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MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the skeletal system?

A

-Support
-Protection
-Movement
-Mineral Homeostasis
-Blood Cell production (red bone marrow)
-Triglyceride storage (yellow bone marrow)

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2
Q

Four types of bones?

A

-Long bones
-Short bones
-Flat bones
-Irregular bones

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3
Q

What are the parts of long bone?

A

-Diaphysis= the shaft
-Epiphyses= ends of the long bone
-Metaphyses= contains the “growth plate” and is located between the shaft and end of bone

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4
Q

What are the cells of bone?

A

-Osteoblasts: bone building cells
-Osteocytes: maintain bone; exchange nutrients and wastes with blood; are osteoblasts encased in matrix they build
-Osteoclasts: Digest bone matrix for normal bone turnover

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5
Q

What are the types of joints?

A

-Fibrous
-Cartilaginous
-Synovial

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6
Q

What are fibrous joints?

A

No cavity, just dense irregular connective tissue

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7
Q

What are cartilaginous joints?

A

No cavity, bones are held together by cartilage

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8
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Have synovial cavity and many other components such as ligaments

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9
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Have synovial cavity and many other components such as ligaments

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10
Q

What are the functions of ligaments?

A

-Composed of connective tissue
-Found throughout the skeletal system
-Function to connect bone to bone
-Commonly injured by spraining or tearing

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11
Q

What are the functions of tendons?

A

-Tough band of fibrous connective tissue
-Function to connect muscle to bone: skeletal muscles contracts and moves bones via tendons; very dense and more capable of withstanding tension

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12
Q

What is the function of cartilage?

A

-Covers ends of bones
-Absorbs shock
-Reduces friction
(cartilage is in the joint, but it is NOT a cartilaginous joint)

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13
Q

What is the function of bursa?

A

-Decreases friction

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14
Q

What are the different types of musculature in the body?

A

-Skeletal Muscle
-Cardiac Muscle
-Smooth Muscle

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15
Q

What are the major functions of the muscle systems?

A

-Produce body movements
-Stabilize body positions
-Store and move substances
-Produce heat

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16
Q

Define flexion.

A

Decrease in the angle between articulating bones

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17
Q

Define extension.

A

Increase in angle between articulating bones

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18
Q

Define Hyperextension.

A

Bending beyond 180 degrees, such as moving humerus backwards behind the anatomical plane

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19
Q

Define Abduction.

A

Movement of bone away from the midline

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20
Q

Define Adduction.

A

Movement of bone toward the midline

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21
Q

Define Circumdunction.

A

Movement of distal end in a circle

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22
Q

Define Rotation.

A

Bone revolves around its own longitudinal axis

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23
Q

Define Inversion.

A

Movement of the soles of the foot medially

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24
Q

Define Eversion.

A

Movement of the soles of the foot laterally

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25
Q

Define Dorsiflexion.

A

Bending foot toward the dorsum (standing on heels)

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26
Q

Define plantarflexion.

A

Bending the foot toward the plantar surface (standing on toes)

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27
Q

Describe the strength scale.

A

-Zero - No evidence of muscle function (including muscle twitch)
-Trace - Muscle contraction but no or very limited joint motion
-Poor - Complete range of motion with gravity eliminated
-Fair - Complete range of motion against gravity
-Good - Complete range of motion against with some resistance
-Normal - Complete range of motion with full or normal resistance

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28
Q

What are the regions of the vertebral column?

A

-Cervical (7 vertebrae)
-Thoracic (12 vertebrae)
-Lumbar (5 vertebrae)
-Coccyx (4 fused vertebrae)

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29
Q

How many normal curves are there?

A

There are four normal curves which help to increase strength, help balance, and absorb
shock.

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29
Q

How many normal curves are there?

A

There are four normal curves which help to increase strength, help balance, and absorb
shock.

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30
Q

Thoracic vertebrae

A

(1) T1- T12
(2) Larger than cervical vertebrae
(3) Have facets for rib articulation

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31
Q

Lumbar vertebrae

A

(1) L1- L5
(2) Largest, strongest
(3) Spinous processes are short, thick

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32
Q

Sacrum

A

(1) S1- S5 fused into one unit
(2) Foundation for pelvic girdle
(3) Contain sacral foramina for nerves and blood vessels

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33
Q

Coccyx

A

Four coccygeal vertebrae fused into one

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34
Q

What are the bones of the thorax?

