Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCP/MSRA > MRCP Passmed bits > Flashcards

MRCP Passmed bits Flashcards

1
Q

Dithranol

A

Topical use in psoriasis

Anthracene derivative
Slows cell division in psoriatic plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vitamin D analogues

for psoriasis

A

Include:

  • calcipotriol (Dovonex)
  • calcitriol
  • tacalcitol

Work by reducing cell division and differentiation

May be used long-term

Reduce scale and thickness of plaques but not erythema

Avoid in pregnancy

Maximum weekly amount for adults is 100g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Zinc deficiency

A

Zinc deficiency:

  • Perioral dermatitis
  • acrodermatitis
  • alopecia
  • short stature
  • hypogonadism
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • geophagia (ingesting clay/soil)
  • cognitive impairment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gastric cancer associations

A
  • H. pylori infection
  • blood group A: gAstric cAncer
  • gastric adenomatous polyps
  • pernicious anaemia
  • smoking
  • diet: salty, spicy, nitrates
  • may be negatively associated with duodenal ulcer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HLA-A3

A

Haemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HLA-B51

A

Behcet’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HLA-B27

A
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • Reiter’s syndrome
  • Acute anterior uveitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

HLA-DQ2/DQ8

A

coeliac disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HLA-DR2

A
  • Narcolepsy
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • SLE
  • Goodpasture’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HLA-DR3

A
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis
  • Sjogren’s syndrome
  • Primary biliary cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HLA-DR4

A
  • Type 1 diabetes mellitis (also with HLA-DR3 to a lesser degree)
  • Rheumatoid arthritis - in particular DRB1 (DRB104:01 and DRB104:04)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CD1

A

MHC molecule - presents lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CD2

A

Thymocytes, T cells, NK cells

Ligand for CD58 and CD59

Cell signalling and cell adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

CD3

A

Signalling component of TCR complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CD4

A

Helper T cells.
Co-receptor for MHC II
Used by HIV to enter T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CD5

A

Mantle-cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CD8

A

Cytotoxic T cells.

Co-receptor for MHC I

(Also on myeloid dendritic cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CD14

A

Marker for macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CD15

A

Expressed on Reed-Sternberg cells (along with CD30)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CD16

A

Binds to Fc portion of IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CD21

A

EBV receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CD28

A

Interacts with B7 on APCs as costimulation signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CD45

A

Protein tyrosine phosphatase

All leucocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CD56

A

Unique to NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

CD95

A

FAS receptor in apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cell surface markers: Haematopoeietic stem cells

A

CD34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cell surface markers: Helper T cell

A

CD4, TCR, CD3, CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cell surface markers: Cytotoxic T cell

A

CD8, TCR, CD3, CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cell surface markers: Regulatory T cell

A

CD4, CD25, TCR, CD3, CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Cell surface markers: B cell

A

CD19, CD20, CD40, MHC II, B7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Cell surface markers: Macrophage

A

CD14, CD40, MHC II, B7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cell surface markers: Natural killer cell

A

CD16, CD56

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Inheritence of Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telagiectasia

A

Autosomal Dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Oncogenes (gain of function > cancer)

A 
ABL
c-MYC
n-MYC
BCL-2
RET
RAS
erb-B2 (HER2/neu)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Tumour suppressor genes (loss of function > cancer)

A 
p53
APC
BRCA1
BRCA2
NF1
Rb
WT1
MTS 1, p16 (multiple tumor suppressor 1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Abnormal protein in Marfan’s syndrome

A

Fibrillin-1
Due to defect in FBN1 gene on chromosome 15.
Autosomal dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Site of origin of circulating B-type natriuretic peptide in patients with chronic heart failure

A

L ventricular myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

TNF

A

From macrophages.

Activates macrophages and neutrophils,
Co-stimulator for T cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Extractable nuclear antigens

A

Examples
anti-Ro: Sjogren’s syndrome, SLE, congenital heart block
anti-La: Sjogren’s syndrome
anti-Jo 1: polymyositis
anti-scl-70: diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
anti-centromere: limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Leflunomide

A

DMARD used in rheumatoid arthritis.

Long half-life and teratogenic.

Monitor FBC/LFT and blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dermatomyositis antibodies

A

ANA most common

anti-Mi-2 most specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Azathioprine: mechanism of action

A

Metabolised to mercaptopurine, a purine analogue that inihibits purine synthesis.

TPMT test to check for azathioprine toxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fleicanide mechanism of action

A

Fleicanide blocks the Nav1.5 sodium channels in the heart

Slows the upstroke of cardiac action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Alpha-1 adrenoceptor effects

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • relaxation of GI smooth muscle
  • salivary secretion
  • hepatic glycogenolysis

alpha-1:activate phospholipase C → IP3 → DAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Alpha-2 adrenoceptor

A

Mainly presynaptic: inhibition of transmitter release (inc NA, Ach from autonomic nerves)

  • inhibits insulin
  • platelet aggregation

alpha-2: inhibit adenylate cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Beta-1 adrenoceptor

A

mainly located in the heart
increase heart rate + force

beta-1: stimulate adenylate cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Beta-2 adrenoceptor

A
  • vasodilation
  • bronchodilation
  • relaxation of GI smooth muscle

beta-2: stimulate adenylate cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Beta-3 adrenoceptor

A

lipolysis

beta-3: stimulate adenylate cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A

Monoclonal antibody against the HER2/neu receptor.

Used in metastatic breast cancer and some with early disease.

S/E:

  • Flu-like symptoms & diarrhoea
  • Cardiotoxocity (esp if anthracyclines have been used)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Examples of adrenoceptor AGONISTs

A

Alpha-1 agonists
-phenylephrine

Alpha-2 agonists
-clonidine

Beta-1 agonists
-dobutamine

Beta-2 agonists
-salbutamol

Beta-3 agonists
-being developed, may have a role in preventing obesity (stimulation causes lipolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Inhibits cell wall formation

A

Peptidoglycan cross-linking:

  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • carbopenems

Peptidoglycan synthesis:
-glycopeptides (e.g. vancomycin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Inhibits protein synthesis (by acting on the ribosome)

A

50S subunit:

  • Macrolides (clarithromycin, azithromycin, erythromycin)
  • Chloramphenicol
  • Clindamycin
  • Linezolid
  • Streptogrammins

30S subunit:

  • aminoglycosides
  • tetracyclines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Inhibits DNA synthesis

A

quinolones (eg ciprofloxacin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Damages DNA

A

metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Inhibits folic acid formation

A

sulphonamides

trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Inhibits RNA synthesis

A

rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Octreotide
What is it?
Uses?
Adverse effects?

A

Long-acting analogue of somatostatin

Uses:

  • acute variceal haemorrhage
  • acromegaly
  • carcinoid syndrome
  • prevent complications following pancreatic surgery
  • VIPomas
  • refractory diarrhoea

Adverse effects:
-gallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Somatostatin:
Released from?
Actions?

A

Release from D cells of pancreas

Inhibits release of growth hormone, glucagon and insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

infliximab

A

infliximab = anti-TNF

used in rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

rituximab

A

rituximab = anti-CD20

used in non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cetuximab

A

cetuximab = epidermal growth factor receptor antagonist

used in metastatic colorectal cancer & head and neck cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

alemtuzumab

A

alemtuzumab = anti-CD52

used in chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

abciximab

A

abciximab = glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

prevention of ischaemic events in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

OKT3

A

OKT3 = anti-CD3

used to prevent organ rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Fleicanide

A

Contraindicated in structural heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Drugs affected by acetylator status (deficiency in N-acetyltransferase)

A
  • isoniazid
  • procainamide
  • hydralazine
  • dapsone
  • sulfasalazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Drugs causing corneal opacities

A
  • amiodarone

- indomethacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Drugs causing optic neuritis

A
  • ethambutol
  • amiodarone
  • metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Drugs causing retinopathy

A

-chloroquine, quinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Drugs causing cataracts

A

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Sildenafil eye effects

A
  • blue discoloration

- non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

P450 inducers

A
  • antiepileptics: phenytoin carbamazepine
  • barbiturates
  • rifampicin
  • St John’s Wort
  • chronic alcohol intake
  • griseofulvin
  • smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

P450 inhibitors

A
  • antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, erythromycin
  • isoniazid
  • cimetidine, omeprazole
  • amiodarone
  • allopurinol
  • imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
  • SSRIs
  • ritonavir
  • sodium valproate
  • acute alcohol intake
  • quinipristin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Ciclosporin: moa + side effects

A

Immunosuppressant.
Inhibits calcineurin, which reduces IL-2 release, and therefore decreases clonal proliferation of T cells.

