MS CH 55 Nursing Care of Patients With Burns Flashcards

1
Q

What causes burns?

A

Energy transfer from a heat source to the body, causing tissue damage.

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2
Q

What are the three zones of a burn injury?

A

Zone of coagulation, zone of stasis, zone of hyperemia.

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3
Q

What is the function of the skin?

A

Protection, temperature regulation, sensation, fluid balance, and secretion/excretion.

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4
Q

What systemic changes occur after a burn?

A

Fluid imbalance, cardiovascular effects, metabolic changes, immune suppression, pulmonary issues.

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5
Q

How does a burn affect fluid balance?

A

Increased capillary permeability leads to plasma and protein leakage, edema, and hypovolemia.

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6
Q

What causes hypovolemic shock in burn patients?

A

Fluid loss from capillary leakage, decreased circulating volume.

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7
Q

What electrolyte imbalances occur after a burn?

A

Hyperkalemia initially, then hypokalemia and hyponatremia.

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8
Q

Why does hematocrit increase after a burn?

A

Loss of plasma volume concentrates red blood cells.

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9
Q

How does a burn affect cardiac function?

A

Initial decrease in cardiac output due to plasma loss.

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10
Q

Why is hypermetabolism common in burn patients?

A

Increased metabolic rate due to stress response and tissue repair.

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11
Q

What GI complications occur in burn patients?

A

Paralytic ileus, gastric dilation, peptic ulcers.

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12
Q

What is Curling’s ulcer?

A

A stress ulcer caused by burns and decreased gastric mucosal blood flow.

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13
Q

How do burns affect renal function?

A

Hypovolemia decreases renal perfusion, leading to acute kidney injury.

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14
Q

What is myoglobinuria?

A

Muscle breakdown releases myoglobin, which can clog renal tubules and cause kidney failure.

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15
Q

How do burns affect pulmonary function?

A

Smoke inhalation can lead to airway edema, hypoxia, and respiratory distress.

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16
Q

What are signs of inhalation injury?

A

Singed nasal hair, soot in sputum, hoarseness, wheezing, stridor.

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17
Q

What are the leading causes of death in burn patients?

A

Sepsis and inhalation injury.

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18
Q

How is burn severity determined?

A

Depth, percentage of body surface area burned, cause, age, and comorbidities.

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19
Q

What is the Rule of Nines?

A

A method to estimate body surface area burned, dividing the body into multiples of 9%.

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20
Q

Why is the Lund and Browder method preferred in children?

A

It adjusts for different body proportions in children.

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21
Q

What is the Parkland formula?

A

4 mL × weight (kg) × %TBSA burned (½ given in first 8 hours, rest over 16 hours).

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22
Q

What is the primary goal of fluid resuscitation?

A

Maintain organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemic shock.

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23
Q

What is the best indicator of adequate fluid resuscitation?

A

Urine output ≥ 0.5 mL/kg/hr.

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24
Q

What type of IV fluid is preferred for burn resuscitation?

A

Lactated Ringer’s solution.

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25
Q

Why is albumin used in burn patients?

A

It helps pull fluid back into the vascular space.

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26
Q

What electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in burn patients?

A

Hyperkalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias.

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27
Q

What is an escharotomy?

A

A surgical incision through eschar to relieve pressure and restore circulation.

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28
Q

What is a fasciotomy?

A

Deeper incision through fascia if escharotomy is insufficient.

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29
Q

Why are burn patients at high risk for infection?

A

Loss of skin barrier and immune suppression.

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30
Q

What is the most common cause of death after the emergent phase of burns?

A

Sepsis.

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31
Q

What PPE should be worn when treating burn wounds?

A

Sterile gloves, gown, mask, eye protection.

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32
Q

What are early signs of burn wound infection?

A

Increased redness, swelling, foul odor, fever.

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33
Q

What is the purpose of debridement?

A

Removes dead tissue to promote healing.

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34
Q

What are the types of debridement?

A

Mechanical, enzymatic, surgical, autolytic.

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35
Q

Why is early enteral feeding important in burn patients?

A

Maintains gut integrity, prevents catabolism, reduces infection risk.

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36
Q

What are common nutritional deficits in burn patients?

A

Protein, calories, vitamins (C, D, E), zinc.

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37
Q

What vitamin is essential for wound healing?

A

Vitamin C.

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38
Q

What is the most effective pain management for burn patients?

A

IV opioids (morphine, fentanyl).

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39
Q

Why is IV pain management preferred in acute burns?

A

GI function may be impaired; IV provides faster relief.

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40
Q

What non-pharmacologic pain relief methods are helpful?

A

Distraction, relaxation techniques, music therapy.

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41
Q

Why is early mobility encouraged for burn patients?