A

-Sternum
-Manubrium
-Body
-Xyphoid process
-Ribs
-R1-R7 are true ribs
(a) Costal cartilage articulates directly with the sternum
-R8-R10 are false ribs
(a) Articulate with the sternum bi cartilage of Rib 7
-R11- R12 are floating ribs
(a) Do not articulate with the sternum at all

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35
Q

Name the bones of the pectoral girdle?

A

-Clavicle
-Scapula
-Coracoid

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36
Q

DESCRIBE the anatomy of the ligaments of the pectoral girdle.

A

-Acromioclavicular ligament
-Coracoclavicular ligament
-Coracoacromial ligament

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37
Q

What is the function and anatomy of the labrum?

A

a. The glenoid cavity is shallow, allowing only about 25% of humeral head to make contact.
(1) Articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint
b. The glenoid labrum forms a ring around this shallow cavity
(1) Deepens the glenoid and provides more stability to the joint

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38
Q

What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

A

-supraspinatus
-infraspinatus
-teres minor
-subscapularis
(SITS)

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39
Q

Describe the action of the supraspinatus?

A

Assists deltoid in abduction of the humerous at the shoulder

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40
Q

Describe the action of the infraspinatus?

A

External rotation of the humerus at the shoulder joint

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41
Q

Describe the action of the teres minor?

A

Extends arm at shoulder and rotation of the arm externally

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42
Q

Describe the action of the subscapularis?

A

Internal rotation of the arm at the shoulder.

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43
Q

Describe the action of the deltoid?

A

Abducts, flexes, and rotates arm at shoulder joint

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44
Q

Describe the action of the trapezius?

A

Multiple fibers in this large muscle move the scapula multi-directionally

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45
Q

Describe the action of the levator scapula?

A

Elevates scapula and rotates downward

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46
Q

Describe the action of the rhomboid major?

A

-Elevates and adducts scapula and rotates downward
-Stabilizes scapula

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47
Q

Describe the action of the pectoralis major?

A

-Adducts and rotates arm medially at the shoulder
-Flexes arm at the shoulder joint

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48
Q

Describe the action of the latissimus dorsi?

A

-Extends, adducts, and rotates arm medially at the shoulder joint
-Draws arm downward and backward

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49
Q

Describe the action of the teres major?

A

-Extends arm at the shoulder joint
-Assists with adduction and rotation of arm medially

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50
Q

Describe the action of the coracobrachilis?

A

Flexes and adducts arm at shoulder

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51
Q

What are the bones of the elbow?

A

-Humerus
-Radius
-Ulna

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52
Q

Describe the action of the biceps brachii?

A

-Flexes arm at the shoulder
-Flexes and supinates forearm at the elbow

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53
Q

Describe the action of the brachialis?

A

-Flexes forearm at the elbow joint

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54
Q

Describe the action of the brachioradialis?

A

-Flexes forearm at the elbow joint

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55
Q

Describe the action of the triceps brachii?

A

-Extends forearm at the elbow joint
-Extends arm at shoulder

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56
Q

Describe the action of the supinator?

A

-Supinates forearm

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57
Q

Describe the action of the pronator teres?

A

-Pronates forearm

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58
Q

What are the names of the bones in the hand?

A

Carpals
(1) Scaphoid
(2) Lunate
(3) Triquetrium
(4) Pisiform
(5) Trapezium
(6) Trapezoid
(7) Capitate
(8) Hamate

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59
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: flexor carpi radialis.

A

Flexes and abducts hand at wrist

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60
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: flexor carpi ulnaris.

A

Flexes and adducts hand at wrist

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61
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: palmaris.

A

Weakly flexes hand at wrist joint

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62
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: flexor digitorum superficialis

A

-Flexes hand at wrist
-Flexes phalanges of each finger at the PIP joint

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63
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: flexor digitorum profundus

A

-Flexes hand at wrist
-Flexes phalanges of each finger at DIP

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64
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Extensor carpi radialis longus

A

Extends and abducts hand at the wrist joint

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65
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Extensor carpi ulnaris

A

Extends and adducts hand at the wrist joint

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66
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Extensor digitorum

A

-Extends hand at wrist joint
-Extends phalanges of each finger

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67
Q

What is the ulnar nerve distribution to the hand?