Adverse effects:

  • nephrotoxicity
  • hepatotoxicity
  • fluid retention
  • hyperkalaemia
  • hypertrochosis
  • givival hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Examples of adrenoceptor ANTAGONISTS

A

Alpha antagonists:

  • alpha-1: doxazosin
  • alpha-1a: tamsulosin - acts mainly on urogenital tract
  • alpha-2: yohimbine
  • non-selective: phenoxybenzamine (previously used in peripheral arterial disease)

Beta antagonists

  • beta-1: atenolol
  • non-selective: propranolol

Carvedilol and labetalol are mixed alpha and beta antagonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Nivolumab

A

Nivolumab (PD-1 inhibitor)

“programmed cell death” inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Digoxin

A

Inhibits Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
Also stimulates vagus nerve.

Acts to increase force of contraction

Also slows AV conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Live attenuated vaccines

A

Live attenuated:

  • BCG
  • MMR
  • influenza (intranasal)
  • oral rotavirus
  • oral polio
  • yellow fever
  • oral typhoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Inactivated vaccines

A

Inactivated preparations:

  • rabies
  • hepatitis A
  • influenza (intramuscular)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Toxoid (inactivated toxin) vaccines

A

Toxoid (inactivated toxin):

  • tetanus
  • diphtheria
  • pertussis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Subunit/comjugate vaccines

A

Subunit = only part of pathogen used to generate immunogenic response.

Conjugate = poorly immunogenic bacterial polysaccharides linked to more immunogenic proteins

  • pneumococcus (conjugate)
  • haemophilus (conjugate)
  • meningococcus (conjugate)
  • hepatitis B
  • human papillomavirus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Meningitis initial empirical therapy aged <3 months?

A

IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Meningitis - initial empirical therapy aged 3 months - 50 years?

A

IV cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Meningitis - initial empirical therapy aged > 50 years?

A

IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Meningococcal meningitis - therapy?

A

IV benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Pneumococcal meningitis - therapy?

A

IV cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Meningitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae - therapy?

A

IV cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Meningitis caused by Listeria - therapy?

A

IV amoxicillin + gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Meningitis - patient with allergy to penicillin/cephalosporins?

A

chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics

A

Bactericidal antibiotics:

  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • aminoglycosides
  • nitrofurantoin
  • metronidazole
  • quinolones
  • rifampicin
  • isoniazid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

Bacteriostatic antibiotics:

  • chloramphenicol
  • macrolides
  • tetracyclines
  • sulphonamides
  • trimethoprim
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

HBsAg

A

Surface antigen.

First maker to appear.

Causes production of anti-HBs

HBsAg normally implies acute disease ( present 1-6 months)

It present >6 months implies chronic disease (ie infective)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Anti-HBs

A

Anti-HBs implies immunity (either exposure or immunisation)

Negative in chronic disease

94
Q

Anti-HBc

A

Anti-HBc implies previous (or current) infection

IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent infection and is present for about 6 months.

IgG anti-HBc persists

95
Q

HBeAg

A

HBeAg results from breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells - therefor is a marker of infectivity

96
Q

Serology previous Hep B immunisation

A

anti-HBs positive

All others negative

97
Q

Serology pervious Hep B > 6 months ago, not a carrier

A

anti-HBc positive

HBsAg negative

98
Q

Serology Previous hepatitis B, now a carries

A

anti-HBc positive,

HBsAg positive

99
Q

Vaughan Williams Ia

A

Ia: Block sodium channels, Increases AP duration

  • Quinidine
  • Pocainamide
  • Disopyramide
100
Q

Vaughan Williams Ib

A

Ib: Block sodium channels, Decreases AP duration

-Lidocaine

101
Q

Vaughan Williams Ic

A

Ic: Block sodium channels, No effect on AP duration

  • Fleicanide
102
Q

Vaughan Williams II

A

II: Beta-adrenoceptor antagonists

  • Propranolol
  • Atenolol
  • Bisporolol
  • Metoprolol
103
Q

Vaughan Williams III

A

III: Block potassium channels

  • Amiodarone
  • Sotalol
104
Q

Vaughan Williams IV

A

IV: Calcium channel blockers

  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
105
Q

Vaccines that can be used in all HIV-infected adults

A
  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis B
  • Haemophilus influenzae B (Hib)
  • Influenza - parenteral
  • Japanese encephalitis
  • Meningococcus-MenC
  • Meningococcus-PPV23
  • Poliomyelitis - parenteral (IPV)
  • Rabies
  • Tetanus-Diptheria (Td)
106
Q

Vaccines that can be used in HIV if CD4 > 200

A
  • MMR
  • Varicella
  • Yellow Fever
107
Q

Vaccines contraindicated in HIV-infected adults

A
  • Cholera CVD103-HgR
  • Influenza - intranasal
  • Poliomyelitis - oral (OPV)
  • Tuberculosis (BCG)
108
Q

Meliodosis (Whitmore’s Disease)

A

gram-negative bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei

Diabetes is strongest risk factor

Treatment:
IV ceftazidime, imipenem or meropenem

109
Q

Telbivudine

A

Antiviral used in chronic hepatitis B infection.

Thymidine nucleoside analogue

110
Q

Hydatid disease

A

Caused by dog tapeworm Echinococcus granulosis

Management: albendazole

111
Q

Cystercosis

A

Caused by Taenia solium (from pork) and Taenia saginata (from beef)

Management: niclosamide

112
Q

Nematodes

A

Ancylostoma braziliense

Strongyloides stercoralis

Toxocara canis

113
Q

Acylostoma braziliense

A

Commonest cause of cutaneous larva migrans

Central + Southern America

114
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

Acquired percutaneously

Causes pruritis + llarva currens

Management:

  • Thiabendazole, albendazole
  • Ivermectin in chronic infection
115
Q

Toxicara canis

A

Dog faeces

Commonest cause of visceral larva migrans

116
Q

Splenectomy vaccination

A

2 weeks prior to operation if elective

Hib, meningitis A&C

Annual influenza vaccination

Pneumococcal vaccine every 5 years

Penicillin V: at least 2 years/at least until 16yo/lifelong

117
Q

Gram positive bacilli

A

ABCD L

  • Actinomyces
  • Bacillus anthracis
  • Clostridium
  • Diptheria (corynebacterium diphteriae)
  • Listeria monocytogenes
118
Q

Gram-negative cocci

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
119
Q

American trypanosomiasis

A

Chagas disease

Early periorbital oedema.
GI and cardiac effects

Management: azole/benznidazole or nifurtimox

120
Q

African Trypanosomiasis

A

Sleeping sickness - Ttetse fly

Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa

Trypanosomar rhodiuenses in East Africa

  • Trypanosoma chancre - painless at site of infection
  • Fever + lymphadenopathy

Management:

  • Early: IV pentamidine or suramin
  • Later/CNS involvment: IV melarsoprol
121
Q

Primaquine

A

Used in non-falciparum malaria to destroy liver hypnozoites and prevent relapse

Check for G6PD deficiency prior to administration

122
Q

Non-falciparum Malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium malariae, Plasmodium knowlesis

Management:
- Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT)
-Chloroquine
-Ovale + Vivax:
Primaquine after acute treatment. Destroys liver hyponozoites and prevent relapse

123
Q

Leprosy treatment

A

Triple therapy:

Rifampicin, dapsone and clofazimine

124
Q

Listeria meningitis treatment

A

IV amoxicillin/ampicillin + gentamicin

125
Q

Chlamydia treatment

A

Azithromycin (stat) or doxycycline (7 days)

126
Q

Amoebiasis

A

Entamoeba histolytica.

Spread by faecal-oral route.

Causes Amoebic dysentery or Amoebic liver abscess

127
Q

Amoebiasis diagnosis and treatment

A

‘hot stool’ miscroscopy may show trophozoites

serology

Treat invasive amoebiasis with metronidazole.

