MSK, Trauma, Burns, Maltreatment Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different types of trauma?

A
  • Non-accidental
  • Abdominal trauma: Splenic, Pancreatic, Liver, and Renal lacerations
  • Thoracic/chest
  • Burns
  • MSK injuries
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2
Q

What is included in the primary survey during a trauma evaluation?

A
  • Airway
  • Breathing
  • Circulation
  • Disability/Neurological evaluation
  • Exposure
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3
Q

What is included in the secondary survey during a trauma evaluation?

A
  • Vital Signs
  • History
  • Thorough head to toe exam and diagnostics
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4
Q

How can I estimate circulating blood volume?

A
  • Estimated blood valume based on age
    o Preterm Neonate 100 ml/kg
    o Full term infant 90 ml/kg
    o Infant 80 ml/kg
    o Child 75 ml/kg
    o Teens – Adults 70ml/kg
  • So a little bit of blood loss on a child is actually quite significant on their total circulating blood volume which reduces their systemic perfusion.
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5
Q

What are signs of shock?

A
  • Tachycardia – Early Sign
  • Hypotension – Late Sign
  • Bradycardia – Ominous Sign
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6
Q

When do I suspect non-accidental trauma?

A
  • When there is an unusual presentation of trauma or an age-based injury that does not make sense. You should always evaluate if the injury matches the story/history.
  • Injuries/fractures with multiple stages of healing.
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7
Q

What should my evaluation include in a possible non-accidental trauma?

A
  • Cutaneous findings such as bruising, lacerations, abrasions, burns (assess their location and shape such as does this have the shape of an iron or a cigarette burn.)
  • Assess for ear injuries which are extremely rare in children (usually occur with pulling/plucking of the ear by someone else).
  • Skeletal Fractures – skull, rib, femur. Look at the age of the child and the likelihood. (ex. Can a 1 month old roll off the bed – they don’t roll until at least 2 months. It is not likely).
  • Abdominal trauma is rare but possible. Usually from blunt force trauma such as MVA
  • Funduscopic evaluation for retinal hemorrhage of any child with suspected shaking or traumatic brain injury of questionable mechanism.
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8
Q

What diagnostics should be ordered if non-accidental trauma is suspected?

A
  • CXR/abdominal XR.
  • Skeletal survey
  • Eye Exam/funduscopic exam for retinal hemorrhages.
  • Brain CT scan.
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9
Q

What are symptoms of a spleen injury and what diagnostics should be ordered?

A
  • The most common abdominal injury in children – usually from blunt trauma to the upper abdomen or lower thorax since the spleen is not adequately protected by the rib cage.
  • S/S: pain in left shoulder, LUQ or left part of chest (bruising or abrasions may be noted to site). N/V. Mass may be palpable to LUQ.
  • LABS: hemoglobin/hematocrit
  • Diagnostics: Abdominal CT for diagnosis. Sometimes CXR may show fractures to left lower ribs or pleural effusion.
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10
Q

What is the treatment of splenic laceration?

A
  • 95% of splenic lacerations are managed non-operative.
  • Monitoring of patient and of H&H (q4-6hrs) is the standard of care.
    Treatment is based on grade (graded from 1-5)
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11
Q

What is needed if child requires a splenectomy?

A
  • Prophylactic antibiotics indicated for children over 4 years of age and in some cases if they are under 4 years of age.
  • Post-Op: monitor for bleeding, thrombosis, infection, fistula formation
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12
Q

What are the symptoms of a liver laceration and its’ diagnostics?

A
  • Major cause of death in children with blunt trauma – highest risk for injury
  • Associated with significant blood loss, exsanguination (right lobe more prevalent than left lobe)
  • S/S: Acute abdominal tenderness due to hemoperitoneum. Pain to right shoulder or RUQ tenderness. If there is bleeding or fractured ribs, you may notice bruising, seatbelt marking and abrasions. Hypotension. Tachycardia. It can also be associated with pelvic and rib fractures.
  • Diagnostics: CBC, liver function test, U/S, CT.
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13
Q

How are liver lacerations treated?

A
  • Non-operative: Monitor patient and H&H every 4-6hours. NPO status.
    o May ambulate once AST and ALT are within normal limits. Blood products may be given if indicated.
  • Operative management: Operate if hemodynamically unstable – usually to control bleeding.
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14
Q

How are liver lacerations graded?

A
  • Grades I – VI (VI – avulsion of liver).
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15
Q

What are the symptoms off a pancreatic laceration and its diagnostics?

