MRC Peds Notes Flashcards

1
Q

What growth plate zone do physeal fractures occur through?

A

ZPC in the zone of hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the 1st and 2nd most common causes of death in children?

A

1st: accidental injury
2nd: NAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blocks to closed reduction of of proximal humerus fractures in children

A

biceps tendon, deltoid, periosteum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acceptable reduction of proximal humerus fracture in kids

A

< 5 yo: 70 degrees and 100% displaced
5-12 yo: 40-70 degrees
> 12 yo: 40 degrees and 50% displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Can you treat type II SCH fx on outpatient basis?

A

yes, safe and effective to do at ASC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a risk factor for infection in SCH fx?

A

younger age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What injuries result in cubitus varus and valgus?

A

SCH: cubitus varus

lateral condyle fx: cubitus valgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what XR view is best for viewing lateral condyle fractures?

A

internal oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What injury should be assessed for on a distal humeral axial view?

A

medial epicondyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What injury is associated with elbow dislocations?

A

medial epicondyle fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the direction of displacement of a transphyseal distal humerus fracture?

A

posteromedial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Late complications from transphyseal distal humerus fracture?

A

cubitus varus and medial condyle AVN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Reduce a radial head fracture if…

A

its more than 30 degrees angulated.

Traction, varus in supination and then extend, flex and pronate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complications with ORIF of radial head fractures

A

Loss of ROM
AVN
Synostosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Acceptable alignment forearm fracture younger than 9

A

15 degrees angulation

45 degrees of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acceptable alignment forearm fracture older than 9

A

10 degrees angulation proximal
15 degrees angulation distal
30 degrees of rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Assessing rotation on an AP XR

A

radial styloid and biceps tuberosity at 180 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Assessing rotation on a lateral XR

A

ulnar styloid and coronid 180 degrees

19
Q

Submuscular plating of pediatric femur fractures can lead to…

A

genu valgum.

20
Q

Tibial tubercle fx can have entrapped…

A

lateral meniscus.

21
Q

Tibial eminence fx can have entrapped…

A

medial meniscus.

22
Q

Considerations for ORIF tibial shaft fracture

A

> 5 degrees of posterior angulation

>5-10 degrees varus/valgus

23
Q

Triplane fracture

A

SH II on the lateral and SH III on the AP = a SH IV fracture

24
Q

Distal tibial physeal closure

A

central –> medial –> lateral

25
Q

Atlantooccipital dissocation

A

dens-basion distance > 12 mm

26
Q

The dentocentral synchondrosis fuses at…

A

age 6.

27
Q

Most common cervical fracture in kids is…

A

odontoid fracture (usually through the synchondrosis.

Treat with CR/Halo.

28
Q

Involcrum

A

new bone formed by active periosteum around old, dead bone

29
Q

Sequestrum

A

necrotic bone that is avascular and can be a nidus for infection

30
Q

Best predictors of septic hip in order

A
  1. T > 101.3
  2. CRP > 2
  3. ESR > 40
  4. NWB
  5. WBC > 12K
31
Q

Chronic Recurrent Multifocal Osteomyelitis

A

multiple sites, pathology and cx negative, associated with palmar and plantar pustules

  • *Treat with NSAIDs
  • *can cause LLD
32
Q

Brain MRI of CP will show…

A

periventricular leukomalacia.

33
Q

Botox MOA

A

inhibits presynaptic release of ACh

34
Q

Dorsal rhizotomy can be considered for..

A

ambulatory diplegic patients.

35
Q

What region of a CP hip is deficient?

A

posterior acetabulum

36
Q

What femoral deformity is associated with CP?

A

valgus and anteversion

37
Q

CP Equinovalgus foot

A

due to spastic peroneal

Tx: TAL, PB lengthening, lateral column lengthening, calc osteotomy

38
Q

CP Equinovarus foot

A

**Most common in spastic hemi

Overpull of PT

39
Q

Treatment of CP foot w/ flexible varus and weak peroneals

A

SPTT to peroneals

40
Q

Treatment of CP foot w/ flexible varus and overactive tib ant

A

SATT to cuboid

41
Q

Arthrogryposis is associated with…

A

decrease in anterior horn cells.

42
Q

Fascioscapulohmeural muscular dystrophy

A
  • AD
  • scapular winging
  • weakness of facial muscles (inability to whistle) and proximal UE
43
Q

Treatment of polymyositis and dermatomyositis

A

anti-TNF meds

44
Q

Freidrich Ataxia

A
  • AR
  • spinocerebellar degeneration (posterior columns of cord)
  • Frataxin gene (GAA repeat)
  • wide-based gait
  • cardiomyopathy
  • cavus foot
  • scoliosis