Followed by luminal amoebicide to eradicate cystic stage (diloxanide furoate)

128
Q

granuloma inguinale causative organism

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

129
Q

Meningitis causes 0-3 months

A
  • Group B streptococcus (most common in neonates)
  • E.coli
  • Listeria monocytogenes
130
Q

Meningitis causes 3 months - 6 years

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Strep pneumoniae
  • Haemophilus influenzae
131
Q

Meningitis causes 6 years - 6- years

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis

- Streptococcus pneumoniae

132
Q

Meningitis causes > 60 years

A
  • Strep pneumoniae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Listeria monocytogenes
133
Q

Meningitis causes in immunosuppressed

A

-Listeria monocytogenes

134
Q

Animal bites

A

Polymicrobial.
Most commonly isolated organism is Pasteurella multocida

Co-amoxiclav
Pen allergic: doxycycline + metronidazole

135
Q

Orf

A

From sheep or goats

Parapox virus

Hands/arms: small papule > flat -topped and haemorrhagic

136
Q

Terbinafine

A

Fungal nail infection. Taken orally.

Inhibits fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase. Causing cell death.

137
Q

Syphilis testing

A

Serological tests include:

Cardiolipin tests (not treponeme specific)

Treponemal-specific antibody tests

138
Q

Syphilis cardiolipin tests

A

VDRL and RPR

Insensitive in late syphilis

Become negative after treatment

139
Q

Treponemal specific antibiody tests

A

TPHA (Treponema palidum HaemAgglutinin test)

Remains positive after treatment

140
Q

Causes of false positive cardiolipin tests

A
  • pregnancy
  • SLE, anti-phospholipid syndrome
  • TB
  • leprosy
  • malaria
  • HIV
141
Q

HIV anti-retrovirals which interact with P450

A

Nevirapine (NNRTI) - induces P450

Protease inhibitors - inhibit P450

142
Q

Meningococcal meningitis contact management

A

Oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

143
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia < 5 days since admission

A

co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime

144
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia > 5 days since admission

A

piperacillin with tazobactam

OR broad-spectrum cephalosporin (ceftazidime)

OR quinolone (ciprofloxacin)

145
Q

entry inhibitors

A
  • maraviroc

- enfurvitide

146
Q

NRTIs

A
  • zidovudine
  • didanosine
  • lamivudine
  • tenofovir
147
Q

NNRTIs

A
  • nevirapine

- efavirenze

148
Q

PIs

A
  • indinavir
  • nelfinavir
  • ritonavir
  • saquinavir
149
Q

Integrase inhibitors

A

-raltegravir

150
Q

Schistosoma haematobium treatment

A

single oral dose of praziquantel

151
Q

Treatment of active tuberculosis

A

Initial phase - 2 months of RIPE

Continuation phase - 4 months f Rifampicin and Isoniazide

152
Q

Treatment for latent tuberculosis

A

3 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin

OR

6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

153
Q

Brucellosis

A

Animals and unpasteurised diary.

Fluctuating fever, transient arthralgia, hyperhydrosis with wet hay smell.

Treat: Doxycycline and streptomycin

154
Q

Organisms with IgA protease

A

Strep pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

155
Q

Organisms with M Protein

A

Strep pyogenes

156
Q

Organisms with Polyribosyl ribitol phosphate capsule

A

Haemophilus influenzae

157
Q

Organisms with bacteriophage

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

158
Q

Organisms with spore formation

A

Bacillus anthracis
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium tetani

159
Q

Lecithinase alpha toxin

A

Clostridium perfringens

160
Q

D-glutamate polypeptide capsule

A

Bacillus anthracis

161
Q

Actin rockets

A

Listeria monicytogenes

162
Q

Power of a study

A

power = 1 - the probability of a type II error

163
Q

Type I error

A

The null hypothesis is rejected when it is true

164
Q

Type II error

A

The null hypothesis is accepted when it is false

165
Q

Promote release of endothelin

A
  • angiotensin II
  • ADH
  • hypoxia
  • mechanical shearing force
166
Q

Inhibit release of endothelin

A
  • nitric oxide

- prostacyclin

167
Q

Familial hypercholesterolaemia

A

Autosomal dominant

168
Q

Types of helminth

A

Nematode (roundworm)

Cestodes (tapeworms)

Trematodes (flukes)

169
Q

Nematodes

A

Strongyloides stercoralis

Enterobius vermicularis

Hookworm (Ancylosoma duodenale, Necator americanus)

Loa loa

Trichinella spiralis

Onchocerca volvulus

Wuchereria bancrofti

Toxocara canis (dog roundworm)

Ascaris lumbricoides (giant roundworm)

170
Q

Tapeworms

A

Echinococcus granulosus

Taenia solium

171
Q

Flukes

A

Schistoma haematobium

Paragonimus westermani

Clonorchis sinensis

Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke)

172
Q

Cystercosis

A

Disease caused by Taenia solium.

