short stature, short neck, shortened 4th metacarpals, obesity, dental hypoplasia

A

pseudohypoparathyroidism
Ca low
PTH and phos high

727
Q
  • Suprasternal continuous murmur
  • Different BP on R/L
  • Radial radial delay
  • Hypertension
A

Coarctation of aorta
= narrowing of a section of the aorta

728
Q

Gravida, Para X+Y - define

A

Gravida = number of pregnancies
Para:
X = number of pregnancies after 24w - twins count as 1
Y = number of pregnancies lasting <24w

729
Q

‘good baby’ poor feeding, poor weight gain, constipation, coarse facial features, macroglossia, large fontanelle, umbilical hernia may be present

A

Hypothyroidism - levothyroxine

730
Q

Short child achondroplasia vs GH deficiency

A

Achondroplasia - asymmetrical
GH deficiency - symmetrical - immature face, prominent forehead, puberty delayed

731
Q

Treatment for stable VT

A

amiodarone 300mg IV over 10-60mins

732
Q

What to consider if not on diuretics and presents with hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis and hypertension

A

Conns

733
Q

Causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and treatment

A

Lithium
Hypokalaemia
Hypercalcaemia
CKD
Demeclocycline

Desmopressin, Thiazides, NSAID, Sodium restriction

734
Q

Size cutoff for toxic megacolon

A

> 6cm dilation on AXR

735
Q

Rapidly growing thyroid lump commonly associated with hoarseness and dyspnoea

A

Anaplastic thyroid cancer

736
Q

Testicular microlithiasis

A

Small intratesticular calcifications, asymptomatic and seen incidentally on US

737
Q

Thickened, intensely itchy plaque forms from long term itching in patient with eczema

A

Lichen simplex

738
Q

A HIV test at what time rules out HIV

A

3m

739
Q

First line treatment of allergic rhinitis in pregnant women

A

Topical intranasal steroid

740
Q

Abnormal PSA levels

A

50-59 - >3
60-69 - >4
>70 - >5

741
Q

Cause of :
- Dull flank pain
- Hypertension due to obstruction of ureters
- Renal insufficiency
- Bilateral hydronephrosis with drawing together of ureters in midline
- Peri-aortic mass on CT/MRI

A

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

742
Q

Elderly person, not opened bowels, gradual abdominal distension , XR shows dilated bowel loops with gas in rectum

A

Pseudo-obstruction

743
Q

Patient presents with fever, cough, purulent sputum, weight loss - has been to GP and had multiple courses of abx with no improvement

A

Lung abscess - treat with clindamycin for 4-6w

744
Q

What kidney condition can cause berry aneurysms

A

PKD

745
Q

First line for absence seizure

A

Ethosuximide

746
Q

First line for myoclonic seizure M/F

A

M - valproate
F - Levetiracetam

747
Q

First line for tonic/ atonic seizure M/F

A

M - vlaproate
F - lamotrigine

748
Q

First line for Tonic/clonic seizure M/F

A

M - valproate
F - levetiracetam/ lamotrigine

749
Q

First line for Focal seizures

A

Levetiracetam/ lamotrigine

750
Q

What drug may exacerbate absence seizures

A

Carbamazepine

751
Q

Cutoff for giving anti D in spont misscarriage

A

12 w
- need to give in any medical/ surgical TOP or treatment of miscarriage
- Need to give in amniocentesis, CVS, ECV and ectopic
- threatened miscarriage > 12w

752
Q

Most commonly affected valve in IVDU with endocarditis

A

Tricuspid - otherwise is mitral

753
Q

Most common non STI causes for epididymis-orchitis

A

Ecoli, pseudomonas

754
Q

Best investigation to exclude Crohn’s flare

A

Faecal calprotectin

755
Q

Best antiemetic for metabolic causes of nausea

A

Haloperidol

756
Q

what type of drug is first line for BPH

A

Alpha blocker

757
Q

Patient presents with diabetes, diarrhoea, DVT, depression and widespread rash

A

Gluconoma

758
Q

What organism from undercooked poultry can cause diarrhoea and reactive arthritis

A

Campylobacter

759
Q

No urine output following urology surgery

A

Clot retention

760
Q

Treatment of anal fissure

A

Topical GTN/ diltiazem

761
Q

Most common epilepsy syndrome in children

A

Benign Rolandic epilepsy - seizures occur at night

762
Q

First line for shoulder dystocia

A

McRoberts manoeuvre (hyperflexion of the maternal legs) is the first management approach

763
Q

Auer rods on blood film

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

764
Q

What can long term overdose of vitamin B6 cause?

A

Peripheral neuropathy

765
Q

when to consider pneumonia in patients with bronchiolitis

A

Fever over 39° or persistent focal crackles

766
Q

What drug causes Heinz body anaemia?

A

Sulfasalazine

767
Q

What rheumatoid drug can cause demyelination

A

Etanercept

768
Q

What cytotoxic, drug causes peripheral neuropathy?

