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Phase 3a - Paediatrics > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the genetic pattern of the genetic mutations that are associated with osteogenesis imperfecta (and what % have this)?

A

90%
Type 1 collagen genes - COL1A1 and COL1A2
Dominant mutation

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1
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Brittle bone syndrome where the brittle bones are prone to fractures

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2
Q

What is the key sign to look out for in a child with suspected osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Recurrent unexplained fractures (where you are considering safeguarding) and have GREY/BLUE sclera

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3
Q

Other than blue sclera how may a child with osteogenesis imperfecta present?

A

Hypermobility
Triangular face and short stature
Bone deformities with bowed legs and scoliosis

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4
Q

How may the most severe present during pregnancy?

A

Most severe forms prenatal diagnosis: 2nd trimester by USS

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5
Q

How may osteogenesis imperfecta present after birth?

A

X-Ray, bone densitometry and genetic testing after birth.

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6
Q

How may osteogenesis imperfecta be managed (two medication given)?

A

Bisphosphates: increase bone density
Vitamin D supplements: prevent deficiency

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7
Q

What is transient synovitis?

A

Irritable hip caused by transient irritation and inflammation in the synovial joint membrane (associated with recent viral URTI)

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8
Q

How does transient synovitis tend to present?

A

Within few weeks of viral illness.
Acute/more gradual onset of limb, refusal to weight bear, groin/hip pain, mild-low grade fever

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9
Q

The presence of what will prompt transient synovitis to be treated as septic arthritis?

A

The presence of a fever

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10
Q

How should transient synovitis be managed?

A

Treat symptoms with simple analgesia prior to symptom resolution which should take 1-2 wks. If fever then treat like septic arthritis

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11
Q

What is the recurrence rate of transient synovitis?

A

Around 20%

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12
Q

What is rickets?

A

Defective bone mineralization causing soft and deformed bones

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13
Q

What can rickets progress to in adults if left untreated?

A

Can progress to causing osteomalacia in adults

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14
Q

What is rickets a deficiency in?

A

Vitamin D or Calcium

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15
Q

What is rickets secondary to?

A
  • Gastrointestinal malabsorption - consider causes
  • Liver disease
  • Renal disease
  • Drugs: anticonvulsants, rifampicin, HAART
  • Severe dietary calcium deficiency
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16
Q

What can cause GI malabsorption which can contribute to rickets in a paediatric patient?

A
  • Surgery
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Chronic pancreatic disease
  • Crohn’s
  • Biliary disease
  • Coeliac disease
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17
Q

What is the genetic pattern of hereditary hypophosphatemia rickets?

A

X-linked dominant disorder

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17
Q

Describe the pathophysiological mechanism causing rickets to be worsened?

A
  1. Inadequate vit D
  2. Lack of calcium and phosphate in blood
  3. Low levels result in defective bone mineralization
  4. Secondary hyper-PTH as parathyroid gland secretes PTH to raise calcium levels
  5. Stimulates increased reabsorption of calcium from bones
  6. Further bone mineralization problems
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17
Q

How will rickets present?

A

Bone deformity
Lethargy
Bone pain, swollen wrist
Poor growth and muscle weakness
Dental problems
Patho and abnormal fractures

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18
Q

What level of serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D in rickets patients is required to diagnose vitamin D deficiency?

A

<25 nmol/L

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19
Q

What will be observed on blood serum in a rickets patient?

A

Low serum calcium, phosphate
High PTH, serum alkaline phosphate

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20
Q

What is required for rickets diagnosis?

A

X-ray

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21
Q

What is given as a management for rickets?

A

Supplement 10 micrograms per day of calcium
Ergocalciferol vitamin D for vitamin deficiency

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21
Q

Which age of children is septic arthritis seen most often in?

A

<4 years old

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of paediatric septic arthritis?

A

Hot, red, swollen, painful joint
Hip and knee = third of cases
Refusal to weight bear
Stiffness and reduced range of motion
Systemic symptoms - fever, lethargy, sepsis

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23
Q

Name bacterial causes of septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus
Neisseria gonorrhoea (especially sexually active teens)
GAS
HiB
Escherichia coli

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24
Q

What are the key differential diagnoses to consider?

A
  • Transient synovitis
  • Perthes disease
  • Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
  • Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
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25
Q

What is the gold standard of septic arthritis?

A

Joint aspiration

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26
Q

What medication is given to patients with septic arthritis?