A

(1) Motor supply to most of the intrinsic hand muscles
(a) Excludes thenar muscles and two lumbricals on radial aspect
(2) Sensation to little finger and ½ of ring finger

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68
Q

What is the median nerve distribution to the hand?

A

Palmar and dorsal aspect of first 3 and ½ fingers

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69
Q

What is the radial nerve distribution to the hand?

A

Dorsum of the hand and lateral first three fingers and one half of fourth finger

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70
Q

A prominent scapular spine and loss of lateral shoulder contour indicates what?

A

Atrophy of the supraspinatus / infraspinatus

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71
Q

What is Neer’s Impingement Sign used for?

A

Used to diagnose shoulder impingement or rotator cuff tears

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72
Q

What is Hawkin’s Impingement Sign used for?

A

Reinforces a positive Neer sign for impingement (Used to diagnose shoulder impingement or rotator cuff tears)

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73
Q

What is a dropped arm test used for?

A

Detects tears in the rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus)

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74
Q

What is the Speed’s test used for?

A

Helpful in diagnosing biceps tendonitis

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75
Q

What are the special tests for assessing an acromioclavicular (AC) joint impingement?

A

Neer, Hawkins, Cross-Body

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76
Q

What special tests are used to assess for ulnar nerve compression or damage?

A

Elbow Flexion Test, Tinel Sign at Elbow, Froment Sign, Flexor Digitorum Profundus

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77
Q

What structure is located in the anatomical snuff box and why is tenderness a concern?

A

Scaphoid and tenderness is a concern for fracture (often missed on initial radiograph
and heals poorly)

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78
Q

What are the special tests for labral damage or injury?

A

Apprehension Sign (anterior labral tear), Jobe Relocation Test (anterior labral tear),
Sulcus Sign (inferior labral tear), Jerk Test (posterior labral tear), O’Brien Test
(Superior Labral tear from Anterior to Posterior-SLAP lesion.

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79
Q

Type I: Acromioclavicular (AC) Injury

A

Acromioclavicular (AC) ligaments partially disrupted and Coracoclavicular (CC) ligaments are intact. No superior separation of clavicle from acromion.

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80
Q

Type II: Acromioclavicular (AC) Injury

A

AC ligaments are torn and CC ligaments are intact
resulting in partial separation of the clavicle from acromion.

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81
Q

Type III: Acromioclavicular (AC) Injury

A

AC and CC ligaments are completely disrupted resulting I complete separation of the clavicle from acromion.

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82
Q

Type IV: Acromioclavicular (AC) Injury

A

AC and CC ligaments are completely disrupted with superior and prominently posterior displacement.

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83
Q

Type V: Acromioclavicular (AC) Injury

A

AC and CC ligaments are completely disrupted with CC interspace more than twice as large as opposite shoulder.

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84
Q

Type VI: Acromioclavicular (AC) Injury

A

Uncommon. Clavicular periosteum and/or deltoid and trapezius muscle are torn resulting in wide displacement. Clavicle lies in either the subacromial space or subcoracoid space.

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85
Q

How long do you sling an AC injury?

A

I-III: 24-48 hrs
IV-VI: Until evaluated by Ortho

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86
Q

Which AC injuries require referral to Ortho?

A

III-VI

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87
Q

What is the most common bony injury?

A

Clavicle fracture

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88
Q

What is the most common location of a clavicle fracture?

A

Middle third

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89
Q

What special test would you use for a clavicle fracture?

A

Cross-body test

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90
Q

What confirms most clavicle fractures?

A

AP and 10 degree cephalic tilt radiographic views

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91
Q

What is the treatment for clavicle fx?

A

(1) Ice
(2) Analgesics (consider narcotic-level pain control)
(3) Orthopedic consult
(4) Mid-shaft fracture with minimal displacement and no neurovascular injury
(a) Figure-of-8 strap for 6-8 weeks

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92
Q

The glenohumeral joint provides multiple and extreme degrees of functional motion
that greatly depend on the rotator cuff muscles to do what?

A

properly seat the humeral head into
the glenoid fossa to provide stability

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93
Q

What does SIS stand for?

A

Shoulder impingement syndrome

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94
Q

What special tests are used for Shoulder impingement syndrome (SIS)?

A

Neer’s and Hawkin’s

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95
Q

Narrowing of sub acromial space suggests what in a radiograph?

A

long standing rotator cuff tear

96
Q

What special tests are used for rotator cuff tears?

A

Drop arm and empty can

97
Q

When is a bicep tendon rupture suspected?

A

if there was a single injury (a “pop”) with
ecchymosis and swelling

98
Q

What special test is used for bicep tendon injury/rupture?

A

Speed’s

99
Q

What allows shoulder mobility?

A

A shallow glenoid and loose capsule

100
Q

What is instability?

A

anterior, posterior, inferior or multidirectional glenohumeral laxity due to traumatic or atraumatic pathology

101
Q

What is subluxation?

A

humeral head partially slips out of socket with spontaneous reduction

102
Q

What is dislocation?

A

humeral head completely slips out of glenoid fossa with spontaneous reduction or sometimes requiring manual manipulation

103
Q

What is TUBS?

A

Traumatic unilateral dislocations with a Bankart lesion that can be successfully treated with surgery

104
Q

What is AMBRI?

A

Atraumatic multidirectional instability that is commonly bilateral and is often successfully treated with rehabilitation and occasionally an
inferior capsular shift (surgery)

105
Q

What is the most common direction of dislocation in shoulder?

A

Anterior dislocation

106
Q

What are the special tests used for shoulder instability?

A

Sulcus, apprehension test, anterior & posterior drawer, jerk test

107
Q

How do you reduce acute dislocation of shoulder?

A

(a) Stimson technique- gravity assisted with patient lying on stomach
(b) Longitudinal traction- elbow at 90 degrees flexion while longitudinal
traction is applied to the humerus. Gently rotate arm.
(c) Valium maybe be required to relax muscle structures to allow for reduction
(d) Re-evaluate axillary nerve function after reduction

108
Q

What is the Fibrocartilaginous ring attached to outer surface of glenoid?

A

Labrum

109
Q

What does the Labrum do?

A

(1) Give depth to the shoulder joint
(2) Increases area of contact between humeral head and glenoid
(3) Also serves as point of contact for several ligaments and tendons

110
Q

What do Superior labrum anterior posterior (SLAP) lesions involve?

A

Injury to the superior glenoid labrum and the biceps anchor complex

111
Q

What special tests are recommended for SLAP injury?

A

Obrien’s and Speed’s

112
Q

“A condition of varying severity characterized by the gradual development of
global limitation of active and passive shoulder motion where radiographic
findings other than osteopenia are absent.” is what?

A

Adhesive Capsulitis

113
Q

What is another name for adhesive capsulitis?

A

Frozen shoulder

114
Q

What are diseases that are associated with adhesive capsulitis?

A

Diabetes, thyroid disease, autoimmune disorders, stroke, Parkinsons, HIV medication use

115
Q

Concern for adhesive capsulitis is raised when a patient with history of shoulder injury
complains of what?

A

-Severe pain that is worse at night
-Nagging pain

116
Q

What is another name for lateral tendinosis?

A

Tennis elbow

117
Q

What is another name for medial tendinosis?

A

Golfer’s elbow/bowler’s elbow

118
Q

What is medial epicondylitis?

A

An overuse injury involving excessive use of the flexor and pronator muscles just distal to the medial epicondyle

119
Q

Where is the olecranon bursa located?

A

superficially located on extensor side of elbow

120
Q

What diagnostic tests are used for olecranon bursitis?

A

(1) Aspiration maybe be diagnostic and therapeutic
(a) Laboratory testing of aspirate for WBC count, crystals, gram stain and culture
(2) Radiographs needed to rule out fracture of olecranon process

121
Q

Compression of the ulnar nerve is what?

A

Cubital tunnel syndrome

122
Q

With acute onset patient will describe a “pop” while throwing is seen in what injury?

A

Ligamentous Injury

123
Q

What is the most common dislocation in children and third most common in adults?

A

Elbow dislocation

124
Q

An elbow dislocation results from what?

