MSK Flashcards

1
Q

How does temporal arteritis present?

A

Temporal arteritis: usually rapid onset unilateral headache with jaw claudication and raised ESR

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2
Q

What is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

a HLA-B27-associated spondyloarthropathy typically presenting in men aged 20-30

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3
Q

How do we manage ankylosing spondylitis?

A

First-line management involves the use of an NSAID, such as ibuprofen, along with extensive physiotherapy.

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4
Q

How does ankylosing spondylitis present on XR?

A

X-ray of the pelvis is particularly useful as the sacroiliac joints are commonly affected, demonstrating subchondral erosions and sclerosis.

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5
Q

Where do you see a positive Simmon’s sign?

A

Achilles tendon rupture

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6
Q

How does De Quervain’s tenosynovitis present?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an idiopathic pain syndrome involving the tendons of extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus at the radial wrist.

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7
Q

What is Finkelstein’s test?

A

Finkelstein’s test, which is performed by pulling the patient’s thumb with ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can aid the diagnosis of De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. Finkelstein’s test is positive if the manoeuvre reproduces pain.

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8
Q

What is CREST syndrome?

A

This patient has Sclerodactyly and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Telangiectasia can also be seen on the hands. She therefore has the RST of CREST syndrome, or more accurately limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.

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9
Q

What is bamboo spine?

A

bamboo spine with a single central radiodense line related to ossification of supraspinous and interspinous ligaments which is called dagger sign. Ankylosing is detectable in both sacroiliac joints.

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10
Q

What is the other name for tennis elbow?

A

lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow. This condition is characterized by pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle of the humerus, which is aggravated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended.

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11
Q

What is trochanteric bursitis?

A

Due to repeated movement of the fibroelastic iliotibial band
Pain and tenderness over the lateral side of thigh
Most common in women aged 50-70 years

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12
Q

What are Gottron’s papules?

A

Gottron’s papules are roughened red papules over the extensor surfaces and are seen in dermatomyositis

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13
Q

How can we treat Raynaud’s phenomenon pharmacologically?

A

Oral nifedipine

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14
Q

Which movement temporarily causes the pain in lateral epicondylitis?

A

Lateral epicondylitis: worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination whilst elbow extended

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15
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with achilles tendon rupture?

A

Cipro causes achilles tendon rupture

Cipro stops you from going pro

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16
Q

How does reactive arthritis present?

A

Urethritis + arthritis +/- conjunctivitis = reactive arthritis

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17
Q

What is the McMurray’s test?

A

A meniscal tear is usually caused by twisting of the knee and on examination, McMurrays test will be positive. To perform McMurrays test, the knee is held in one hand, which is placed along the joint line, and flexed while the sole of the foot is held with the other hand. One hand is placed on the medial side of the knee to pull the knee towards a varus position. The other hand is used to rotate the leg internally whilst extending the knee. If pain or a ‘click’ is felt, this constitutes a ‘positive McMurray test’.

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18
Q

What is the most common reason THRs need revising?

A

Aseptic loosening is the most common reason for total hip replacement revision. This often presents with pain in the hip or groin region radiating down to the knee.

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19
Q

How does PMR present?

A

Features
typically patient > 60 years old

The core symptoms are pain and stiffness of the:
Shoulders, potentially radiating to the upper arm and elbow
Pelvic girdle (around the hips), potentially radiating to the thighs
Neck

The characteristic features of the pain and stiffness are:

Worse in the morning
Worse after rest or inactivity
Interfere with sleep
Take at least 45 minutes to ease in the morning
Somewhat improve with activity

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20
Q

What is olecranon bursitis?

A

Olecranon bursitis (‘student’s elbow’) is a common cause for elbow swelling and may be caused by prolonged pressure, trauma or rheumatoid arthritis

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21
Q

Where would you see anti-Ro antigen?

A

Primary Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder characterised by lymphocytic infiltration of the exocrine glands, particularly the salivary and lacrimal glands, leading to symptoms such as dry mouth (xerostomia) and dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca). Anti-Ro (also known as SS-A) autoantibodies are found in approximately 60-70% of patients with primary Sjogren’s syndrome, making it the most associated autoantibody for this condition.

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22
Q

How does lateral epicondylitis present?

A

Sometimes referred to as ‘tennis’ elbow, but remember other activities can also trigger it.

Worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination whilst elbow extended

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23
Q

How does medial epicondylitis present?

A

This condition is commonly referred to as ‘golfer’s’ elbow. The pain is aggravated by wrist flexion and pronation. Sometimes it is associated with ulnar nerve compression. The symptoms in the question do not suggest medial epicondylitis as the pain is worsened on resisted extension and there are no other associated features.

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24
Q

Who must we refer to when starting hydroxychloroquine?

A

H-eye-droxychloroquine

Recent data suggest that retinopathy caused by hydroxychloroquine is more common than previously thought and the most recent RCOphth guidelines (March 2018) suggest colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula for patients likely to be taking the drug for more than 5 years.

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25
Q

Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in knee arthroplasty?

A

Common peroneal nerve

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26
Q

How does SLE present?

A

The malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy and history of mental health points towards a diagnosis of SLE. Remember that the CRP (in contrast to the ESR) is typically normal in SLE.

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27
Q

Name an important SE of alendronate

A

Bisphosphonates can cause a variety of oesophageal problems

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28
Q

How should oral bisphosphonates be taken?

A

Oral bisphosphonates should be swallowed with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medication); the patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking

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29
Q

Give a common SE of methotrexate

A

Methotrexate may cause pneumonitis - typically presents with cough, dyspnoea and fever

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30
Q

How do we manage >75 years following a fragility fracture

A

Alendronate and then DEXA scan

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31
Q

How do we treat acute reactive arthritis?

A

NSAIDs

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32
Q

How do we interpret FRAX score?

A

FRAX
a colour ‘risk’ is given by the calculator - green, orange or red
patients in the orange zone should have a DEXA scan if not already done to further refine their 10-year risk
patients in the red zone should also have a DEXA scan if not already done to act as a baseline and guide drug treatment

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33
Q

A 59-year-old man with a history of gout presents with a swollen and painful first metatarsophalangeal joint. He currently takes allopurinol 400mg od as gout prophylaxis. What should happen to his allopurinol therapy?

A

Allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that reduces the production of uric acid, and it is used as a long-term management strategy for gout. According to the UK guidelines, during an acute attack of gout, existing urate-lowering therapy (like allopurinol) should not be discontinued or altered in dosage. This is because changes in serum urate levels can precipitate acute attacks. Therefore, continuing allopurinol at its current dose would be the most appropriate course of action.

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34
Q

How does aspirin react with sulfsalazine?

A

Patients who are allergic to aspirin may also react to sulfasalazine`

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35
Q

How does lumbar spinal stenosis present?

A

Patients may present with a combination of back pain, neuropathic pain and symptoms mimicking claudication. One of the main features that may help to differentiate it from true claudication in the history is the positional element to the pain. Sitting is better than standing and patients may find it easier to walk uphill rather than downhill.

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36
Q

How does meniscal tear present?

A

Meniscal tears result in a variety of symptoms including pain (which is often intermittent), locking, catching, and the knee giving way. Swelling usually occurs but develops several hours after the injury. On examination, there is well-localised pain over the joint line (anteromedial or anterolateral), along with varying levels of swelling and reduced mobility.

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37
Q

How do we diagnose meniscal tears?

A

MRI

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38
Q

How do we manage intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture?

A

Dynamic hip screw

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39
Q

What must we check before starting azathioprine?

A

Thiopurine methyltransferase is the enzyme required to metabolism azathioprine, a small proportion of the population had reduced activity or deficiency of this enzyme putting them at risk of azathioprine toxicity. Accordingly. levels should be tested prior to commencing the drug with cautious dosing or an alternate therapy used if TPMT is found.

azaTHIOprine - THIOpurine easy to memorise

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40
Q

How does L5 lesion present?

