MSKtrauma Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum number of orders for a MSK injury?

A

Minimum of 2 views taken at 90 degrees to one another

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2
Q

How many views are required when evaluating joints for suspected trauma?

A

Three views- AP, lateral, and oblique

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3
Q

What type fracture may not be seen on early acute phase radiographs

A

Nondisplaced

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4
Q

If you don’t see a fracture on a film but clinical signs indicate a fracture what should you do?

A

Treat consecutively and get a follow-up x-ray in 7-10 days

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5
Q

What can a fracture extending into the articular cartilage lead to in the future?

A

Arthritis

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6
Q

If you suspect a skull fracture, what is the ideal modality for imaging?

A

CT scan

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7
Q

What type skull fracture looks like a spider web?

A

Depressed skull fracture

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8
Q

What artery is typically lacerated with an epidural hematoma?

A

Middle meningeal artery

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8
Q

What artery is typically lacerated with an epidural hematoma?

A

Middle meningeal artery

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9
Q

For an AC joint injury > ____ mm should be considered abnormal.

A

8 mm

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9
Q

After you have manipulated a shoulder dislocation what should you do?

A

Obtain an xray after manipulation of the shoulder

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9
Q

What type of compression is a deformity of the posterior lateral aspect of humeral head?

A

Hill Sacs compression

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9
Q

In an anterior dislocation where does the head of the humerus lie?

A

Head of humerus lies under coracoid process

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10
Q

What is the name for a fracture of the glenoid?

A

Bankart’s lesion

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11
Q

What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior dislocation

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12
Q

What is a common elbow fracture in an adult?

A

radial head fracture

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13
Q

What does the sail sign indicate?

A

Elbow fracture, look for displaced fat pad

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14
Q

What type fracture can ossification centers in peds be confused for?

A

avulsion fractures

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15
Q

What is a common fracture of the elbow in a pediatric patient?

A

suprcondylar fracture of the distal humerus

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16
Q

What is a common elbow fracture in an adult?

A

radial head fracture

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17
Q

What usually indicate an injury in the wrist?

A

Abnormally wide spaces

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18
Q

What type fracture can ossification centers in peds be confused for?

A

avulsion fractures

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19
Q

How far apart are the joint spaced in the wrists in adults?

A

1-2 mm wide

20
Q

What are narrow joint spaces in the wrist probably due to?

A

Probably artifacts from projection or degenerative changes

21
Q

What is the worst classification of Salter Harris?

A

Type 5, fusion of growth growth plate

22
Q

What is a type I Salter Harris injury?

A

An injury to the growth plate

23
Q

What is a helpful modality for hip fractures?

A

MRI

25
Q

What is a type III Salter Harris injury ?

A

Through epiphysis that goes through into the epiphyseal plate.

26
Q

Where is there damage in a gamekeepers fracture?

A

Injury to ulnar collateral ligament

27
Q

3 standard views with ankle trauma?

A

AP view
lateral view
mortice view

29
Q

What is a type IV Salter Harris injury ?

A

Through metaphysis that goes through into the epiphysis.

32
Q

Three views for a foot x-ray?

A

AP, lateral and oblique

33
Q

What is when there is a compression deformity of the posterior lateral aspect of humeral head.

A

Hill Sacs

34
Q

What is visible with a tibial plateau fracture?

A

Fluid fat level

35
Q

What movement causes a Weber A injury?

A

Inversion

36
Q

What movement causes a Weber B injury?

A

Eversion

37
Q

What is the fracture name for when there is an oblique fracture of the distal fibula (usually hear a snap)?

A

Weber B

38
Q

What is the fracture name when you have an avulsion fragment straight across the fibula due to a tug?

A

Weber A

39
Q

Describe the fracture: straight line, 90° to longitudinal axis

A

transverse fracture

40
Q

due to rotational force - S-shape

A

Spiral fracture

41
Q

along bone length

A

longitudinal fracture

42
Q

rotational force - doesn’t circulate around bone

A

oblique fracture

43
Q

> 1 fracture line, > 2 bone fragments

A

comminuted fracture

44
Q

telescoping of fragment into another

A

impacted fracture

45
Q

incomplete with intact cortical side flexed

A

greenstick fracture

46
Q

failure of one cortical surface

A

stress fracture

47
Q

separation at site of attachment of ligament or tendon

A

avulsion fracture

48
Q

ends of fracture are separated

A

displaced fracture

49
Q

fragments remain in alignment & position

A

non-displaced fracture

50
Q

fragment displaced below level of surface of bone

A

depressed fracture

51
Q

disrupts continuity through whole bone

A

complete fracture

52
Q

cortex buckles/cracks - no loss of continuity

A

incomplete fracture

53
Q

bone exposed outside integument

A

open fracture

54
Q

bone contained inside integument

A

closed fracture

55
Q

displacement of bone from normal - articulating surfaces lose contact

A

dislocation

56
Q

displacement - articulating surfaces partially lose contact

A

subluxation