A

Fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH)

125
Q

What is the most common neuropathy of the upper extremity?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.

126
Q

A patient with carpal tunnel experiences numbness/tingling where?

A

Numbness and tingling into radial three digits of the hand (1st, 2nd and 3rd digits)

127
Q

What special tests are used for a patient with carpal tunnel?

A

Phalen maneuver and Tinel Sign

128
Q

What is de Quervain Tenosynovitis?

A

Swelling or stenosis of the sheath that surrounds the abductor pollicis longus and extensor
pollicis brevis tendon at the wrist.

129
Q

What special test is used for de Quervain Tenosynovitis?

A

Finkelstein Test

130
Q

What is the treatment for a scaphoid fracture?

A

Thumb spica splint

131
Q

What is a ganglion of the wrist?

A

Cystic structure that arises from capsule of a joint or a tendon synovial sheath

132
Q

What is a “Jersey Finger?”

A

-Rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon from its distal attachment
-Flexed DIP joint is suddenly and forcefully hyperextended

133
Q

What is a mallet finger?

A

-Rupture, laceration or avulsion of the insertion of the extensor tendon and base of distal
phalan
-Direct blow to the finger causing sudden forced flexion of the DIP/distal phalanx

134
Q

How long is a mallet finger splinted for?

A

6-8 weeks

135
Q

What is a boutonniere deformity?

A

-Extensor tendon rupture at insertion on middle phalanx
-Splint 3-6 weeks

136
Q

What are the bones of the pelvic girdle?

A

Ilium, Ischium, Pubis

137
Q

What is the largest most superior part of the pelvis?

A

Ilium

138
Q

What is the lowest posterior part of the pelvis?

A

Ischium

139
Q

What does the acetabulum form?

A

The socket for the head of the femur

140
Q

What is formed by articulation of the ischium and pubis and is the largest foramen in the body?

A

Obturator foramen

141
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Psoas major

A

Flexes and rotates thigh laterally

142
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Iliacus

A

Flexes and rotates thigh laterally

143
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Gluteus maximus

A

-Extends and rotates thigh laterally
-Helps lock knee in extension

144
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Gluteus medius

A

Abducts and rotates thigh medially

145
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Tensor fascia latae

A

-Flexes and abducts thigh at hip joint
-Helps lock knee in extension

146
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Adductor longus

A

Adducts, rotates, and flexes thigh at hip joint

147
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Adductor magnus

A

Adducts, flexes, rotates, and extends thigh at the hip joint

148
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Piriformis

A

External rotation of thigh laterally and abducts

149
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Pectineus

A

Flexes and adducts thigh

150
Q

What is the strongest bone in the body?

A

femur

151
Q

What is the projection from the femur at the side of the hip?

A

Greater trochanter

152
Q

What is the attachment site for the patella ligament?

A

Tibial tuberosity

153
Q

What bone attaches to the tibia via the interosseous membrane?

A

Fibula

154
Q

What strengthens the medial aspect of the knee?

A

Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)

155
Q

What strengthens the lateral aspect of the knee?

A

Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL)

156
Q

What extends posteriorly and laterally from the tibia to femur and limits hyperextension of the knee and prevents anterior sliding of the tibia on the femur?

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

157
Q

What extends anteriorly and medially from the tibia to the femur and Prevents posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur?

A

Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)

158
Q

What are sac filled structures filled with fluid and reduce friction?

A

Bursae

159
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Gracilis

A

-Adducts and medially rotates thigh
-Flexes leg at the knee

160
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: adductor magnus

A

Adducts the femur

161
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: adductor longus

A

Adducts the femur

162
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: pectineus

A

Adducts the femur

163
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: rectus feoris

A

-Extends the knee
-Flexes the hip
-Located anterior to other quadriceps muscles

164
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: vastus lateralis

A

Extends the knee

165
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: medialis

A

Extends the knee

166
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Intermedius

A

Extends the knee

167
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: sartorius

A

-Flexes the knee
-Weakly flexes the hip
-Abducts and laterally rotates the thigh

168
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: biceps femoris (hamstrings)

A

-Extends thigh at the hip
-Flexes the leg at the knee joint

169
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: semitendinosis

A

-Extends the thigh at the hip
-Flexes leg at the knee

170
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: semimembranosis

A

-Extends the thigh at the hip
-Flexes leg at the knee

171
Q

What bone is formed by distal end of tibia and fibula?

A

Ankle mortis

172
Q

How many bones does the ankle have?

A

7

173
Q

What are the 7 bones of the ankle?

A

-Large talus
-Calcaneus
-Cuboid
-Navicular
-Cuneiforms
-Metatarsals
-Phalanges

174
Q

What ligament extends from the talus to fibula?

A

Anterior talofibular ligament (ATFL)

175
Q

What ligament extends from the calcaneus to fibula

A

Calcaneofibular ligament (CFL)

176
Q

What extends from talus to fibula?

A

Posterior talofibular ligament (PTFL)

177
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: tibialis anterior

A

Dorsiflexes and inverts the foot

178
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Extensor digitorum longus

A

-Dorsiflexes and everts the foot
-Extends toes

179
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Fibularis longus

A

Plantarflexes foot and everts foot

180
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: gastrocneumius

A

-Plantar flexes foot
-Flexes leg at the knee

181
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Soleus

A

Plantarflexes foot

182
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Tibialis posterior

A

Plantarflexes and inverts foot

183
Q

DESCRIBE the action of the muscles: Flexor digitorum longus

A

-Plantar flexes foot
-Flexes toes

184
Q

What detects gluteus medius muscle weakness?

A

Trendelenburg test

185
Q

When doing Lachman’s test the absence of a firm end point is indicative of what?

A

anterior cruciate ligament tear.

186
Q

What is the most common hip dislocation?

A

Posterior dislocation

187
Q

Patient presents with affected limb short, hip is fixed in adducted and internally rotated
position what is the diagnosis?

A

Posterior hip dislocation

188
Q

What type of fracture is associated with many severe, life threatening injuries?

A

Femoral shaft fracture

189
Q

Patient reports vague pain in anterior groin or thigh exacerbated by activity and weight bearing
Relieved with rest and Story of increasing activity prior to pain onset. What’s the dx?

A

Stress Fracture of the Femoral Neck

190
Q

Pain in groin area with attempted weight bearing;
Sensation of “coming apart” at the hip with bearing weight; High energy fractures. Probable dx?

A

Fracture of pelvis

191
Q

What is another name for prepatellar bursitis?

A

Housemaid’s knee

192
Q

What is a dense, fibrous band of tissue that originates from the anterior superior
iliac spine region, extends down the lateral portion of the thigh and inserts on the lateral
tibia at the Gerdy tubercle?

A

Iliotibial band (IT Band)

193
Q

What are fibrocartilaginous pads that function as shock absorbers between the femoral condyles and tibial plateaus?

A

The medial and lateral menisci

194
Q

Anterior knee pain is a hallmark of what?

A

Quadriceps / Patellar Tendinitis

195
Q

Popliteal Cyst is also called what?

A

Bakers cyst

196
Q

Muscles of the lower leg are divided into four compartments by what?

A

fibrous septa

197
Q

What are the 7 P’s for compartment syndrome?

A

-Pain
-Pallor
-Parasthesias
-Paresis
-Poikilothermia
-Pressure
-Pulselessness

198
Q

Acute compartment syndrome is a medical emergency and requires what?

A

Fasciotomy

199
Q

What treatment is contraindicated for compartment syndrome?

A

Ice is considered contraindicated because of its constricting properties

200
Q

What is the largest tendon in the body?

A

Achilles tendon

201
Q

What forms the achilles tendon?

A

Gastrocnemius and Soleus muscles converge to form the Achilles tendon

202
Q

What medication is a risk factor for achilles tendon rupture?

A

Fluoroquinolone antibiotic use associated

203
Q

What special test is used for achilles tendon rupture?

A

Thompson test

204
Q

A bunion creates what kind of deviation from the toe?

A

Hallux valgus

205
Q

Patient reports feeling as though they are “walking on a marble” or that there is “a wrinkle in my socks” what’s the probable dx?

A

Morton Neuroma

206
Q

What is a long fibrous band like tissue that arises from the medial tuberosity of the calcaneus and extends to the proximal phalanges?

A

Plantar fascia

207
Q

Hyperextension injury of the first metatarsal is what?

A

Turf toe

208
Q

Non-radicular, non-focal neck pain from the base of the skull to the cervicothoracic junction is a symptom of what?

A

Cervical strain

209
Q

What is the most common cancer to metastasize to bone?

A

1) Breast
2) Prostate
3) Lung
4) Kidney
5) Thyroid

210
Q

Lateral curvature of the spine that is more than 10 degrees in an adult is what?

A

Scoliosis

211
Q

When is scoliosis disqualifying?

A

Lumbar scoliosis greater than 20 degrees or thoracic scoliosis greater than 30 degrees is disqualifying

212
Q

What is parallel to cricoid cartilage?

A

C6

213
Q

What is parallel to thyroid cartilage?

A

C4

214
Q

When Chest pain is said to be “reproducible” and Able to exacerbate pain with palpation on physical exam, what is the suspected diagnosis?

A

Costochondritis

215
Q

Destruction of joint cartilage due to “wear and tear” is what?

A

Osteoarthritis

216
Q

What is the ACR criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

-Morning stiffness (1 hour for 6 weeks)
-Arthritis (>/= 3 joints for 6 weeks)
-Swelling of hand joints (6 weeks)
-Symmetrical joint swelling (6 weeks)
-Rheumatoid nodules
-Positive RF factor
-Erosions or osteopenia in hand XR
-May have myelopathy with C1-C2 involvement

217
Q

What labs are taken for RA?

A

1) Rheumatoid Factor (RF)
2) Antibody to cyclic citrullinated peptide (Anti-CCP)
3) C-reactive Protein (CRP)
4) Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

218
Q

What medication is given for RA?

A

1) NSAID/Tylenol
2) DMARD (Disease-Modifying Anti- Rheumatic Drug)
a) -Ab, , etanercept, methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, cyclosporine

219
Q

Spondylarthropathy that is preceded and precipitated by infection in the body is what?

A

Reactive arthritis

219
Q

Spondylarthropathy that is preceded and precipitated by infection in the body is what?

A

Reactive arthritis

220
Q

What is dactylitis?

A

“sausage digits”

221
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis is also called what?

A

Bamboo spine

222
Q

Monosodium urate crystal deposition in joints and tissues (tophi) is what?

A

Gout

223
Q

What labs are taken for gout?

A

(a) Uric acid
(b) Chem Panel
(c) TSH, Iron Panel
(d) WBC
(e) NEEDLE SHAPED, NEGATIVE BIREFRINGENT

224
Q

What is the treatment for gout?

A

(a) NSAID (Indomethacin)
(b) Colchicine (n/v/d; bone marrow suppression, neuropathy)
(c) Steroids

225
Q

What is the prophylaxis for gout?

A

(a) Allopurinol (overproducers)
(b) Probenecid (underexcreters; UA <600mg/day)

226
Q

What foods should be avoided in a patient with gout?

A

1) Meat
2) Seafood
3) Alcohol
4) High-fructose corn syrup

227
Q

Pseudogout and gout are differentiated based on lab analysis of joint aspiration. What is the difference

A

Gout is needle shaped crystals while pseudogout rhomboid shaped crystals

228
Q

What is the most common cause of septic arthritis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

229
Q

What is the treatment for septic arthritis?

A

(1) Supportive if having shock (IV, monitors, O2, VS, bolus of IVF)
(2) IV antibiotics (ceftriaxone, vancomycin)
(3) MEDEVAC

230
Q

Virchow Triad

A

(1) Hypercoagulability
(2) Venous Stasis
(3) Endothelial Damage

231
Q

What is an open fracture?

A

Obvious bone through the skin or break in the skin with suspected fracture
(ANY break in skin near fracture site is open fx)

232
Q

What is a non-displaced fracture?

A

in anatomic alignment

233
Q

What is a displaced fracture?

A

not in anatomic alignment; described as a percentage

234
Q

What is a bayonetted fracture?

A

distal fragment overlaps proximal fragment

235
Q

What is a distracted fracture?

A

Fragments are separated

236
Q

What is an angulation fracture?

A

Deviation at an angle

237
Q

What are the three “R’s” for treatment of a fracture?

A

(a) Recognition
(b) Reduction
(c) Retention of reduction while achieving union
(d) Rehabilitation

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