A

Prevents contractures, improves circulation, reduces DVT risk.

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42
Q

What are the three stages of burn care?

A

Emergent, acute, rehabilitation.

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43
Q

What is the goal of the emergent phase?

A

Stabilize ABCs, prevent shock, begin fluid resuscitation.

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44
Q

What is the goal of the acute phase?

A

Wound healing, infection prevention, pain control, fluid balance.

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45
Q

What is the goal of the rehabilitation phase?

A

Restore function, improve quality of life.

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46
Q

What is the purpose of pressure garments?

A

Reduce hypertrophic scarring and contractures.

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47
Q

What is an autograft?

A

A skin graft from the patient’s own body.

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48
Q

What is the difference between split-thickness and full-thickness skin grafts?

A

Split-thickness: epidermis + partial dermis; Full-thickness: epidermis + full dermis.

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49
Q

What are the benefits of full-thickness skin grafts?

A

Better cosmetic result, more durable, less contraction.

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50
Q

How often should burn wounds be assessed?

A

At least once per shift or as needed.

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51
Q

Why are burn patients prone to gastric ulcers?

A

Stress response increases stomach acid production.

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52
Q

What medications prevent stress ulcers in burn patients?

A

PPIs or H2 blockers.

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53
Q

How can burns be prevented at home?

A

Fire alarms, safe water heater settings, avoiding loose clothing near flames.

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54
Q

What is the maximum safe water heater temperature?

A

120°F (49°C).

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55
Q

What is the recommended positioning for burn patients?

A

Avoid flexion contractures; use splints and ROM exercises.

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56
Q

What is the leading cause of burns in children?

A

Scald burns from hot liquids.

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57
Q

Why are older adults at higher risk for burn complications?

A

Thinner skin, slower healing, comorbidities.

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58
Q

What is the best way to prevent contractures?

A

Stretching, splints, positioning, early mobilization.

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59
Q

What is the first priority in burn management?

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation (ABCs).

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60
Q

What are the common causes of burns?

A

Flame, scald, chemical, electrical, radiation.

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61
Q

What are signs of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Cherry-red skin, confusion, headache, dizziness, unconsciousness.

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62
Q

How is carbon monoxide poisoning treated?

A

100% oxygen therapy or hyperbaric oxygen chamber.

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63
Q

Why should jewelry be removed from burn patients?

A

Prevents constriction due to swelling.

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64
Q

What is the purpose of a urinary catheter in burn patients?

A

Accurate urine output measurement for fluid resuscitation.

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65
Q

What does a positive wound culture indicate?

A

Possible infection requiring treatment.

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66
Q

What is the primary concern with electrical burns?

A

Internal injuries, cardiac arrhythmias, muscle damage, renal failure.

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67
Q

What are the three phases of burn injury?

A

Emergent, Acute, Rehabilitation.

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68
Q

What are the signs of airway compromise in burn patients?

A

Hoarseness, stridor, wheezing, singed nasal hair.

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69
Q

Why is early intubation recommended for severe facial burns?

A

Airway edema can rapidly obstruct breathing.

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70
Q

What is the role of an escharotomy?

A

Relieves pressure and restores circulation.

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71
Q

What is the function of pressure garments?

A

Prevents hypertrophic scarring and contractures.

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72
Q

What is the best way to assess fluid resuscitation effectiveness?

A

Urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr.

73
Q

What is the purpose of debridement?

A

Removes necrotic tissue to promote healing.

74
Q

What type of dressing is used in burns?

A

Sterile, non-adherent, moist dressings.

75
Q

Why are burn patients at risk for pneumonia?

A

Immobility, inhalation injury, and immune suppression.

76
Q

What are signs of sepsis in burn patients?

A

Fever, hypotension, tachycardia, confusion, decreased urine output.

77
Q

Why are IV pain medications preferred over oral in burn patients?

A

More effective due to impaired GI absorption.

78
Q

What is the goal of burn rehabilitation?

A

Maximize function, mobility, and psychological recovery.

79
Q

Why is early enteral nutrition important in burn patients?

A

Prevents catabolism, maintains gut integrity.

80
Q

What is a xenograft?

A

A skin graft from another species (e.g., pig).

81
Q

Why are burn patients at risk for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

A

Immobility and hypercoagulability.

82
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can cause cardiac dysrhythmias in burn patients?

A

Hyperkalemia.

83
Q

How does albumin help in burn resuscitation?

A

Pulls fluid back into the vascular system.

84
Q

Why do burn patients experience metabolic acidosis?

A

Tissue hypoxia and fluid loss.

85
Q

What are the major systemic responses to burns?

A

Fluid shifts, immune suppression, hypermetabolism, cardiovascular changes.