A

L5 lesion features = loss of foot dorsiflexion + sensory loss dorsum of the foot

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41
Q

Give the red flags in back pain

A

Trauma/tenderness
Unexplained weight loss
Neurological findings
Age > 50 years old or <20

Fever
IVDU
Steroids use
History of cancer

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42
Q

What is cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the ulnar nerve and can present with tingling/numbness of the 4th and 5th finger. Usually conservative management.

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43
Q

What is a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Anaphylaxis

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44
Q

What is etanercept, and what is a risk factor of its use?

A

TNF-α inhibitors may reactivate TB
Used in RA

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45
Q

Hydroxychloroquine is used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. What is the main SE to be aware of?

A

Importantly, there is a risk of retinopathy and so patients on hydroxychloroquine should be advised to look out for visual symptoms and should have their visual acuity assessed annually.

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46
Q

How does psoriatic arthritis differ from RA?

A

An asymmetrical presentation suggests psoriatic arthritis rather than rheumatoid

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47
Q

How does subacromial impingement present?

A

Subacromial impingement often presents with a painful arc of abduction

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48
Q

How does a supraspinatus tear present?

A

A supraspinatus tear is the closest differential from these options for the cause of this man’s presentation. Shoulder pain and acromial tenderness would both be expected but the pain would be limited to the initial 60 degrees of abduction rather than the midpoint indicating impingement as the more likely cause. Depending on the extent of the tear, abduction can also be limited due to difficulty initiating the movement.

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49
Q

How does frozen shoulder present?

A

Active and passive movement limited + external rotation most affected. Frozen shoulder, also known as adhesive capsulitis, is characterised by pain and stiffness in the shoulder joint. It typically presents with both active and passive movement limitation due to fibrosis and inflammation of the joint capsule. External rotation is usually the most affected movement in frozen shoulder, followed by abduction and then internal rotation.

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50
Q

How does dermatomyositis present?

A

Derma-to-myositis
Derma-: Skin Symptoms first Gottron’s papules, heliotrope and macular rash)
to- : Followed by muscle symptoms
myositis-: muscle weakness due to inflammation

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51
Q

How does facet joint present?

A

May be acute or chronic
Pain worse in the morning and on standing
On examination there may be pain over the facets. The pain is typically worse on extension of the back

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52
Q

How do we manage temporal arteritis?

A

Glucocorticoids (e.g. pred) should be given once a diagnosis of temporal arteritis is suspected - don’t wait for the temporal artery biopsy etc

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53
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

Paget’s disease is a disease of increased but uncontrolled bone turnover. It is thought to be primarily a disorder of osteoclasts, with excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity.

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54
Q

How does Paget’s disease present?

A

old man, bone pain, raised ALP

55
Q

How should you manage scaphoid fracture?

A

due to the risk of avascular necrosis due to the blood supply to the scaphoid bone, needs to be seen in an orthopaedic clinic - you may be able to refer directly or this may need to be via your local emergency department.

56
Q

Following a THR pts must avoid…

A

Crossing their legs

57
Q

How does PMR present?

A

Features
typically patient > 60 years old
usually rapid onset (e.g. < 1 month)
aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles
weakness is not considered a symptom of polymyalgia rheumatica
also mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, night sweats

Investigations
raised inflammatory markers e.g. ESR > 40 mm/hr
note creatine kinase and EMG normal

58
Q

How do we treat PMR?

A

prednisolone e.g. 15mg/od
patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis

59
Q

What does burning thigh pain suggest?

A

? meralgia paraesthetica - lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh compression

60
Q

Which medication in RA may cause ILD?

A

Sulfasalazine

61
Q

Give an eye complication of steroid use

A

Cataracts

62
Q

Where do you see anti-dsDNA antibodies?

A

SLE

63
Q

Where do you see anti-jo1 antibodies?

A

polymyo/dermatomyositis

64
Q

Where do you see anti-CCP antibodies?

A

RA

65
Q

Where do you see anti-ro/anti-la antibodies?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome

66
Q

Which bones does Paget’s disease usually affect?

A

Paget’s disease of the bone generally affects the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities

67
Q

What is the cause of housemaid’s knee?

A

The prepatellar bursa lies anterior to the patella, and inflammation can be caused by excessive skin/patella friction, e.g. by working on one’s knees. For this reason, it has been known as ‘Housemaid’s knee’.

Housemaid’s PREP the house (PREPatellar)

68
Q

What is keratoderma blennorrhagica?

A

Keratoderma blennorrhagica is a skin condition that is associated with reactive arthritis, formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome

69
Q

When must we be careful with sulfasalazine?

A

Cautions
G6PD deficiency
allergy to aspirin or sulphonamides (cross-sensitivity)

70
Q

There is a small left para-central L4/5 disc prolapse causing compression of the transiting L5 nerve root. There is no compression of the cauda equina with CSF visible around all nerve roots.
All other discs are normal and there are no bony abnormalities visible. Mx?

A

A referral for sciatica is appropriate after 4-6 weeks of conservative treatment (analgesia and physiotherapy) has failed.

71
Q

Which condition is Sjogren’s syndrome linked with?

A

RA

72
Q

How does hypocalcaemia present?

A

tingling sensations, muscle spasms and aches, and nausea and vomiting. Common with bisphosphonates

73
Q

How does antiphospholipid syndrome present on coag?

A

prolonged APTT + low platelets

74
Q

How does epidural abscess present?

A

Signs of systemic sepsis with changing lower limb neurology

75
Q

How does PMR present?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatic is characterised by abrupt onset of bilateral early morning stiffness in the over 60s

76
Q

How long do we give abx for in septic arthritis?

A

4-6/52

77
Q

What is the Ottawa rule?

A

The Ottawa ankle rules determine the need to perform an ankle x-ray for patients presenting with foot or ankle pain. If an ankle x-ray is not indicated by the Ottawa ankle rules the probability of a fracture is very low. The rules state an x-ray is only required if there is an inability to weight bear both immediately after the injury and on assessment, or there is tenderness along the distal 6cm of the posterior edge of the tibia or fibula or distal tip of either malleoli.

78
Q

What is the earliest sign of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Reduced lateral flexion of the lumbar spine

79
Q

What is dactylitis?

A

Dactylitis describes the inflammation of a digit (finger or toe).

80
Q

What are the Ottowa rules?

A

An ankle x-ray is required only if there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings:
bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone (from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of posterior border of the fibular)
bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone (from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia)
-inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department

81
Q

What is a Buckle fracture?

A

Buckle, or torus, fractures are incomplete fractures of the shaft of a long bone that is characterised by bulging of the cortex. They typically occur in children aged 5-10 years.

82
Q

How do S1 lesions present?

A

S1 lesion features = Sensory loss of posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot, weakness in plantar flexion of foot, reduced ankle reflex, positive sciatic nerve stretch test

83
Q

How do we manage displaced hip fracture?

A

Hemiarthroplasty or THR

84
Q

How do we manage achilles tendonitis?

A

Achilles tendonitis management: rest, NSAIDs, and physio if symptoms persist beyond 7 days

85
Q

Give three causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

idiopathic
pregnancy
oedema e.g. heart failure
lunate fracture
rheumatoid arthritis

86
Q

What is a myxoid cyst?

A

Myxoid cysts, also known as digital mucous cysts, are benign lesions that typically occur on the fingers or toes, particularly around the nail bed. They are often associated with osteoarthritis and degenerative joint diseases, which fits with this patient’s history. The presence of a swelling proximal to the nail bed in a 60-year-old woman with osteoarthritis strongly suggests a myxoid cyst.

87
Q

How does medial meniscus tear present?

A

Gradual swelling of the knee is suggestive of effusion which often occurs due to meniscal injury. Tenderness over the medial joint line suggests a medial meniscus tear.

88
Q

How do posterior hip dislocations present?

A

Posterior hip dislocations present with a shortened and internally rotated leg

89
Q

What is clubfoot, and how does it present?

A

Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable. Clubfoot, also known as talipes equinovarus, is a congenital deformity that is characterised by the foot being turned inwards (inverted) and downwards (plantar flexed). The key feature of this condition is that the foot cannot be easily or fully corrected into a neutral position passively - this means without active movement from the patient.

90
Q

How do we treat clubfoot?

A

This condition often requires treatment with methods such as the Ponseti method, which involves gentle manipulation and casting of the foot over several weeks to gradually correct its position.

91
Q

What is trigger finger?

A

a condition that makes it difficult to bend or straighten a finger or thumb. It occurs when a tendon or its sheath becomes swollen or inflamed, causing the tendon to get stuck in the sheath. Symptoms include:
A catching or locking sensation in the finger
A popping or clicking sound when moving the finger
Tenderness in the palm at the base of the affected finger
Stiffness, especially in the morning
Pain when flexing the finger
Palpable nodule

92
Q

What is the female athlete triad of excessive exercise?

A

Women with low calorie intake or menstrual irregularities who have started a new sport or increased their training are at particular risk of stress fractures

93
Q

How does femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) present?

A

It commonly presents with hip/groin pain worse on prolonged sitting and associated with snapping, clicking or locking of the hip. There is an association between FAI and prior hip pathology eg Perthes in childhood. It is caused by a variant in hip anatomy leading to abnormal contact between the femur and acetabulum rim.

94
Q

Which RA drug can cause demyelination?

A

Etanercept

95
Q

How do we manage flares of RA?

A

Steroids

96
Q

Which side-effect is it most important to warn pts taking colchicine about?

A

Diarrhoea

97
Q

How long much a pt be symptomatic for before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

3 months

98
Q

Which foods must people with gout avoid?

A

Foods to avoid include those high in purines e.g. Liver, kidneys, seafood, oily fish (mackerel, sardines) and yeast products

99
Q

What are the clinical findings in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Clinical findings in anylosing spondylitis include reduced chest expansion, reduced lateral flexion and reduced forward flexion (Schober’s test)

100
Q

What is Schober’s test?

A

a line is drawn 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples (dimples of Venus). The distance between the two lines should increase by more than 5 cm when the patient bends as far forward as possible

101
Q

What causes dermatomyositis?

A

Usually an autoimmune condition, being most common in women aged 50-70. However, it can also be a paraneoplastic disease, with ovarian, breast and lung tumours being the most common underlying cancers

102
Q

A 75-year-old female was recently started on alendronate for treatment of osteoporosis following a fragility fracture. She returns to your clinic as she has suffered troubling upper gastrointestinal side effects. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A

Change to risedronate

103
Q

As the patient will most likely be taking prednisolone for over 3 months, what is the most appropriate action regarding her increased risk of developing osteoporosis?

A

Bone protection (alendronate) for patients who are going to take long-term steroids should start immediately

104
Q

Which renal pathology is associated with osteoporosis?

A

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is correct. Osteoporosis is twice as common in those with eGFR <60 than in those with eGFR >60. Abnormalities of calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D metabolism in CKD lead to abnormal bone turnover and mineralization.

105
Q

Why is obesity protective against osteoporosis?

A

This is because adipose tissue can convert androgens into oestrogen, which aids in maintaining bone density. Moreover, greater body weight puts more stress on bones, leading to increased bone density as a response.

106
Q

Which XR changes are seen in RA?

A

Loss of joint space
Erosions
Soft tissue swelling
Soft bones (osteoporosis/ osteopenia)

107
Q

How does osteomalacia present?

A

A 65-year-old Asian female presents with generalised, tender bone pain and muscle weakness. Waddling gait.

The low calcium and phosphate combined with the raised alkaline phosphatase point towards osteomalacia.

108
Q

What blood test results would you expect with osteoporosis?

A

Normal

109
Q

Which blood test is abnormal in Paget’s disease?

A

Isolated raised ALP

110
Q

How does dactylitis present?

A

A ‘sausage-shaped’ digit is a classical description of dactylitis.

111
Q

Which condition is dactylitis linked to?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

112
Q

What does keratoderma blenorrhagica look like?

A

On the soles of both feet you notice a waxy yellow rash. Seen in reactive arhtritis

113
Q

What is associated with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome
Clots - veno/ arterial thrombus
L - livido reticularis
O - obstetric miscarriage
T - thrombocytopenia

114
Q

Which RA drug can exacerbate myasthenia gravis?

A

Penicillamine

115
Q

Which RA drug can cause bronchospasm?

A

Naproxen

116
Q

Which RA drug can cause proteinuria?

A

Penicillamine, gold

117
Q

Which RA drug can cause oligospermia?

A

Sulfasalazine

118
Q

Which RA drug can cause re-activation of TB?

A

Infliximab (or any other biologics, must do CXR prior to starting to look for cavitating disease as well as a tuberculin skin test or interferon-gamma release assay)

119
Q

How does ankylosing spondylitis present?

A

Apical fibrosis
Anterior uveitis
Aortic regurgitation
Achilles tendonitis
AV node block
Amyloidosis

120
Q

What causes gout, and what is seen on microscopy/.

A

Gout = moNosodium urate = Needle-shaped and Negatively birefringent

121
Q

How can we distinguish gout from pseudogout?

A

Arthrocentesis shows positively birefringent crystals. Importantly, calcium pyrophosphate deposition onto cartilaginous tissues manifests radiologically as chondrocalcinosis, making chondrocalcinosis the most specific finding for CPPD of the options available.

122
Q

What is radial tunnel syndrome?

A

To do

123
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is allergic contact dermatitis?

A

Type IV

ACID
Anaphlyaxis
Cell mediated
Immune complex deposition
Delayed hypersensitivity

124
Q

How does Ewing’s sarcoma present on XR?

A

‘onion skin’ appearance

125
Q

What is osteosarcoma, and how does it present?

A

the most common primary malignant bone tumour in children and adolescents which commonly affects the metaphyseal region of long bones. Radiographs classically show Codman triangle (a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone) with an associated sunburst appearance.

126
Q

How do we treat Paget’s disease?

A

Paget’s disease of the bone is treated with bisphosphonates

127
Q

How does Paget’s disease present?

A

3-year history of progressively worsening hip and back pain. He reports the hip pain is worse on weight-bearing and improves with rest. On examination, you noticed frontal bossing and bowing of the legs.

128
Q

Which antibiotic must never be co-prescribed with methotrexate?

A

Co-trimoxazole contains trimethoprim and therefore should never be prescribed with methotrexate

This patient is presenting with symptoms of bone marrow suppression such as sore throat, mouth ulcer, fever and feeling generally unwell. Additionally, her blood results show anaemia, thrombocytopenia and neutropenia, showing that her bone marrow is being suppressed.

severe myelosuppression

129
Q

Which antibody is associated with drug-induced lupus?

A

Anti-histone antibody

AntihiSTONED antibody - drug-induced lupus

130
Q

How can we distinguish gout from pseudogout on XR?

A

Chondrocalcinosis helps to distinguish pseudogout from gout

131
Q

How do we manage bisphosphonates long-term?

A

After a five year period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan.

This guidance separates patients into high and low risk groups. To fall into the high risk group, one of the following must be true:
Age >75
Glucocorticoid therapy
Previous hip/vertebral fractures
Further fractures on treatment
High risk on FRAX scoring
T score <-2.5 after treatment

If any of the high risk criteria apply, treatment should be continued indefinitely, or until the criteria no longer apply. If they are in the low risk group however, treatment may be discontinued and re-assessed after two years, or if a further fracture occurs.

In the case of this patient, she has no risk factors which put her into the high risk group, but we do not have a recent DEXA scan. The best option would therefore be to re-scan her now, and consider a two year break if her T score is >-2.5

132
Q

Which medications can cause drug-induced lupus?

A

lupus Makes My HIPS Extremely Painful:
Methyldopa
Minocycline
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
Phenytoin

133
Q
A