A

Flucloxacillin and vancomycin (MRSA)

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27
Q

What is given as an alternative to flucloxacillin should one have a penicillin allergy?

A

Clindamycin

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28
Q

What is the cause of Perthes disease and location?

A

Epiphysis of femur
Disruption of blood flow to the femoral head causing avascular necrosis of bone

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29
Q

What age range will Perthes disease effect predominantly?

A

Children ages 4-12 and is more common in boys

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30
Q

How does the pathological process of Perthes disease present and worsen?

A
  1. Revascularization or neovascularization of femoral head over time
  2. Bone remodeling as it heals
  3. Complication: soft and deformed femoral head
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30
Q

What does Perthes disease lead to (or at high risk of)?

A

Early hip osteoarthritis and need for artificial hip replacement

31
Q

What is it key to look out for in a child with Perthes disease?

A

NO HISTORY OF TRAUMA
Pain in hip or groin, limp, restricted hip movement, referred pain to knee

32
Q

What are the investigations for Perthes disease?

A

X-Ray
Blood tests - particular inflammatory markers
Technetium bone scan
MRI scan

33
Q

What are the management options for Perthes disease?

A

Initially conservative with physio and X-ray to assess healing
Then surgery (improve alignment + fn of femoral head and hip) if not successful.

34
Q

A patient has suffered displacement of the femoral head which slips along the growth plate. What is the diagnosis and who is it more common within?

A

Boys 8-15 (generally 12 average). Obese.
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

35
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

12 year old adolescent obese male who has slipped and bashed his hip. He’s recently undergone a growth spurt.

36
Q

How is slipped upper femoral epiphysis diagnosed?

A

X-ray
Blood test - inflammatory markers
Technetium bone scan
CT/MRI

37
Q

What is the management for slipped upper femoral epiphysis?

A

Surgery - return femoral head to the correct position

38
Q

What is the clinical presentation of a patient with osteomyelitis?

A

Afebrile with a low-grade fever with pain, swelling and tenderness in their joint which they are refusing to weight bear on.

39
Q

Which bones does osteomyelitis typically affect?

A

Long bones

40
Q

What are risk factors for osteomyelitis?

A
  • Open fracture
  • <10 years old
  • Orthopaedic surgery
  • IC, TB, HIV
  • Sickle cell anaemia
41
Q

What should signify with reference to osteomyelitis that it should be escalated to septic arthritis?

A

Fever may be high and this is often the case in acute osteomyelitis

42
Q

What is the management for osteomyelitis?

A

Antibiotics and surgery to drain and debride the infected bone

43
Q

What is osgood-schlatter’s disease?

A

Inflammation at the tibial tuberosity where the patella ligament inserts

44
Q

What is the pattern of Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

A

Usually unilateral

45
Q

What is the pathophysiological process of the symptoms of Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

A
  1. Patella point insertion into the tibial tuberosity at the epiphyseal plate
  2. Growth, run/jump/moving results in inflammation
  3. Multiple small avulsions fractures where patella ligament pulls away pieces of bone
  4. Growth on tibial tuberosity
  5. Visible lump below knee
  6. Tender, but RICE
46
Q

Which fractures is Osgood-Schlatter’s disease?

A

Small avulsion fractures

47
Q

What is the management plan for Osgood Schlatter’s disease?

A

RICE, NSAIDs
Stretch quads and physiotherapy to strengthen joint

48
Q

What is a rare complication of OSD?

A

Full avulsion fracture of the joint (complete separation of the tibial tuberosity)

49
Q

What is developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Structural abnormality in the hip causing abnormal development of the fetal bones during pregnancy
–> potential for subluxation or dislocation

50
Q

What are the two tests for developmental dysplasia of the hip which would indicate potential positive or negative test?

A

Ortolani test
Barlow test

51
Q

What is seen on the Ortolani test and Barlow test in developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Ortolani test: pressure used to to abduct hips and pressure behind legs with fingers to see if hip dislocates anteriorly
Barlow test: gentle downward pressure on knees through femur to see if femoral head dislocates posteriorly

52
Q

What are risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A
  • 1st degree FH
  • Breech presentation from 36wks onwards
  • Breech presentation at birth if 28wks onwards
  • Multiple pregnancy
53
Q

Is there screening for developmental hip dysplasia?

A

Yes at 6-8wks as part of the NIPE: one should look for symmetry in hips, leg length, skin folds, hip movements

53
Q

What is the diagnosis for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

USS
X-Ray in older infants

53
Q

Management for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Pavlik harness if <6 months for 6-8wks
Surgery if >6 months old - hip spica cast to immobilize hip for prolonged period

54
Q

What is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

Autoimmune inflammation occurring in the joints with joint pain, swelling and stiffness

55
Q

Diagnosis for JIA if what?

A

Arthritis without cause lasting for >6 months in patient <16 years old.

56
Q

What are the key tell-tale symptoms of systemic JIA (Still’s disease)?

A

Subtle salmon-pink rash, fever, joint pain with enlarged lymph nodes.
Splenomegaly with muscle pain.

57
Q

What will be found should investigations be performed for systemic JIA (Still’s disease)?

A
  • Antinuclear antibodies, RF typically negative
  • Raised inflammatory markers - raised CRP, ESR, platelets, serum ferritin
58
Q

What is a key complication of systemic JIA?

A

Macrophage activation syndrome (MAS): DIC, anaemia, thrombocytopenia, bleed, non-blanching rash, low ESR

59
Q

What characterizes macrophage activation syndrome?

A

DIC, anemia, thrombocytopenia, bleed, non-blanching rash, low ESR

60
Q

What is polyarticular JIA?

A

Idiopathic inflammation in 5 or more joints

61
Q

What is the pattern of polyarticular JIA?

A

Symmetrical affecting 5 or more joints:
- Small joints of hands and feet
and
- Large joints of hips and knees

62
Q

What are the Sx of polyarticular JIA?

A

Mild fever, anaemia, reduced growth

63
Q

What will be found on serum Ix for polyarticular JIA?

A

Tend to be negative for RF
If seropositive then disease pattern similar to RF

64
Q

What is the pattern of oligoarticular JIA?

A

4 joints or less, usually monoarthritis in larger joints - knees and ankles

65
Q

Who are affected and what age in oligoarticular JIA?

A

Girls <6 years old.

66
Q

What is a key characteristic symptom of oligoarticular JIA?

A

Anterior uveitis

67
Q

What is seen on serum for oligoarticular JIA?

A

Antinuclear antibodies often positive
RF usually negative

68
Q

Enthesitis-related arthritis affects who primarily?

A

Males over 6 years old

69
Q

What is found on investigation for enthesis-related arthritis?

A

MRI scan. HLA-B27 gene

70
Q

What are the associated symptoms of enthesitis-related arthritis?

A

Psoriasis, IBD symptoms (diarrhoea and rectal bleeding), anterior uveitis

71
Q

Which joints may elicit tenderness of entheses?

A

Interphalangeal joints of the hand and wrist
Greater trochanter of the lateral aspect of the hip
Quad insertion at ASIS
Base of Achilles at calcaneus

72
Q

What is the pattern of juvenile psoriatic arthritis?

A

Symmetrical small joins and asymmetrical larger joints

73
Q

What will be seen on examination in a patient with juvenile psoriatic arthritis?

A

Pitting, onycholysis, dactylitis, enthesis, psoriatic plaques

74
Q

What DMARDs can be given to children to treat arthritis?

A

Methotrexate, sulfasalazine, leflunomide

75
Q

What biologics can be given to a patient with arthritis?

A

Tumour necrosis factor inhibitor: etanercept, infliximab and adalimumab

76
Q

What is Henoch-Schonlein Purpura?

A

IgA vasculitis presenting with purpuric rash affecting the lower limbs and buttocks in children

77
Q

What are the four classic features of Henoch-Schoenlein Purpura?

A
  1. Purpura - legs and spreads to buttocks
  2. Arthralgia/arthritis - knees/ankles: reduced ROM
  3. Abdominal pain - can lead to GI haemorrhage, intussusception, bowel infection
  4. IgA nephritis: macroscopic or microscopic hematuria and proteinuria
78
Q

What must be satisfied from the EULAR/PRINTO/PRES criteria for Henoch-Schonlein Purpura to be diagnosed?

A

Must have palpable purpura and at least one of:
1. Diffuse abdominal pain
2. Arthritis or arthralgia
3. IgA deposits on histology
4. Proteinuria or haematuria

79
Q

What is the management of HSP?

A

Supportive - analgesia, rest, hydrate
Monitor - urine dipstick (renal involvement - proteinuria, haematuria), BP (HTN)

Phase 3a - Paediatrics (11 decks)

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