A
  • Associated with high morbidity and mortality.
  • S/S: soft tissue contusion in Upper Quadrant, handlebar marking, tenderness to lower ribs and costal margins, epigastric tenderness, lower thoracic spine fracture, signs of peritonitis, vomiting.
  • Diagnostics: CT with grading of injury, amylase and lipase labs.
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16
Q

What are they symptoms of renal lacerations and its diagnostics?

A
  • S/S: Contusion, hematoma or bruising of flank or back. Abdominal or flank tenderness. Palpable mass. Stab wounds posterior to anterior axillary line.
  • Diagnostics: CT, UA -Hematuria, intravenous pyelogram.
  • Use the American Association of Surgery Trauma Renal Injury Scale to grade.
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17
Q

What are some misc. results of trauma?

A
  • Abdominal Compartment Syndrome. It is life threatening. Results in coagulopathies, acidosis, hypothermia, bowel edema. Bladder pressures should be monitored.
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18
Q

What are some results of chest wall trauma?

A

o Second leading cause of pediatric trauma associated death.
o Has little cutaneous evidence of injury.
o Rarely occurs as singular insult and is often associated with other injuries.
* Pneumothorax: Tachypnea, dyspnea, unequal breath sounds, hypoxia, chest pain. They vary in size – not all require interventions. Treatment: Evaluation of air – depending on size and symptoms.
o A tension pneumothorax is an emergency (pressure or cardiac space)– it is acute, results in shifting of mediastinum and impacts cardiorespiratory functioning. Decompression can be lifesaving.
o Open pneumothorax: open wound on chest
o Closed: confined to pleural space.
* Hemothorax: Tachypnea, Dyspnea, unequal breath sounds, anemia. Treatment is evacuation of blood which depends on size and symptoms.
* Lung contusion: tachypnea, respiratory distress, hypoxia. Diagnostics: initial radiography may be normal but after 24 hours, it will show defined geographic consolidation that is not specific to contusion (may appear as if it were atelectasis, aspiration, infection, etc.). Treatment: is supportive. It improves as blood is absorbed. It may happen between 24-48 hours. However, most resolve in 7-10 days.

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19
Q

Why are rib fractures a possible sign of abuse?

A
  • Rib fractures in children are not common due to their pliable chest so this should always raise suspicion.
  • The risk for mortality increased with each linear rib that is fractured. It is usually associated with other trauma/injuries such as head, thoracic, and solid organ.
  • You should always rule out disease of the bone (uncommon), and should include the evaluation of other injuries and for signs of abuse and pain management.
  • Treatment includes pain management.
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20
Q

What are some signs of cardiac tamponade?

A
  • It compresses the heart which compromises venous return to the heart and cardiac output.
  • S/S: Obstructive Shock, Hypotension, Tachycardia, Distention of neck veins, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus (exaggerated fall in patients blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mm Hg).
  • Diagnostics: CXR (enlarged cardiac silhouette) and ECHO (appears black against gray muscle).
  • Treatment: Pericardiocentesis, and blood transfusion (in some case).
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21
Q

What is the first line management for burn injuries?

A
  • Airway: facial burns, singed eyebrows, stridor, hypoxia, wheezing, carbon sputum, hoarseness, mucous membrane and tongue swelling.
  • Breathing, Circulation: particle aspiration and CO inhalation causing hypoxia and difficulty breathing.
  • Primary and Secondary Trauma Surveys. (consult burn surgeon)
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22
Q

What diagnostics are needed with burn patients?

A
  • Carboxyhemoglobin, CBC, CMP with albumin, blood gas, urine PH & myoglobin, and EKG.
23
Q

How can we determine the degree of the burn damage?

A
  • Depends on temperature and exposure time.
    o Superficial: involves the epidermis; severity is minor
    o Partial Thickness: through the epidermis into the dermis. Forms blisters.
    o Full Thickness: extends through the dermis. The skin is white, yellow, brown, or black. There are no blisters, the skin is hard, and there is minimal or no pain.
    o Deep Full Thickness: Involves all layers of the skin (may also involve fascia, tendons, muscle, and bone).
24
Q

How is the total body surface area of a burn calculated?

A

Using the rules of Nines. The PATIENTS palm is approximately 1% of tatol body surface area.

25
Q

What can burns affect?

A
  • All body systems
    o Capillary leak. Fluid shift can occur within the first 12-48 hours which can result in metabolic compromise and electrolyte instability. Protein can begin to escape into the interstitial space and potassium can be released from the injured cells.
    o Compartment syndrome due to edema in the extremity, orbital or abdominal region.
     Fluid resuscitation can assist in preventing rhabdomyolysis and renal failure.
     Hyperglycemia management is important to manage protein loss
    o Compromised immune function.
26
Q

What is the Parkland Formula and the Rule of Nines?

A
  • It is used for fluid management on burn patients. Lactated ringers are more commonly used.
  • only applies to 2nd and 3rd degree burns. The volume of lactated ringers solution is calculated 4mL x Total Body Surface Area of burn (%) x Body Weight (kg). The first half will be given over the first 8 hours and the second half will be given of the next 16 hours.
27
Q

What is the most common cause of morbidity and mortality in a burn patient?

A
  • Infection (presence of a central line and 3rd degree burns are at higher risk for serious bacterial infection after burn injury).
    o Group A Strep is the most common in fresh burn/graft. Characterized by erythema, pain, induration, edema.
    o Staph Aureus/epi: is a more insidious course (3-5 days) characterized by fever, and ileus.
    o Gram negatives: characterized by green/foul smelling discharge over 2-3 days, leukopenia, hypothermia, and ileus.
    o Fungal infections.
28
Q

What treatment should be given in burn patients?

A
  • Antimicrobial Therapy: As prevention for bacterial overgrowth and systemic infection.
  • Topical therapy: with Silvadene ointment or cream (it contains water soluble bactericidal activity against gram positive, gram negative, and yeast. Should not be used in young children or sulfa-sensitive children.
  • Silver containing dressings: Silver containing hydrocolloid dressing and provide antimicrobial therapy.
  • Pain Management (acute and chronic).
    o Acetaminophen, NSAID’s, opioid analgesics, ketamine, alpha 2 agonist.
    o Regional blocks and virtual reality may be adjuncts.
  • Autograft
    o Excision of non-viable tissue.
    o Donor site (area of healthy skin)- site may be painful and is at risk for infection
    o Reduces visible scaring
    o Not ideal and new therapies are needed.
     Alternative: Collagen animal derived dermal substitutes, cultured epithelial sheets, bi-layered skin substitutes, others.
29
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A
  • Emergency that compromises tissue within a closed inflamed space limiting perfusion with adequate blood flow to the capillaries leading to edema.
  • Pressures that exceeds normal limits of >30 – 35 mmHg.
  • It can result from fractures, burns, venomous bites, IV/IO infiltrates, thromboembolic events, heavy training athletes, etc.
30
Q

What are some symptoms of compartment syndrome?

A
  • Symptoms include the three P’s
    o Paralysis, Pallor, Pulselessness
  • The three P’s are proceeded by the three A’s (Anxiety, agitation, and analgesic requirement)
31
Q

How is compartment syndrome treated?

A
  • Immediate treatment is needed if pressure exceeds normal limits >30 – 35 mmHg.
    o Casting or bandages should be removed immediately. Keep extremity at level.
  • Emergent fasciotomy if signs are excessive.
32
Q

When do fractures require immediate and specialized care?

A
  • Physeal and growth plate fractures
  • Use the Salter-Harris fracture classification to determine growth plate involvement.
33
Q

What are the 5 classification of Epiphyseal plate fractures?

A
  1. Complete separation without fracture (management: closed reduction cast)
  2. Separation of plate w/ fracture (most common-management: closed reduction cast)
  3. Fracture through part of plate extending to joint (Management: open reductions and internal fixation).
  4. Fracture completely through plate (management: open reduction and internal fixation)
  5. Crush injury to area of plate that is nondisplaced with no fracture line visible in X-Ray (management: immobilization and non-weight bearing for min of 3 weeks).
34
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A
  • Infection of the bone. Most common pathogen is Staph Aureus.
35
Q

What are some diagnostic test for osteomyelitis?

A
  • You can order a CBC, ESR, CRP in which you will see elevated WBC, ESR, CRP and a shift in diff.
  • Blood culture
  • X-Ray
  • MRI
36
Q

What is the Treatment of Osteomyelitis?

A
  • IV antibiotics (average length is 5-23 days)
  • Surgical drainage in some cases (persistent fever, unresponsive to osteomyelitis standard treatment).
37
Q

What is a Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphyses (SCFE) and how does it present?

A
  • Separation of the growth plate in the proximal femoral head
  • Presents with acute sudden exacerbation with hip, thigh, or knee pain. Limited internal rotation and obligated external rotation.
38
Q

What are some diagnostics ordered for SCFE and how is it treated?

A
  • Plain radiographs of pelvis, CT, or MRI.
  • Surgical pinning or fixation is needed.
39
Q

What is Toxic (transient) Synovitis?

A
  • An inflammatory condition that affects large joints spaces (usually the hip).
  • The patient usually has pain to the affected area, is limping, and refuses to bear weight.
40
Q

What are some diagnostics of Toxic Synovitis and treatment?

A
  • You can order a CBC, ESR, CRP in which you will see elevated WBC, ESR, CRP and a shift in diff. You can also order a MRI or bone scan for a definite diagnosis.
  • Treatment is based on symptoms. NSAID’s for pain, rest, and limited activity of the joint.
41
Q

What is Septic Arthritis and how does it present?

A
  • Infection of the synovial space of the joint.
  • The patient will have pain to the affected area, fever, non-use of the extremity, limp, refuse to bear weight.
42
Q

What are some diagnostics and what is the treatment of Septic Arthritis?

A
  • You can order a CBC, ESR, in which you will see elevated WBC, ESR, and a shift in diff. Blood culture may be positive. You can also order a bone scan.
  • Standard treatment is IV antibiotics – may require surgical intervention for drainage of joints if not responding to standard treatment.
43
Q

What is a spinal fusion?

A
  • It is used when there is a spinal deformity repair such as with scoliosis repair.
44
Q

What are some concerns with Spinal Fusion?

A
  • Blood loss
  • hypotension.
  • Respiratory instability
  • Kidney function
  • SIADH can occur intra or post operatively as a result of volume replacement and spinal manipulation
  • Consider pain management, fluid and electrolyte monitoring and replacement. Monitor intake and output. Conduct frequent neurological assessment for the first 24 hours.
45
Q

What is a Le Fort procedure?

A
  • A mandibular procedure commonly used to treat midface deformities.
  • Allows for 3-dimensional correction (advancement, retrusion, elongate, shorten).
  • May be performed with other mandibular surgeries simultaneously
  • Usually the last stage for cleft lip/palate treatment (usually in later adolescence).
  • Completed with nasotracheal intubation (secured with 2.0 silk to membranous septum).
  • Post- Op Needs
    o Maxillomandibular fixation may be in place (continue to monitor)
    o Nasogastric tube – risk of nausea
    o Hand-held suction device
46
Q

What do we monitor after a Le Fort procedure?

A
  • Complications:
    o Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
    o Infection
     Abscess
     Sinusitis
     Brain abscess
    o Severe hemorrhage
    o Pseudoaneurysm
    o Epistaxis
47
Q

How does Esophageal Trauma occur?

A
  • It occurs from ingestion such as laundry detergent pods which is most common in children less than 3 years of age or in adolescents attempting the tide pod challenge.
  • Signs and symptoms can include vomiting, drooling, depressed sensorium, lactic acidosis.
  • In most cases, oral/lip cutaneous findings are not present but damage is done to the esophagus. In some cases, erosion of the esophagus can occur (erythema, superficial erosion, perforation).
  • Evaluation may include an upper endoscopy.
48
Q

What is ocular trauma?

A
  • It is an open or a closed globe injury (closed more commonly)
    o Open: Hypotony, traumatic cataract, iris laceration, vitreous prolapse, uveitis.
    o Closed: Hyphema, secondary glaucoma, retinal edema.
  • Treatment varies depending on injury (surgical often needed with open globe injury). Aggressive evaluation for amblyopia in post trauma phase to avoid addition visual impairment. Visual development in children continues until age 9-10 years of age.
49
Q

The most important management of a stabilized child who experienced a liver laceration from a bicycle accident includes:

A
  • Serial hemoglobin and hematocrit monitoring.
50
Q

An obese 14-year-old male present with acute hip pain and inability to walk even with support of crutches. He has recently complained of knee pain and does not remember an injury. The most likely diagnosis is:

A
  • Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis.
51
Q

A 15-year-old has suffered a pulmonary contusion after being involved in a MVA. Which CXR finding would expect on presentation?

A
  • Normal Chest X-Ray.
52
Q

An 8-year-old is admitted with a suspected abdominal injury after a fall from an ATV. The best mode of diagnosis for a suspected splenic laceration is:

A
  • Abdominal CT with IV contrast
53
Q

When devising a management plan for a child with osteomyelitis, which agent should be included as part of the first line therapy?

A
  • Vancomycin (to cover Staph A.)