Undercooked pork.

Swiss cheese appearance brain lesions

Bendazoles

173
Q

Achondroplasia

A

Autosomal dominant

Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 gene (FGFR-3).

Abnormal cartilage

174
Q

G6PD deficiency

A

X-linked recessive

175
Q

LMA size 1 and 2

A

Neonates and small children

176
Q

LMA size 3

A

Children or adults 30-50kg (up to 20ml air in cuff)

177
Q

LMA size 4

A

adults 50-70kg (up to 30ml of air in the cuff)

178
Q

LMA size 5

A

adults 70-100kg (up to 40ml of air in the cuff)

179
Q

Positive predictive value

A

PPV = True Positive / (True Positive + False Positive)

180
Q

Mann-Whitney U test

A

Non-parametric test

Unpaired data

181
Q

Spearman, Kendall rank

A

Non-parametric test

Correlation

182
Q

Wilcoxon signed-rank test

A

Non-parametric test

Compares wo sets of observations on a signle sample

183
Q

Chi-squared test

A

Non-parametric test

Used to compare proportions of percentages

184
Q

Parametric tests

A

Student’s t-test: paired on unpaired

Pearson’s product-moment coefficient - correlation

185
Q

C1 inhibitor protein deficiency

A
  • heredirary angioedema

- C1-INH = serine protease inhibitor=likely due to bradykinin release

186
Q

C1q, C1rs, C2, C4 deficiency

A

(classical pathway components)

  • predisposes to immune complex disease
  • SLE, HSP
187
Q

C3 deficiency

A

Recurrent bacterial infections

188
Q

C5 deficiency

A
  • predisposes to Leiner disease

- recurrent diarrhoea, wasting and seborrhoeic dermatitis

189
Q

C5-9 deficiency

A
  • encodes MAC

- prone to Neisseria meningitis infection

190
Q

Number need to treat

A

NNT = 1 / Absolute Risk Reduction

ARR = Experimental event RATE - control event RATE
(or vice versa if outcome of study is undesirable)

(Risk = event asked about, eg can be survival)

191
Q

Standard error of the mean

A

SEM = standard deviation / square root (number of patients)

192
Q

Relative risk

A

EER / CER

193
Q

Type I hypersensitivity

A

Anaphylaxis
Atopy

Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells

194
Q

Type II hypersensitivity

A

Cell bound

IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface

  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • IT
  • Goodpasture’s
  • Pernicious aneamia
  • Acute haemlytic transfusion reactions
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Phemphgus vulgaris/bullous pemphigoid
195
Q

Type III hypersensitivity

A

Free antigen and antibody combine

  • Serum sickness
  • SLE
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • EEA (acute phase)
196
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity

A

T-cell mediated

  • TB/tuberculin skin reaction
  • GVHD
  • Allergic contact dermatitis
  • Scabies
  • EEA (chronic phase)
  • MS
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
197
Q

Type V hypersensitivity

A

Antibodies recognise and bind to cell surface receptors.
Stimulate receptors or block ligand binding

  • Graves’ disease
  • Myasthenia gravis
198
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve

Motor

A

(C5 - C7)
Elbow flexion
(supplies biceps brachii)

Supination

199
Q

Axillary nerve

Motor

A 
(C5, C6)
Should abduction (deltoid muscle)
200
Q

Radial nerve (motor)

A

(C5 - C8)

Extension: forearm, wrist, fingers, thumb

201
Q

Median nerve (motor)

A

(C6, C8, T1)
LOAF muscles

Wrist lesion > paralysis of thenar muscles, opponens pollicis

Elbow lesion > loss of pronation and weak wrist flexion

202
Q

Ulnar nerve (motor)

A

(C8, T1)
Intrinsic hand muscles except LOAF

Wrist flexion

203
Q

Long thoracic nerve (motor)

A

(C5 - C7)

Serratus anterior

204
Q

Normal distribution and SD

A
  1. 3% of values within 1 SD of the mean
  2. 4% of values within 2 SD of the mean
  3. 7% of values within 3 SD of the mean

Within 1.96 SD of the mean lie 95% of sample values

205
Q

Rickettsiae

A

Gram-negative obligate itracellular parasites.