86
Q

Why should burn patients avoid sun exposure?

A

New skin is fragile and prone to damage.

87
Q

What is an autograft?

A

A skin graft from the patient’s own body.

88
Q

What is the purpose of skin grafts?

A

Promotes wound healing and reduces scarring.

89
Q

What is the difference between a sheet graft and a meshed graft?

A

Sheet grafts are used for cosmetic areas, meshed grafts cover larger wounds.

90
Q

What are the common topical burn treatments?

A

Silvadene, bacitracin, mafenide acetate, silver nitrate.

91
Q

What is the most common cause of burns in children?

A

Scald injuries.

92
Q

What age group is most at risk for burn injuries?

A

Children under 5 and adults over 65.

93
Q

Why are older adults at higher risk for burn complications?

A

Thinner skin, slower healing, comorbidities.

94
Q

What does hypermetabolism in burn patients cause?

A

Increased caloric needs, muscle breakdown, delayed healing.

95
Q

Why are vitamin C and zinc important for burn patients?

A

Promote collagen synthesis and wound healing.

96
Q

What does a circumferential burn indicate?

A

Risk for compartment syndrome.

97
Q

What is the function of a biological dressing?

A

Protects the wound and promotes epithelialization.

98
Q

Why are immunosuppressive medications avoided in burn patients?

A

Increases the risk of infection.

99
Q

How long does the rehabilitation phase last?

A

Months to years, depending on severity.

100
Q

Why is physical therapy essential in burn recovery?

A

Prevents contractures and maintains mobility.

101
Q

What does blanching skin in a burn indicate?

A

Superficial burn with intact circulation.

102
Q

Why are tetanus vaccines given to burn patients?

A

Burns increase the risk of tetanus infection.

103
Q

Why are NG tubes used in severe burn patients?

A

Prevents gastric dilation and supports nutrition.

104
Q

Why is a humidified oxygen mask used in inhalation injuries?

A

Prevents drying of mucosa and helps remove secretions.

105
Q

What are signs of hypovolemia in burn patients?

A

Low BP, tachycardia, cold/clammy skin, decreased urine output.

106
Q

What is the importance of psychological support in burn patients?

A

Burn injuries can lead to PTSD, depression, and anxiety.

107
Q

Why is weight monitored closely in burn patients?

A

Measures fluid balance and nutritional status.

108
Q

What is the major cause of delayed wound healing in burns?

A

Infection.

109
Q

How are burns diagnosed?

A

Physical assessment, lab tests, imaging for inhalation injury.

110
Q

What are the benefits of early mobilization in burn patients?

A

Reduces pneumonia risk, prevents contractures, improves circulation.

111
Q

What is the role of compression therapy in burn recovery?

A

Minimizes hypertrophic scarring.

112
Q

What is the first aid for a chemical burn?

A

Remove contaminated clothing and flush with copious amounts of water.

113
Q

What is the best intervention for pruritus in burn patients?

A

Antihistamines, oatmeal baths, moisturizers.

114
Q

Why should burn patients avoid ice application?

A

Causes vasoconstriction and worsens tissue damage.

115
Q

What is the most important factor in preventing burns at home?

A

Education on fire and burn safety.

116
Q

What are the three layers of skin?

A

Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue.

117
Q

What is the primary function of the epidermis?

A

Protects against infection and water loss.

118
Q

How do burns affect thermoregulation?

A

Loss of skin leads to heat loss and hypothermia.

119
Q

What type of burn is most painful?

A

Partial-thickness burns (nerve endings are exposed).

120
Q

What type of burn is least painful?

A

Full-thickness burns (nerve endings are destroyed).

121
Q

What are the classifications of burns by depth?

A

Superficial, partial-thickness, deep partial-thickness, full-thickness, deep full-thickness.

122
Q

What is the first-degree burn appearance?

A

Red, dry, no blisters (e.g., sunburn).

123
Q

What does a second-degree burn look like?

A

Blisters, pink to red, moist, very painful.

124
Q

What is the hallmark sign of a full-thickness burn?

A

Leathery, white, brown, or charred skin with no pain.

125
Q

What is a fourth-degree burn?

A

Burns extending into muscle, bone, or tendons.

126
Q

Why is electrical burn damage difficult to assess?

A

Tissue damage occurs internally along the path of electricity.

127
Q

What are early signs of hypovolemia in burns?

A

Low blood pressure, rapid pulse, reduced urine output.

128
Q

What does tachycardia indicate in burn patients?

A

Possible fluid loss or hypovolemia.

129
Q

What causes metabolic acidosis in burn patients?

A

Tissue hypoxia and fluid shifts.

130
Q

Why are burn patients hypermetabolic?

A

Increased energy demand for healing.