A

Vincristine

769
Q

How many hours after paracetamol ingestion to measure level

A

4- should give NAC by 8hrs

770
Q

Most common presenting symptom of posterior circulation stroke

A

Dizziness

771
Q

What eye drops should be avoided if taking a MAOBi

A

Brimonidine

772
Q

What diabetic drug can cause pancreatitis

A

Gliptin

773
Q

Pioglitazone side effects

A

Weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction and fractures

774
Q

Skin rash seen in rheumatic fever

A

Erythema marginatum

775
Q

What is erythema ab igne associated with

A

Exposure to infrared

776
Q

First investigation to identify if ischaemic or non-ischaemic priapism

A

Cavernosal blood gas

777
Q

What vessels are affected in posterior circulation stroke

A

Vertebrobasilar arteries

778
Q

How long should wait for d-dimer before starting doac

A

4 hours

779
Q

What to do if scan is negative but d-finer positive

A

Stop anticoagulant and repeat scan in 1w

780
Q

What rheumatoid drug can cause demyelination

A

Etanercept

781
Q

Lumpy breast with pain worse around period

A

Fibroadenosis

782
Q

How to treat severe otitis external

A

Flucloxacillin

783
Q

Definition of premature ovarian failure

A

Menopausal symptoms and raised FSH/LH before 40

784
Q

When is bow legs normal

A

<3 years old

785
Q

Are out toeing and knock knees normal

A

Yes - out toeing resolves by 2years, knock knees resolves spontaneously

786
Q

When to treat stage 1 hypertension

A

If age <80 and any of:
Target organ damage
Diabetes
Renal disease
Cardiovascular disease
Qrisk >10%

787
Q

Most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis

A

keratoconjunctivitis sicca - dry gritty eyes

788
Q

Definition and causes of oligohydramnios

A

<500mls at 32-36w
- PROM
- potters: renal agenesis and pulmonary hypoplasia
- IUGR
- Post Term Gestation
-Pre eclampsia

789
Q

Cause of poly-hydramnios

A

Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Diabetes
Multiplepregnancy
Duodenal atresia

790
Q

Salmonella presentation

A

Severe vomiting and high fever, can cause bloody diarrhoea, 12-48 hour incubation period

791
Q

Dry cough and bilateral painless parotid swelling

A

Sarcoidosis

792
Q

Causes of unilateral parotid swelling

A

Tumour (pleomorphic adenoma), stone, infection

793
Q

How to adjust once daily insulin for surgery

A

Reduce by 20% on day of and day prior to surgery

794
Q

How to adjust twice daily insulin for surgery

A

Reduce morning by 50%, keep evening as normal

795
Q

How does IUS prevent pregnancy

A

Prevents endometrial proliferation

796
Q

What to do if child with squint in GP

A

Refer to ophthalmology

797
Q

What type of ovarian cyst if ruptures can cause paeudomyxoma peritonei

A

Mucous cystsdenoma

798
Q

Most common type of ovarian epithelial cell tumour

A

Serous cystadenoma

799
Q

Painful bruises on shins - cause

A

Erythema nodosum

800
Q

How to treat toxoplasmosis

A

If immunocompetent no treatment needed
If immunocompromised - pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine

801
Q

What should all children with asthma exacerbation be given

A

Prednisolone - 3-5 days
10mg if <2
20mg if 2-5
30-40 if >5

802
Q

Young child presents with pellagra, red scaly photosensitive rash , neuro involvement with fainting followed by stiffness and spasticity.

A

Hartnup disease

803
Q

Risk of dapagliflozin

A

LL amputation
fourniers
Normoglycaemic ketoacidosis
UTI

804
Q

Whooping cough tx

A

Clarithromycin if within 21 days of cough onset

805
Q

CT head showing temporal lobe changes - cause

A

Herpes encephalitis

806
Q

Most common cause of argyll Robinson pupil

A

Diabetes

807
Q

What can affect urea breath test

A

Urea breath test - no antibiotics in past 4 weeks, no antisecretory drugs (e.g. PPI) in past 2 weeks

808
Q

What can artificially increase/ decrease HbA1c

A

Increase - B12/ folate, splenectomy, IDA
Decrease - sickle, thalassaemia, G6PD, spherocytosis

809
Q

Night blindness and tunnel vision with family history - cause

A

Retinitis pigmentosa

810
Q

Lithium monitoring

A

Weekly after every dose change - 12 hours post dose. Once stable monitor 3 monthly
TFT, U&E every 6m

811
Q

Drugs causing lung fibrosis

A

Amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate, sulfasalazine, nitrofurantoin, bromocriptine, cabergoline

812
Q

Croup cause

A

parainfluenza virus

813
Q

Ix for renal colic, 1st line pain relief

A

Non contrast CT, IM diclofenac

814
Q

When to give platelets/ ffp

A

Platelets if bleeding + <30, surgery + <50, no symptoms and <10
ffp if fibrinogen <1 of PT > 1.5x normal

815
Q

women that should be started on low dose aspirin for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis - when to start

A

AI condition
Diabetes
CKD
HTN in previous pregnancy
Chronic hypertension
Take from 12 w

816
Q

HSV 1 vs 2

A

1 - oral ulcers
2 - genital ulcers

817
Q

What to do if primary herpes attack at > 28w gestation

A

Elective C section

818
Q

Young person with bilateral vision loss colour desaturation - no pain, -optic disc oedema on fundoscopy

A

Lebers optic neuropathy

819
Q

Gentamicin - what to do if peak/ trough level are high

A

Peak - reduce dose
Trough - increase dose interval

820
Q

What drug to give in SVT if patient has asthma

A

Verapamil

821
Q

Causes of aortic stenosis in children

A

Williams, turners, coarctation of aorta

822
Q

When can fly post pneumothorax

A

1w after check Xray if complete resolution

823
Q

What GRACE score indicates need for coronary angiography +/- PCI

A

> 3%

824
Q

Baby with pulmonary stenosis, pectus excavatum

A

Noonans syndrome

825
Q

When to start DOAC if stroke, found to be in AF

A

After 2w

826
Q

Symptoms of Hodgkins that represent poor prognosis

A

Weight loss >10% in last 6m
Temp >38
Night sweats

827
Q

What should be given to patient if ascites and protein < 15

A

Ciprofloxacin for SBP prophylaxis

828
Q

Diagnostic neutrophil value for SBP - treatment

A

> 250 - IV cefotaxime

829
Q

How long during pregnancy to take folic acid replacement

A

until 12w

830
Q

Diagnosis if fever headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizure and vomiting - most common cause

A

Encephalitis - most common cause = HSV-1

831
Q

Section 2

A

Admission for assessment up to 28d 2 doctors

832
Q

Section 3

A

Admission for treatment up to 6m, can be renewed

833
Q

Section 4

A

72 hour assessment order, single healthcare professional

834
Q

section 17a

A

Community treatment order, can recall to hospital

835
Q

Section 136

A

Taken from public place to place of safety for up to 24hrs

836
Q

Most common bacterial cause of endocarditis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

837
Q

Unilateral dilated pupil, sluggish response to light - what ix and why

A

CT head to assess for raised ICP and tentorial herniation causing 3rd nerve palsy

838
Q

Most common cause of bacterial endocarditis, following prosthetic valve surgery

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

839
Q

How to treat genital warts - multiple vs solitary

A

Multiple, non keratinised - podophyllum
Solitary, keratinised - cryotherapy

840
Q

What drug can cause acute dystonia in children?

A

Prochlorperazine

841
Q

How to treat anorexia in palliative patients

A

Prednisolone or dexamethasone

842
Q

What is decubitus angina

A

Angina when lying flat

843
Q

What kind of murmur occurs in mitral regurg

A

Pansystolic

844
Q

What size of AAA should have 3 monthly surveillance, what size should be referred urgently via 2ww

A

> 4.5cm - 3m
5.5 - urgent surgical review 2ww
3-5.5 - vascular review within 12w

845
Q

What 2 vaccines need to be given 4w apart

A

Yellow fever and MMR

846
Q

Patient has longstanding transient synovitis - >6w - what has happened

A

Developed perthes disease

847
Q

Treatment of narcolepsy

A

Modafinil

848
Q

Child presenting with headache followed by cough, wheeze and crackles on chest - cause and tx

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae - oral clari

849
Q

Inspiratory stridor: high-pitched and crowing. This is usually intermittent, occurring in the supine position e.g. when the child lies on its back, when feeding or when agitated

A

Laryngomalacia

850
Q

Contraindications for POP

A

Acute porphyria and current breast cancer

851
Q

Young child presents with anaemia, failure to thrive and frontal bossing

A

Thalassaemia

852
Q

Monochorionic (identical) - why should have US every 2w

A

To check for twin twin transfusion syndrome

853
Q

Painless genital ulcer with lymphadenopathy later patient develops pustular urethral discharge and pain when passing stool

A

Lymphogranuloma venereum

854
Q

Teardrop cells on blood film

A

Myelofibrosis

855
Q

What can precipitate a G6PD crisis

A

Thiazides, ciprofloxacin, fava beans

856
Q

Child with haemarthrosis, bleeding into joints/ muscles - cause

A

Haemophilia

857
Q

Elderly person sat next to heater presents with reticulated erythematous rash

A

Erythema ab igne

858
Q

Rash treated with steroid worsened rapidly - why

A

Infected

859
Q

TIBC in IDA vs anaemia of chronic disease

A

TIBC raised in IDA as want more iron, low or normal in anaemia of chronic disease

860
Q

Defect of what immune component can make susceptible to recurrent meningococcal infection

A

Complement defect

861
Q

Child turns blue and LOC when crying - cause and mx

A

Breath holding attack, reassurance - most grow out of it by 5yr

862
Q

Young person presents with falls, difficulty running, pes cavus, muscle atrophy/ weakness, loss of ankle reflexes and loss of sensation

A

Charcot marie tooth - motor sensory neuropathy

863
Q

Young child presents with sensorineural hearing loss, cerebral palsy, developmental delay and CT head shows intracranial calcification - cause

A

Congenital CMV infection

864
Q

Childhood condition with sensorineural deafness and hypothyroid/ goitre

A

Pendred syndrome

865
Q

Most common cause of diarrhoea in those with HIV

A

Cryptosporidium - treat with Nitazoxanide

866
Q

How to take bisphosphonates

A

Empty stomach 30 mins before breakfast, stand or sit upright for 30mins after taking

867
Q

How much to increase TSH in pregnancy

A

25-50mcg

868
Q

Erythematous oval scaly lesions - starts with single patch then spreads across trunk following lines of langer

A

Pityriasis rosea

869
Q

Rash more noticeable following a sun tan

A

Pityriasis versicolour

870
Q

Visual hallucinations and worse vision at night

A

Charles bonnet syndrome due to macular degeneration

871
Q

Painless loss of vision, swollen eyelid, proptosis, swollen optic disc - cause

A

Posterior scleritis

872
Q

What test can differentiate between cardiac and non cardiac causes of hypoxia in neonates

A

Nitrogen washout test - give 100% O2 for 10 mins, if pO2 < 15 on gas then is cardiac - TOF, transposition or tricuspid atresia

873
Q

Deficiency causing red crusted lesions, alopecia, short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geogaphia (ingesting clay/soil)

A

Zinc deficiency

874
Q

When can treat ectopic medically

A

No rupture
<35mm
No heart beat
No symptoms
B-HCG <1000

875
Q

Emotional lability, depression, asymmetrical tremor and stigmata of liver disease - cause

A

Wilsons disease

876
Q

What does the heel prick test look for

A

Cystic fibrosis, MCADD, PKU, sickle cell, congenital hypothyroidism

877
Q
A
878
Q

How to treat severe propranolol overdose not responding to atropine

A

Glucagon

879
Q

Recurrent episodes of pruritis, jaundice, abdo pain and fever. Bg of IBD

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

880
Q

Patient presents with lethargy, constipation, non pitting oedema of ankles. FBC shows monochromic macrocytic anaemia - cause

A

Hypothyroid

881
Q

Lemon tinge to skin and glossitis

A

B12/ folate deficiency

882
Q

What diabetic drug increases fracture risk

A

Pioglitazone

883
Q

Pulmonary fibrosis in coal miners who have rheumatoid arthritis - cause and signs on CXR

A

Caplan’s syndrome - multiple, round, well defined nodules

884
Q

What is given as prophylaxis for contacts of meningococcal meningitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

885
Q

Toxoplasmosis mx during pregnancy

A

If mum affected spiramycin
If baby also infected then pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine

886
Q

Treatment of organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

887
Q

Example alpha blocker used for phaeochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine

888
Q

Definition of impaired glucose tolerance

A

Fasting <7, OGTT 2hr value 7.8-11.1

889
Q

Definition of impaired fasting glucose

A

Fasting >6.1, <7

890
Q

What abx lowers seizure threshold

A

Ciprofloxacin

891
Q

How to differentiate Parkinson’s from dementia with Lewy bodies

A

Depends if motor/ rigidity/ tremor develop first or dementia, confusion etc - often have REM sleep disorders in patients with DLB

892
Q

How to treat flexural psoriasis

A

Steroid cream

893
Q

What type of blood product has the highest risk of bacterial contamination

A

Platelets

894
Q

Child presents with triad of infrequent generalised seizures, daytime absences and involuntary shock like jerking movements

A

Janz syndrome, juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

895
Q

What cytotoxic agent causes hypomagnesaemia

A

Cisplatin

896
Q

What methods of contraception are unaffected by enzyme inducing drugs

A

Examples of contraceptives that are unaffected by EIDs are:
Copper intrauterine device
Progesterone injection (Depo-provera)
Mirena intrauterine system

897
Q

Marker associated with anti phospholipid syndrome

A

Anti- cardiolipin

898
Q

What eye drop can cause low potassium, paraesthesia and dyspepsia and should be avoided in pregnancy ?

A

Dorzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

899
Q

Recurrence of cloudy vision following cataract surgery

A

Posterior capsule thickening

900
Q

3d old presents with scaphoid abdomen, poor feeding and bilious vomiting

A

Duodenal atresia

901
Q

10d old baby presents with abdominal distension and mass, hx of prolonged meconium passage, may have bleeding from the rectum

A

Intussuseption

902
Q

Painful growth within longstanding ulcer

A

Marjolins ulcer - a cutaneous malignancy

903
Q

What criteria is used to diagnose rheumatic fever

A

Jones’ criteria

904
Q

Non cystic manifestations of PKD

A

Berry aneurysms, mitral valve prolapse, colonic diverticula, renal cell carcinoma

905
Q

Proximal fibula and malleolar fracture - cause

A

Maisonneuve fracture

906
Q

How to differentiate viral and bacterial meningitis from the CSF

A

Bacterial - low glucose, neutrophils and raised protein
Viral - normal glucose, lymphocytes and raised/ normal proteins

907
Q

Rockall scoring - GI bleed - factors

A

Age, comorbid status, signs of haemorrhage on endoscopy, SBP

908
Q

What is functional incontinence

A

Physical or mental disability that stops from passing urine normally despite normal urinary tract e.g. parkinsons

909
Q

Causes of overflow incontinence

A

BPH causing obstruction, neurological conditions, neuropathy due to diabetes mellitus

910
Q

Cause of hemiballismus - how presents

A

Unilateral involuntary flailing movements - caused by infarct/ haemorrhage in sub thalamic nucleus

911
Q

Patient presents with features of meningitis, CSF sample shows organism that stains positive with India ink

A

Cryptococcosis

912
Q

Criteria for pre-eclampsia referral

A

Rise in BP >30/20 over booking, >160/120 or >140/90 with proteinuria, symptoms, IUGR

913
Q

Patient with endometritis symptoms has ongoing fevers despite abx and resolution of pain

A

Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis - Treat with heparin

914
Q

Foetal scalp pH that indicates possible foetal distress and hypoxia

A

pH < 7.19 - immediate C-section

915
Q

What should be done if meconium stained liquor

A

Immediate induction with continuous CTG

916
Q

Patient in late pregnancy presents with painless bleeding

A

Placenta praevia

917
Q

Acute pain and swelling in cheek

A

sialolithiasis

918
Q

When should foetal poles be visible

A

6w

919
Q

Condition causing telengectasia, recurrent epistaxis with positive family history

A

osler webber rendu (hereditary hemorrhagic telengectasia)

920
Q
A
921
Q

Low grade fever and SOB up to 48hrs post op

A

Atelectasis

922
Q

Laxatives to use in ileostomy vs colostomy

A

Ileostomy - magnesium sulphate (osmotic)
Colostomy - bulk forming (ispaghula husk)

923
Q

What symptom is a good indicator of dengue fever

A

Facial flushing

924
Q

Most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults

A

Focal segmental glomerulonephritis

925
Q

Organism causing scarlet fever

A

Strep pyogenes

926
Q

Rash that starts behind the ears

A

Measles

927
Q

How to treat pain due to tumour nerve compression

A

Dexamethasone

928
Q

What SSRI has a long half life and is most likely to cause serotonin syndrome when changing medication

A

Fluoxetine

929
Q

Common side effect of methylphenidate

A

Reduced growth

930
Q

What abx increases risk of cardiac events and strokes due to rupture of existing plaques

A

Clarithromycin

931
Q

What medication needs to be slowly weaned due to risk of rebound myocardial ischaemia

A

Beta blocker

932
Q

Abx causing oesophagitis, severe pain on swallowing

A

Doxycycline

933
Q

What asthma treatment can cause vivid bad dreams

A

Monteleukast

934
Q

What asthma treatment if taken alone can cause severe asthma attacks

A

LABA e.g salmeterol - should be taken with inhaled steroid

935
Q

Abx that can cause ototoxicity

A

Erythromycin, gentamicin

936
Q

UTI abx that can cause pulmonary fibrosis

A

Nitrofurantoin

937
Q

Medication causing low magnesium levels

A

PPI

938
Q

Antidepressants most likely to cause withdrawal symptoms

A

Venlafaxine - short half life
Paroxetine

939
Q

Symptoms of clozapine toxicity

A

Hyperthermia, drowsiness, confusion, hypersalivation, seizures

940
Q

What abx interacts with clozapine

A

Ciprofloxacin

941
Q

What drug liscenced for children with insomnia and autism can cause odd dreams

A

Melatonin

942
Q

For what antibiotics should alcohol be avoided

A

Metronidazole - for at least 48hrs after - can cause arrhythmia, cardiotoxicity and hepatotoxicity

Doxycycline- reduces effectiveness

943
Q

What ssri and abx prolong QT

A

Citalopram, escitalopram, clarithromycin

944
Q

What contraception is contraindicated in hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Combined pill as oestrogen can increase malignancy

945
Q

Vaccines contraindicated in egg allergy

A

Hep A, yellow fever, influenza

946
Q

What drug can cause first dose hypotension

A

Tamsulosin, ACEi

947
Q

What drug when taken with opioid can cause resp depression

A

Benzodiazepines

948
Q

Cause of pityriasis versicolor

A

Malassezia furfur

949
Q

First line for urticaria

A

Cetirizine 10mg OD and Prednisolone 40mg daily

950
Q

Skin lesions that heal to leave pigmented or hypopigmented atrophic skin

A

Discoid lupus

951
Q

What tx not available on NHS can help with hair loss

A

Minoxidil

952
Q

Actinic keratosis mx singular vs many

A

Singular - cryotherapy
Many - 5FU

953
Q

What to give during cardiac arrest if PE suspected

A

Altaplase

954
Q

Doses of adrenaline for anaphylaxis

A

<6 - 0.15mg
6-12 - 0.3mg
>12 - 0.5mg

955
Q

What kind of virus is HIV

A

Double stranded RNA virus

956
Q

Rust coloured sputum - cause

A

Strep pneumoniae

957
Q

Redcurrent jelly sputum cause

A

Klebsiella

958
Q

Infective causes of cardiomyopathy

A

Chagas
Coxsackie

959
Q

Travel hx with slow pulse and raised temp, muscle pain, n+v -cause

A

Yellow fever

960
Q

Foreign travel, itchy rash, fever, cough, wheeze, muscle aches - cause

A

Schistosomiasisis

961
Q

Sub-Saharan Africa - present with skin changes, itching, nodules, alterations in vision -cause

A

Onchoceriasis

962
Q

What TB drug can precipitate gout

A

Pyrazinamide

963
Q

Green coloured sputum cause

A

Pseudomonas, haemophilus, pneumococcal

964
Q

Hx of foreign travel, Hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice, fever, low platelets

A

Malaria

965
Q

What is testosterone used for post menopause

A

To increase libido

966
Q

Definition of PPH

A

Vaginal bleeding >500mls
C-section >1000mls

967
Q

Primary vs secondary pph

A

Primary - within 24hrs
Secondary - 24hrs to 12w

968
Q

What analgesic should be used for symphysis pubis dysfunction during pregnancy

A

Paracetamol or codeine

969
Q

Type of anaemia in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Normochromic normocytic anaemia

970
Q

What skin condition is associated with RA, SLE, lymphoma, TB, polymyositis, raynauds

A

Livedo reticularis

971
Q

Drug causes of gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin
Ciclosporin
Nifedipine

972
Q

What is Charcot triad in MS

A

Nystagmus, intention tremor and staccato speech

973
Q

What can precipitate megaloblastic crisis in hereditary spherocytosis

A

Folate deficiency

974
Q

Brief sharp stabbing pain or longer lasting dull ache in lower abdomen/ groin of women in late stage pregnancy

A

Round ligament pain

975
Q

Condition where body can’t make iron into haemaglobin

A

Sideroblastic anaemia - see ring sideroblast on blood film

976
Q

What is a bartons fracture

A

Fracture of distal radius with intra-articular involvement and dislocation of radiocarpal joint - can be volar or dorsal

977
Q

What is a rolando fracture

A

Fracture of base of thumb into 3 parts

978
Q

Gamekeeper/ skiers thumb

A

Avulsion fracture of thumb at site of insertion of ulnar collateral ligament

979
Q

How to treat local anaesthetic overdose

A

Lipid emulsion

980
Q

What is echopraxia

A

Psychiatric condition when someone can’t stop copying you

981
Q

Pinna cellulitis vs perichondritis

A

Cellulitis affects ear lobe, perichondritis doesn’t

982
Q

What fluid to use in bladder washout

A

0.9% saline

983
Q

Most common cause of significant pleural effusion

A

Malignancy

984
Q

When should colchicine be avoided for acute gout

A

Blood disorder
eGFR < 10
Severe hepatic impairment
Pregnancy or breastfeeding
Taking clarithromycin or erythromycin, verapamil, ketoconazole

985
Q

Learning disability, behavioural problems including self harm, must odour and pale complexion compared to family

A

Phenylketonuria - treat with low phenylalanine diet

986
Q

Encephalopathy, neurodegeneration, sweet smelling urine and sweat

A

Maple syrup urine disease

987
Q

Poor feeding, vomiting, seizure and odour of sweaty feet

A

Isovaleric acidaemia

988
Q

PCOS hormone levels

A

LH raised
Testosterone raised
Low Sex hormone binding globulin

989
Q

What is tested for on Guthrie test (blood spot test)

A

CF
PKU
Sickle Cell
Congenital Hypothyroid
Downs is not tested

990
Q

Disease with pancytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice and lipid laden macrophages

A

Gauchers disease

991
Q

Triad of symptoms in budd chiari

A

Abdo pain, hepatomegaly and ascites

992
Q

Triad of rheumatoid, splenomegaly and neutropenia

A

Felty syndrome

993
Q

What drug precipitates gout

A

Thiazide like diuretics

994
Q

Name for cold sores

A

Herpes labialis

995
Q

What pulse change is common in severe asthma and cardiac tamponade

A

Pulsus paradoxus

996
Q

Most common causes of drug induced SLE

A

Hydralazine, procainamide, phenylbutazone, isoniazid

997
Q

When do you see red cell casts in urine

A

Glomerulonephritis

998
Q

If on 2x DMARDS what is next step for RA

A

Anti TNF

999
Q

What to start in mild SLE not improving with steroids

A

Hydroxychloroquine

1000
Q

What medication is given to reduce intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

1001
Q

What antidepressant is contraindicated with tamoxifen

A

Fluoxetine, paroxetine, bupropion

1002
Q

What to do if switching from warfarin to apixaban and INR >2.5

A

Wait for it to drop to less than 2

1003
Q

What rheumatoid drug can cause agranulocytosis and therefore requires screening for infection e.g. chicken pox before admin

A

Adalimumab

1004
Q

How to wean off steroid

A

Rapid wean to a physiological dose of 7.5mg daily - reduce by 2.5 every 3-4 days

Then reduce by 2.5mg every 7-28 days

1005
Q

What antiemetic used 3rd line in pregnancy has increased risk of cleft lip and heart defects

A

Ondansetron

1006
Q

Switching to what drug helps with benzodiazepine withdrawal

A

Diazepam

1007
Q

What drug can cause paradoxical aggression and hostility

A

Diazepam

1008
Q

What drug can cause delayed wound healing and infections following tooth extraction

A

Bisphosphonate

1009
Q

What drug can cause euglycaemic diabetic ketoacidosis

A

SGLT2 inhib

1010
Q

What drug reduces hypo awareness and precipitates psoriasis

A

Beta blockers

1011
Q

When to commence buprenorphine patch when switching from methadone

A

Once withdrawal symptoms develop

1012
Q

What can happen if replace folate before b12

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the cord - paraesthesia, leg weakness, ataxia, loss of sensation

1013
Q

What weight loss drug can increase INR

A

Orlistat

1014
Q

What is ranson criteria

A

Used to predict pancreatitis mortality

1015
Q

ECG changes in digoxin overdose

A

St depression and inverted T waves in V5/6 (reverse tick)

1016
Q

ECG changes in PE

A

Right axis deviation
RBBB
Sinus tachy
S1Q3T3

1017
Q

What ECG change is seen in hypothermia

A

J wave

1018
Q

ABG finding in CKD

A

Metabolic acidosis with resp compromise

1019
Q

Cataracts, muscle weakness and frontal balding in young male

A

Myotonic dystrophy

1020
Q

Unable to close eyes after blepharoplasty

A

Lagopathalmos

1021
Q

What is globus

A

Sensation of lump in throat

1022
Q

Infantile spasms with drawing up of knees, 3-8m of age

A

West syndrome

make a w with legs

1023
Q

What STIs cause pH > 4.5

A

BV and TV

1024
Q

How to manage bcc on eyelids or nasal ala

A

Urgent referral for removal

1025
Q

Tylosis - associated malignancy

A

Oesophageal

1026
Q

Acquired ichthyosis - associated malignancy

A

Lymphoma

1027
Q

Treatment for widespread pityriasis versicolor

A

Ketoconazole shampoo

1028
Q

What do haemolytic anaemias e.g. spherocytosis increase risk of

A

Gallstones

1029
Q

Finger infection in herpes

A

Herpetic whitlow

1030
Q

Allergic vs irritant dermatitis

A

Irritant is just red
Allergic is red, scaly, blistering, weeping

1031
Q

What epworth score for sleep apnoea requires further investigation

A

> 10

1032
Q

What score on MMSE and addenbrookes suggests dementia

A

MMSE < 24
Addenbrookes 82-88

1033
Q

Cause of Burr cells

A

Uraemia

1034
Q

Agoraphobia

A

Anxiety in big crowds

1035
Q

Smear cells on blood film

A

CLL

1036
Q

Precocious puberty, unilateral cafe au lait spots, fractures

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

1037
Q

Most common cause of oesophageal cancer in upper oesophagus vs lower

A

Upper - Squamous cell carcinoma
Lower - Adenocarcinoma

1038
Q

What diet should be used for ascites

A

Low salt

1039
Q

Criteria for bariatric surgery

A

BMI > 40
BMI > 35-40 + co-morbidity that would be improved by weight loss e.g. diabetes

1040
Q

Red/ white discolouration of inside of cheek in patient who smoked and drinks

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

1041
Q

painful, clearly defined, round or ovoid, shallow ulcers that are confined to the mouth and are not associated with systemic disease.

A

Aphthous ulcer

1042
Q

First line investigation for haemorrhoids

A

Proctoscopy

1043
Q

Choriocarcinoma tx

A

Methotrexate

1044
Q

Most common parotid tumour

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

1045
Q

Beaded appearance on ERCP

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

1046
Q

How to treat pernicious anaemia

A

B12 replacement - IM hydroxycobalamin

1047
Q

What is beri beri

A

Thiamine deficiency causing polyneuropathy and heart failure

1048
Q

What laxative to use in opioid induced constipation

A

Osmotic and stimulant laxative

1049
Q

Ankle and knee reflex dermatomes

A

Ankle S1-2
Knee L3-4

1050
Q

IM benzylpenicillin dose for meningitis in kids

A

<1 - 300mg
1-10 - 600mg
>10 - 1200mg

1051
Q

Most common benign ovarian tumour in women under 30

A

Dermoid cyst

1052
Q

Ovarian tumour associated with ascites and pleural effusion

A

Meigs’ syndrome - caused by fibroma

1053
Q

Jaundice and anaemia following infection, new medication or broad beans

A

G6-PD

1054
Q

Recurrent clots with prolonged APTT and low platelets

A

Anti phospholipid

1055
Q

Macrocytic anaemia with hypersegmented polymorphs on blood film

A

B12 / Folate deficiency

1056
Q

If terminal ileum resection what vitamin won’t be absorbed

A

B12

1057
Q

What is a rare complication of chloramphenicol eye drops

A

Aplastic anaemia, bone marrow suppression

1058
Q

Transfusion - develop fever, hypotension, red coloured urine

A

Immediate haemolytic transfusion reaction

1059
Q

Treatment of essential thrombocytopenia

A

If platelets >1000 commence aspirin 75mg OD

If age > 60 or previous thrombosis give hydroxycarbamide

1060
Q

ABG in aspirin overdose

A

1st resp alkalosis then develop acidosis from metabolites

1061
Q

Drugs for post exposure prophylaxis of flu

A

Oseltamavir and zanamivir

1062
Q

How to test for acromegaly

A

Oral glucose tolerance test with growth hormone

1063
Q

Painless vision loss with colour changing haemorrhages, streaky dark shadows

A

Vitreous haemorrhage

1064
Q

What condition is associated with uveitis and HLA B5

A

Bechets

1065
Q

Punched out lesion on macula

A

Macula hole
Stage 1 not need treatment
Stage 2 or more need vitrectomy

1066
Q

Cover uncover vs cover test

A

Cover test shows tropia - always present squint

Cover uncover shows phoria - not always present

1067
Q

Lump on upper eyelid with eyelash loss and no improvement with hot compress or abx ointment

A

Sebaceous cell carcinoma

1068
Q

Pain, swelling of medial lower eyelid with increased tear production and possible purulent discharge

A

Dacrolytis - refer to opthalm for incision and drainage

1069
Q

What causes pupil to be irregular and dilated poorly in anterior uveitis

A

Posterior synechiae - pupil sticks to lens

1070
Q

Best test for aortic dissection

A

Transoesophageal echocardiogram

1071
Q

Barter’s syndrome

A

Inherited hypokalaemia, low sodium and low chloride with normotension

1072
Q

What type of bilirubinaemia in newborns is always pathological

A

Conjugated

1073
Q

Incoordination of rapidly alternating movement

A

Dysdiadochokinesis

1074
Q

Hypertension that can’t be controlled with medication, sudden renal failure when commencing ACEi

A

Renal artery stenosis

1075
Q

How does HIV affect HbA1c and diabetes diagnosis

A

Can’t use HbA1c as is underestimated

1076
Q

Bone infections in child with sickle cell disease - what organism

A

Non- typhi salmonella

1077
Q

Bone infections in child with sickle cell disease - what organism

A

Non- typhi salmonella

1078
Q

Bone infections in child with sickle cell disease - what organism

A

Non- typhi salmonella

1079
Q

When to consider retreating scabies

A

Itching can take 6w to settle. Only repeat treatment if further burrows or rashes

1080
Q

What NSTEMI patients should have coronary angiography

A

immediate: patient who are clinically unstable (e.g. hypotensive)
within 72 hours: patients with a GRACE score > 3% i.e. those at intermediate, high or highest risk
coronary angiography should also be considered for patients if ischaemia is subsequently experienced after admission

1081
Q

Causes of Dupuytrens contracture

A

manual labour
phenytoin treatment
alcoholic liver disease
diabetes mellitus
trauma to the hand

1082
Q

What antidepressant shouldn’t be prescribed with warfarin

A

SSRI

1083
Q

First line for spasticity in MS

A

Baclofen and gabapentin

1084
Q

What antihypertensive causes altered taste sensation

A

Amlodipine

1085
Q

Diagnostic test for necrotising enterocolitis

A

Abdo XR - treat with IVI, NG tube, NBM,
IV Abx

1086
Q

Pituitary tumour following adrenalectomy

A

Nelson’s disease

1087
Q

Child <3 starts to develop pubic hair

A

Hamartoma of post pituitary- treat with GNRH analogue

1088
Q

45 XO

A

Turners - gonadal hypoplasia and short stature, wide nipples, webbed neck, bicuspid aortic valve, primary amenorrhoea

1089
Q

Short synatchen test use

A

Adrenal insufficiency

1090
Q

Primary vs secondary hypothyroidism

A

Primary - problem with thyroid so T3/4 not produced and TSH high
Secondary - problem with pituitary/ hypothalamus so TSH not produced and T3/4 low

1091
Q

Patient with pituitary tumour develops rapid onset headache and drop in GCS

A

Pituitary apoplexy - bleed into pituitary

1092
Q

What drug is used for HER2 positive breast cancer and needs cardiac monitoring

A

Trastuzumab

1093
Q

Hernia at lateral edge of rectus sheath

A

Spigelian

1094
Q

Test used to assess for level of venous valve deficiency in varicose veins

A

Trendelenburg test

1095
Q

Hammans sign when listening to chest

A

Crunching sound in time with heart - due to mediastinal emphysema caused by oesophageal rupture

1096
Q

Delusion of infestation with insects

A

Ekboms syndrome

1097
Q

Young Asian women with renal artery stenosis/ aneurysm

A

Takayasus arteritis

1098
Q

Bipolar 1 vs 2

A

1 - Depression and Mania
2 - Depression and Hypomania ( no delusions, no hallucinations, no impairment in functioning, <7d)

1099
Q

What antidepressant to try if already tried 2x SSRI without benefit

A

SNRI e.g. venlafaxine

1100
Q

Parkinsons meds that can cause visual hallucinations

A

Levodopa and amantadine

1101
Q

What Parkinson’s meds cause pulmonary, retroperitoneal and pericardial fibrosis

A

Ergot derived dopamine agonist e.g. bromicriptine

1102
Q

Howell jolly bodies

A

Post splenectomy, coeliac

1103
Q

Tingling, deadness, pain in hand associated with wasting of intrinsic muscles, clawing of fingers

A

Ulnar nerve lesion

1104
Q

Richters vs maydl’s hernia

A

Richters is when one of bowel walls goes through defect - can become strangulated and necrotic without obstructing

Maydl’s is when bowel comes out in 2 loops forming a w shape

1105
Q

Bloods in polycythemia Vera

A

High Hb, PCV, may have raised platelets and WCC
Ferritin may be low

1106
Q

How to differentiate holmes-adie and Argyll-Robinson pupils

A

Holmes adie = dilated pupil and reduced tendon reflexes

Argyll Robinson = small pupil

1107
Q

Antibodies raised in graves vs hashimotos

A

Graves - TSH receptor antibodies
Hashimotos - Thyroid peroxidase and thyroglobulin antibodies

1108
Q

Schwartz sign on eardrum

A

Pink patch - seen in otosclerosis

1109
Q

Patient from Africa presents with nasal symptoms nodules and nose enlargement

A

Rhinoscleroma - Klebsiella

1110
Q

Sweating over cheeks, temples and facial flushing after parotid surgery

A

Freys syndrome - damage to auriculotemporal nerve

1111
Q

Cause of progressive dysphagia from solids to liquids

A

Hypopharyngeal cancer

1112
Q

What age do children achieve night and day continence

A

3-4 years

1113
Q

When to consider valve replacement in aortic stenosis

A
  • Symptomatic
  • Asymptomatic with valvular pressure gradient > 40 and features of systolic dysfunction
1114
Q

Diabetes mellilitus, optic atrophy, deafness in child

A

Wolfram syndrome

1115
Q

Does lithium cause cranial or nephrotic diabetes insipidus

A

Nephrogenic

1116
Q

Type 1 vs 2 AI liver disease

A

Type 1 - Anti smooth muscle antibodies, ANA
Type 2 - anti LMK (liver/kidney microsome), anti LC

1117
Q

Anorexia - what’s raised

A

most things low
G’s and C’s raised: growth hormone, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, carotinaemia

1118
Q

Brief spasms/ jerks in first year of life

A

Infantile spasms (west syndrome)

1119
Q

First line treatment for benign Rolandic epilepsy

A

Carbamazepine

1120
Q

Normal sodium and potassium values

A

Sodium 135-145
Potassium 3.6-5.2

1121
Q

What abx can cause c.diff

A

Clindamycin

1122
Q

Salt intake in hypertension

A

<6g/day, but ideally <3g/day

1123
Q

Red flags for back pain

A

Red Flags for back pain include -
Thoracic pain
Age <20 or >55 years
Non-mechanical pain
Pain worse when supine
Night pain
Weight loss
Pain associated with systemic illness
Presence of neurological signs
Past medical history of cancer or HIV
Immunosuppression or steroid use
IV drug use
Structural deformity

1124
Q

Perthes disease presenting features, age

A

4-8, progressive hip pain, limp, stiffness

1125
Q

When can copper coil be inserted

A

Up to 5 days after sex
Or up to 5 days after earliest estimated date of ovulation

1126
Q

Painful arc with/ without weakness - cause

A

With weakness - rotator cuff tear
Without - subacromial impingement

1127
Q

Popping, clicking, swelling of shoulder and positive scarf test

A

Acromioclavicular degeneration

1128
Q

When can deliver vaginally in HIV

A

Viral load <50 at 36w

1129
Q

What drug is given to neonate and as infusion to mother for HIV during C-section

A

Zidovudine

1130
Q

How to treat b12 deficiency

A

1mg IM hydroxycobalamin 3x weekly for 2w then once every 3m

1131
Q

Acute onset fever, strider and drooling, no choking

A

Epiglottitis

1132
Q

What to do if >2 exacerbations of UC in last 12m

A

Azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine

1133
Q

Flu prodrome, RUQ pain, tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, deranged LFT

A

Hepatitis A

1134
Q

What drug can be used in COPD if FEV1 < 50% and 2 or more exacerbations whilst on triple therapy

A

PDE- 4 inhibitor - roflumilast

1135
Q

Oedema, raised JVP, heave and loud S2 on background of COPD - cause and tx

A

Cor pulmonale - treat with loop diuretic, LTOT

1136
Q

Wilson’s disease - diagnostic test and treatment

A

Reduce caeruloplasmin, reduced serum total copper, raised free copper, confirmed by genetic analysis

Treat with penicillamine

1137
Q

What to do after tried LTRA for child < 5 with asthma

A

Refer

1138
Q

Cellulitis near eyes/ nose

A

Co-amox

1139
Q

Raynauds, dysphagia and telengectasia on exam

A

Systemic sclerosis

1140
Q

Abx for sinusitis

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

1141
Q

Vitreous vs retinal detachment vs vitreous haemorrhage

A

Vit detachment - flasher/ floater no vision loss
Vit haemorrhage - as above with vision loss
Retinal detachment - shadow across vision from periphery inwards

1142
Q

When to give abx for otitis media

A

Age <2, bilateral
More than 4 d
Unwell
Immunocompromised
Discharge or perf

1143
Q

Colles vs smith fracture

A

Colles - dorsal displacement
Smith - volar displacement