MSK - Childhood Fracture Flashcards

1
Q

What can cause blue sclerae?

A

Blue sclerae result from congenital thinning of the sclerae. The underlying epithelium shows through, giving a blue appearance.

  1. Osteogenesis imperfecta type 1 and 2 (the later is fatal and thus not seen in adult practice)
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2
Q

What are the main features of Osteogenesis Imperfecta and what causes it?

A

Main features:

  • Presentation is in childhood
  • Blue sclera
  • Fractures following minor trauma
  • Deafness secondary to otosclerosis
  • Dental imperfections common

Cause = Autosomal dominant, abnormaility in type 1 collagen due to abnormal / decreased synthesis of pro-alpha1 or pro-alpha2 collagen polypeptides

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3
Q

What features of a childs history might indicate non-accidental injury?

A
  • Hx of trauma inconsistent with the injuries, a changing or inconsistent history, other unexplained co-existant injuries, or previous history of injury
  • Injuries which do not fit with the developmental age of the child
  • Children known to social services
  • Parental attempts at excusing or justifying the injury inappropriately or blaming a younger sibling or pet
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4
Q

Describe this X-ray

A

This is a transverse fracture of the supracondylar region of the Left humerus. It is simple, displaced, angulated and has occurred through normal bone.

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5
Q

What structure should the anterior humeral line intersect when the elbow is flexed at 90 degrees?

A

The middle third of the capitulum

  • If the anterior humeral line intersects anterior to the middle third of the capitulum it likely indicates —> supracondylar fracture of humerus (supracondylar area is weakest area of humerus and often displace posteriorly)
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6
Q

What is the commenest peadiatric elbow fracture?

A

Supracondylar fracture

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7
Q

How long are children’s fracture immobilised: upper limbs vs lower limb?

A
  • Upper limb = ~ 4 weeks
  • Lower limb = 6-8 weeks

Activity should be restricted during these time periods as it could cause movement of the surgeons chosen method of fixation

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8
Q

Why are growth plates (epiphyseal growth plates) often damages in trauma fractures?

A

Because epiphyseal growth plates are composed of cartilage which is structurally weaker than bone

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9
Q

What is a Buckle or Torus fracture?

A

An incomplete fracture of the shaft of a long bone, resulting from compression by load in line with the axis of the bone.

  • Distinct fracture lines often not seen
  • Produces subtle ‘buckle’ or bump in the bony cortex
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10
Q

What is a Greenstick fracture?

A

An incomplete fracture in a young soft bone (paediatric) due to bending of a bone. The break occurs on the convex surface of the bend in the bone.

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11
Q

Which of the following are typical childhood fractures?

  • Clavicle
  • Distal Humerus
  • Neck of femur
  • Wrist, buckle
  • Wrist, colles
A
  1. Clavicle
  2. Distal Humerus
  3. Wrist, buckle
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12
Q

What is a Colles’ Fracture?

A

A fracture of the distal end of the radius in which the broken end of the radius is bent backwards.

  • Associated with osteoporosis - thus more common in elderly
  • Often due to fall on outstretched hand
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13
Q

What red flag should a head injury in a baby be raising?

A

Non-accidental injury as babies aren’t mobile

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14
Q

What are Salter-Harris classifications used for?

A

Epiphyseal growth plate fractures (child growth plate fracture)

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15
Q

What are the 5 main Salter-Harris classifications?

A
  • Type I - transverse fracture through the growth plate (also called the ‘physis’) 6%
  • Type II - a fracture through the growth plate and the metaphysis, sparing the epiphysis 75%
  • Type III - a fracture through growth plate and epiphysis, sparing the metaphysis 8%
  • Type IV - a fracture through all three elements of the bone, the growth plate, metaphysis, and epiphysis 10%
  • Type V - a compression fracture of the growth plate (resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and metaphysis on x-ray) 1%

SALTER mneumonic:

I - S = Slip (straight across)

II - A = Above (above physis or Away from joint)

III - L = Lower

IV - TE = Through everything

V - R = rammed (crushed)

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16
Q

Draw the 5 main Salter-Harris classifications

A
17
Q

Describe Haglund’s deformity.

What condition is it associated with?

A

Haglund’s = bony enlargemened at postero-superior aspect of calcaneum

It is associated with retrocalcaneal bursitis (inflammation between anterior aspect of Achilles and posterior aspect of calacaneus)

This can also cause non-insertional Achilles tendonitis

N.B. Bursitis (inflammation of 1 or more bursae - synovial fluid filled sacs lined with synovial membrane)

18
Q

Which drug/s are associated with increased risk

of tendonitis and tendon rupture?

A

Fluoroquinolones e.g. Ciprofloxacin

Specifically of the Achilles tendon

Risk is ↓ by concomitant use of corticosteroids

19
Q

How is Achilles tendonitis due to Haglund’s deformity treated surgically (after conservative management)?

(only answer if interested)

A

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=BXReMDlNP5A

20
Q

What is the most common cause of adult-acquired pes planus?

A

Posterior tibial tendon insufficieny (PTTI)

21
Q

What does posterior tibial tendon insufficiency cause?

What are the risk factors for it?

A

Acquired pes planus deformity - i.e. loss of medial logitudinal arch

Risk factors:

  • Female > men
  • Obesity
  • HTN
  • Diabetes
  • ↑ age
  • Corticosteroid use
  • Seronegative inflammatory conditions

Cause:

  • Acute injury vs long-standing tendon degeneration
22
Q

Tibialis posterior muscle:

  • Origin
  • Insertion
  • Action
  • Innervation
  • Blood supply
A
  • Origin
    • Posterior fibula, tibia, and interosseous membrane
  • Insertion
    • Tendon lies posterior to medial malleolus –> divides into 3 limbs:
      • Anterior - onto navicular + 1st cuniform
      • Middle - onto 2nd + 3rd cuniform, cuboid, metatarsals 2-4
      • Posterior - onto sustentaculum tali (talar shelf)
  • Action
    • Support for medial logitudinal arch
    • Foot inversion
    • Plantar flexion
  • Innervation
    • Tibial nerve (L4-5)
  • Blood supply
    • Posterior tibial artery
23
Q

Why is long term intra-articular injection of corticosteroids not an option in the management of joint pain?

A
  1. Poses repeated risk to infection with each injection
  2. Body’s metabolism adapts and steroid loses efficacy
  3. Can cause local degeneration e.g. Achilles tendon rupture
24
Q

What is arthrodesis?

A

Surgical immobilization of a joint by fusion of the bones

25
Q

The foot can be seperated into hindfoot, midfoot and forefoot.

Where are the boundaries between these regions?

A
  • Hindfoot: consists of articulation between talus and calcaneus
  • Midfoot: starts at the articulation between the navicular and cuneiforms - consits of tarsometatarsal joint:
    • 1st, 2nd and 3rd metatarsocuneiform joints
    • 4th and 5th metatarsocuboid joints
  • Forefoot: extends from tarsal-metatarsal joint to tips of toes
26
Q

What is a corn?

A
  • A corn is a form of callus
  • Location: Often form on smooth, hairless skin surfaces - especially top/side of toes / fingers (con occur on thicker skin e.g. bottom of feet)
  • Appearance: small, circular, defined centre that can be hard or soft
27
Q

What is Hallux Rigidis?

A

Loss of motion of 1st MTP joint in adults due to degenerative arthritis

  • Osteophyte formation at joint leads to dorsal impingement
  • Paraesthesia can occur due to compression between osteophytes + shoe
  • Symptoms:
    • 1st MTP swelling
    • Pain (less severe as disease progresses), worse with foot push off and dorsiflexion of great toe
28
Q

What bone condition has insulin-dependent diabetes (T1DM) been associated with?

What does this put them at increased risk of?

A

Osteoporosis

  • Via an non-understood mechanism T1DM is associated with reduced bone mineral density
  • This puts T1DM pts at ↑ risk of fractures (T1DM and T2DM are also at risk of fractures due to peripheral neuropathy causing ↑ falls)
29
Q

What is Tietze’s syndrome?

A

It is a benign inflammation and swelling of one or more

of the costal cartilages

  • It is NOT THE SAME as chostochondritis as costochondritis doesn’t involve swelling of cartilage
  • Often mistaken for MI (which should be ruled out for diagnosis)
  • Tends to be self limiting - resolves in < 12 weeks
  • Cause not understood - could be strain e.g. cough, vomiting etc.