131
Q

What is the “fluid creep” phenomenon?

A

Over-resuscitation causing fluid overload and pulmonary edema.

132
Q

What is the “Rule of Palms”?

A

A patient’s palm (including fingers) represents about 1% TBSA.

133
Q

What lab values indicate fluid shifts in burn patients?

A

Increased hematocrit, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia.

134
Q

What is the best way to prevent renal failure in burn patients?

A

Adequate fluid resuscitation.

135
Q

Why is myoglobinuria dangerous in burn patients?

A

Can lead to acute kidney injury due to muscle breakdown.

136
Q

What is the primary cause of death in the first 48 hours post-burn?

A

Hypovolemic shock.

137
Q

What is the primary cause of death after 48 hours post-burn?

138
Q

What does “burn shock” refer to?

A

A combination of hypovolemic and distributive shock.

139
Q

What is the “Parkland formula”?

A

4 mL × kg × %TBSA burned (½ in first 8 hours, rest over 16 hours).

140
Q

What is a major risk factor for inhalation injury?

A

Burns sustained in an enclosed space.

141
Q

What is an early sign of inhalation injury?

A

Hoarseness or difficulty speaking.

142
Q

What diagnostic test confirms inhalation injury?

A

Bronchoscopy.

143
Q

What does carbonaceous (black) sputum indicate?

A

Smoke inhalation injury.

144
Q

Why are enteral feedings preferred over TPN in burn patients?

A

Maintains gut integrity and reduces sepsis risk.

145
Q

Why is protein intake crucial for burn patients?

A

Prevents muscle wasting and promotes wound healing.

146
Q

What vitamin is most important for collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C.

147
Q

What trace mineral is important for wound healing?

148
Q

Why are omega-3 fatty acids beneficial in burn patients?

A

Reduce inflammation and promote healing.

149
Q

What electrolyte imbalance can occur due to excessive fluid resuscitation?

A

Hyponatremia.

150
Q

What is the most common complication of burn wound healing?

A

Infection.

151
Q

What PPE is required for dressing burn wounds?

A

Sterile gloves, gown, mask, eye protection.

152
Q

Why is an NG tube inserted in burn patients?

A

Prevents gastric distention and aspiration.

153
Q

What is the primary goal of wound debridement?

A

Remove dead tissue and reduce infection risk.

154
Q

Why are silvadene and bacitracin used in burns?

A

Prevent bacterial infection and promote healing.

155
Q

What is a sign of successful skin grafting?

A

Good adherence without necrosis.

156
Q

What is a hypertrophic scar?

A

Thick, raised scar within the burn area.

157
Q

What is a keloid?

A

Excessive scar tissue extending beyond the original wound.

158
Q

What therapy helps minimize scarring?

A

Pressure garment therapy.

159
Q

Why are physical therapy and ROM exercises essential in burn recovery?

A

Prevent contractures and improve mobility.

160
Q

What is the major psychological issue in burn survivors?

A

PTSD and body image disturbances.

161
Q

What is the function of a biological dressing?

A

Protects wounds and promotes epithelialization.

162
Q

What is the best intervention for itching in burn patients?

A

Antihistamines, moisturizing, and cold therapy.

163
Q

Why are escharotomies performed?

A

To relieve pressure and restore blood flow.

164
Q

What is the primary long-term complication of burn injuries?

A

Contractures.

165
Q

What are signs of compartment syndrome in burns?

A

Severe pain, decreased pulses, numbness, tight skin.

166
Q

Why should burn patients avoid tight clothing?

A

Prevents restriction and irritation of healing skin.

167
Q

What is the maximum safe water heater temperature?

A

120°F (49°C).

168
Q

Why is exercise important in burn rehabilitation?

A

Prevents stiffness and maintains function.

169
Q

What are the three major stages of burn care?

A

Emergent, acute, rehabilitation.

170
Q

What is the goal of the emergent phase?

A

Stabilize patient and prevent shock.

171
Q

What is the goal of the acute phase?

A

Promote healing, prevent infection, manage pain.

172
Q

What is the goal of the rehabilitation phase?

A

Maximize function and psychological well-being.

173
Q

What is the leading cause of burns in older adults?

A

Flame and scald burns.

174
Q

What is the most common site for pressure ulcers in burn patients?

A

Heels and sacrum.

175
Q

Why are anti-embolism stockings used in burn patients?

A

Prevents DVT and improves circulation.

176
Q

What are signs of systemic infection in burn patients?

A

Fever, increased WBCs, hypotension, confusion.

177
Q

Why is wound culture important in burn care?

A

Identifies bacterial infection and guides treatment.

178
Q

What is the first aid for chemical burns?

A

Flush with copious water for at least 20 minutes.