Rickettsia Ricketsii - Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Coxiella burnetti - Q fever

Rickettsia typhi - Endemic typhus

Rickettsia prowazekii - Epidemic typhus

Ehrlichia - Ehrlichliosis

206
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever

A

Rickettsia ricketsii

Tick-borne
East coast of US

Headache, fever and rash spreading centrally from peripheries.

207
Q

Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

No vector

Pneumonia, no rash.

208
Q

Endemic typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi.

Spread by flea.

Rash starts centrally then spread to peripheries.

209
Q

Epidemic typhus

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

Via human body louse

210
Q

Ehrlichliosis

A

Ehrlichia

Tick-borne

211
Q

Autosomal recessive conditions

A

Metabolic conditions

Exceptions: inherited ataxias

212
Q

Autosomal dominant conditions

A

Structural conditions

Exceptions:

  • Gilbert’s
  • hyperlipidaemia type II
213
Q

Kearns-Sayre syndrome

A

Mitochondrial inheritance

  • Onset < 20 years old
  • external opthalmoplegia
  • retinits pigmentosa
214
Q

Positive predictive value

A

The chance that the patient has the condition if the diagnostic test is positive

TP / (TP + FP)

215
Q

Negative predictive value

A

The chance that the patient does not have the condition if the test is negative

TN / (TN + FN)

216
Q

Sensitivity

A

Proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result

TP / (TP + FN)

217
Q

Specificity

A

Proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result

TN / (TN + FP)

218
Q

Likelihood ratio for a positive test result

A

How much the odds of the disease increase when a test is positive

sensitivity / (1 - specificity)

219
Q

Likelihood ratio for a negative test result

A

How much the odds of the disease decrease when a test is negative

(1 - sensitivity) / specificity

220
Q

Tay-Sachs

A

Lysosomal storage disease

Hexosaminidase A

  • developmental delay
  • cherry red spots on macula
  • without hepatosplenomegaly
221
Q

Gaucher’s disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease

Defect in Beta-glucocerebrosidase

  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • aseptic necrosis of the femur
222
Q

Niemann-Pick disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease

defect in Sphingomyelinase

  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • cherry red spot on macula
223
Q

Fabry disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease

alpha-galactosidase A

  • angiokeratomas
  • peripheral neuropathy of extremeties
  • renal failure
224
Q

Krabbe’s disease

A

Lysosomal storage disease

galactocerebrosidase

  • peripheral neuropathy
  • optic atrophy
  • globoid cells
225
Q

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

Lysosomal storage disease

Arylsulfatase A

-demyelination of CNS + PNS

226
Q

Hurler syndrome

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis type 1

alpha-1-idurnidase

  • gargoylism
  • hepatosplenomegaly
  • corneal clouding
227
Q

Hunter syndrome

A

Mucopolysaccharidosis type 1

iduronate sulfatase

  • course facial features
  • learning difficulty
  • short stature
  • no corneal clouding
228
Q

Von Gierke’s disease

A

Glycogen storage disease type I

Glucose-6-phosphatase

Hypoglycaemia
Lactic acidosis
Hepatomegaly

229
Q

Pompe’s disease

A

Glycogen storage disease type II

Lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase

Cardiomegaly

230
Q

Cori disease

A

Glycogen storage disease type III

Alpha-1,6-glucosidase

Muscle hypotonia

231
Q

McArdle’s disease

A

Glycogen storage disease type III

Glycogen phosphorylase

Myalgia
Myoglobinuria with exercise

232
Q

Azathioprine side effects

A
  • bone marrow depression
  • nausea/vomiting
  • pancreatitis
  • increased risk non-melanoma skin cnacer

MRCP/MSRA (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions