Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NPTE prep > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

retroversion angle of the humerus

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

humeral head angle of inclination

A

135

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ratio of glenohumeral : scapulothoracic motion during abduction

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the first 30-60 degrees of shoulder abduction occur within the ______ joint

A

glenohumeral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

requirements for full shoulder elevation (6)

A

scapular stabilization
inferior glide of humerus
ER of humerus
Rot of clavicle at SC joint
scapular abduction
lat rot of AC joint
thoracic kyphosis straightens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

normal hip angle of inclination

A

115-125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

coxa valga angle

A

> 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

coxa vara angle

A

<115

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

normal femoral neck anteversion angle

A

10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“screw home” mechanism describes the ____ degrees of tibial ER that occurs with terminal knee extension

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vertebral spinous processes rule of 3

A

T1-T3 even with transverse
T4-T6 1/2 level below
T7-T9 full level below
T10 full level
T11 1/2 level
T12 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Very strong ligaments supporting posterior ilium and lumbar spine, limits motions between L5-S1

A

iliolumbar ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ligaments: limits sacral anterior rotation and superior translation

A

sacrotuberous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

spinal cord terminates at this spinal level (conus medullaris)

A

L1-L2 disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

between C2-C7 side-bending and rotation occur in the __________ direction

A

same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When the occiput side bends, C1 rotates in the ___________ direction

A

opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

during forward flexion which movement occurs first: spine or hips

A

lumbar spine

18
Q

during extension (from flexed position) which movement occurs first: hips or spine

A

hips

19
Q

when the sacral base tilts anteriorly and the coccyx moves posteriorly, this is referred to as….

A

nutation

20
Q

When the sacral base tilts posteriorly and the coccyx moves anteriorly, this is referred to as……..

A

counternutation

21
Q

T1 MRI is used to assess

A

bony anatomy

22
Q

T2 MRI is used to assess

A

soft tissue

23
Q

serratus anterior nerve and roots

A

long thoracic C5-C7

24
Q

supraspinatus, infraspinatus nerve and roots

A

suprascapular C5-C6

25
Q

teres major nerve and roots

A

subscapular C5-C6

26
Q

when ACL and medial meniscus are simultaneously injured, surgery should be performed on both. T or F

A

True

27
Q

limit lateral flexion in the cervical spine

A

uncovertebral joints (joints of luschka)

28
Q

limits cervical rotation through C1-C2

A

alar ligaments

29
Q

ligament that is effected with RA that prevents anterior translation of C1 on C2

A

transverse ligament

30
Q

angle of knee flexion for Lachman’s test

A

20-30

31
Q

phalen’s test is used to assess integrity of this nerve

A

median nerve

32
Q

autoimmune disease
periods of exacerbation remission
women 2 to 4 times greater incidence
bilateral, asymmetrical joint involvement

A

RA

33
Q

decalcification of bones due to vitamin D deficiency

A

osteomalacia

34
Q

characterized by trigger points
over-stretching
repetitive strain on muscles

A

myofascial pain syndrome

35
Q

inflammatory response within the bone
more common in men
usually caused by staph infection

A

osteomyelitis

36
Q

name of posterior lesion of the humeral head following posterior dislocation

A

Hill-Sachs

37
Q

avascular necrosis of the capitellum

A

Panner’s diseae

38
Q

calcaneal apophysitis in the growth plate of a child

A

Sever’s Disease

39
Q

Ottawa knee rules (5)

A

> 55 y o
isolated patellar tenderness
tenderness of fibular head
inability to reach 90 deg knee flex
inability to bear weight imed after injury

40
Q

Ottawa ankle rules (3)

A

bone tenderness from posterior edge of lateral malleolus or medial malleolus extending 6 cm proximally

inability to take 4 steps immediately in the ER

***do not use under the age of 18

41
Q

Ottawa foot rules (3)

A

tenderness of 5th metatarsal base
tenderness of navicular
inability to take 4 steps immediately in the ER

42
Q

Canadian C spine rules

A

> 65
dangerous mechanism
paresthesia in the UEs
inability to rotate 45 deg L<>R

NPTE prep (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions