Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FSO Knowledge > MQF AUG22 > Flashcards

MQF AUG22 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The mission of the FIST is to (2 Blanks) for the (2 Blanks)
A

The mission of the FIST is to integrate fires for the supported commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the 120-mm (All) Mortar standing at 1/3, 2/3, and maximum ranges?
A

1/3: 310m 2/3: 340m, Max: 375

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. In order to consistently determine an accurate target location, a good observer must:
A

Must be able to determine an accurate target location through mensuration using current target location tools.

Must be able to self-locate to within 10 meters (100 meters if degraded by lack of position locating systems or other navigational aids).

Uses prominent terrain features to relate potential target areas to grid locations on a map.

Makes a thorough study of terrain by drawing a terrain sketch (in a static location).

Associates the direction in which the observer is looking with a direction line on the map.

Must be able to use electronic navigational aids with map analysis verification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. The Joint Fire Support Specialist/Radio Telephone Operator must be able to set up, operate, and maintain all of the equipment of the FIST. IAW ATP 3-09.30, the fire support specialist works under the guidance of the fire support sergeant to: (There are 8 major duties and responsibilities of the Fire Support Specialist. List them below.)
A

Establish digital and voice communications. Set up, operate, and maintain section equipment. Employ all means of fire support. Assist in fire support planning and coordination. Prepare and maintain staff journals, reports, and map displays. Operate and maintain the fire support vehicle. Maintain the security of the vehicle during all operations. Coordinate for logistics support and resupply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. A standard US large-scale military map scale is
A

The standard U.S. large-scale military map is 1:50,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. (Blank) is a weapons locating radar search area which the commander wants to attack hostile firing systems.
A

Call For Fire Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. An azimuth is the (Blank) angle measured (Blank) from a north base line that could be (blank) north, (blank) north, or (blank) north.
A

Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be true north, magnetic north, or grid north.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. An (4 blanks) is a weapons locating radar search area in enemy territory that the commander monitor closely to detect and report any weapon ahead of all acquisitions other than those from critical friendly zone or call for fire zones.
A

Artillery Target Intelligence Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(3 blanks) is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery system can maneuver to increase their survivability.

A

Position Artillery Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1 0. What are the different types of zones used with radar?

A

Sensor Zones, CFF Zones, Critical Friendly Zone, Artillery Target Intelligence Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1 1 . The Final Protective Fire is a type of priority target utilized in defensive situations. The final protective is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to (3 blanks)

A

Impede enemy movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. What is the minimum and maximum range of the M252 81 mm mortar using M821A3 H E/MOF?
A

MAX: 5800 MIN: 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A (4 blanks) is a fire support coordination measures established by the land or amphibious force commander to support common objectives within an area of operations beyond which all fires must be coordinated with affected commanders prior to engagement and short of the line all fires must be coordinated with the establishing commander prior to engagement.

A

Fire Support Coordination Line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is the minimum and maximum range of the M224 60mm mortar using M720A2 HE/MOF?
A

MAX: 3500 MIN: 75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1 5. What is the minimum and maximum effective ranges for the SA-6?

A

MAX: 25K MIN: 4K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1 6. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the 155-mm (M795/M795 1M) standing at 1/3, 2/3, and maximum ranges?

A

1/3=385 2/3=515 3/3=730

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1 7. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the GBU-38v4 Contact Prone?

A

185m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A (blank) is a target based on either time or importance, on which the delivery rate of fires takes precedence over all the fires for the designated firing unit or element

A

Priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1 9. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the 2.75 inch HE rockets at a firing range of 800 meters?

A

Standing 135m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is the minimum and maximum effective ranges for the SA-8?
A

MAX: 10K MIN: 1.5K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

21 . The (2 blanks) is a concise means to inform all participants of the flow of the upcoming attack. The minimum information shall include the type of (blank) and (blank) of (blank).

A

The game plan is a concise means to inform all participants of the flow of the upcoming attack. The minimum information shall include the type of control and method of attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. (2 blanks) is the process by which the JTAC/FAC(A) coordinates and confirms that the attacking aircraft and the third party contributor have acquired the (2 blanks) or (blank)
A

Target Correlation is the process by which the JTAC/FAC(A) coordinates and confirms that the attacking aircraft and the third party contributor have acquired the correct target or mark.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What is the minimum and maximum range of the M120 120mm mortar using M934A1 HE/MOF?
A

MAX: 7020m MIN: 165m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What is the RALS Rule? After defining the rule, write an example of it below.
A

Right Add, Left Subtract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. A (3 blanks) is a specific region into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters.
A

Free Fire Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. A (blank) is an entity or object that performs a function for the adversary considered for possible engagement or other action. In intelligence usage, a country, area, installation, agency, or person against which intelligence operations are directed. An area designated and numbered for future firing. In gunfire support usage, an impact burst that hits the target.
A

Target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. During fire support planning, to help ensure all considerations are addressed, the memory aid FA-PARCA can be an instrumental. Write the meaning of each variable below.
A

F-Fire support tasks, described in terms of a clear task, purpose, and effect.

A-Allocation of assets or targets to subordinate units.

P-Positioning guidance for fire support assets and observers.

A-Attack guidance.

R-Restrictions.

C-Coordinating instructions.

A-Assessment (measure of performance, measure of effectiveness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Fill in the FPF planning table with the appropriate length and meters.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the 105-mm (M1130) standing at 1/3, 2/3, and maximum ranges?
A

1/3=285 2/3=355 3/3=505

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. During defensive operations, (blank) must always be kept under constant surveillance and covered by fire(s) in order to be effective
A

Obstacle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

31 . Angle T is the interior angle formed at the (blank) by the intersection of the (blank) and the gun-target lines with it’s (blank) at the target.

A

Angle T is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer target line and the gun target lines with it’s vertex at the target.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. List the five methods of determining direction.
A

Scaling from a map, Compass,Estimation, Reference Point, Precision Measuring Devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. Why it is extremely vital for the FIST to know the gun target line when conducting tactical military operations?
A

Deconfliction..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. A (3 blanks) is an area of coverage employed by weapons locating radar which the maneuver commander designates as critical to the protection of an asset whose loss would seriously jeopardize the mission.
A

Critical Friendly Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the 81-mm (All) Mortar standing at 1/3, 2/3, and maximum ranges?
A

1/3=190 2/3=210 3/3=220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. During SLOCTOP; (blank) is the number one priority for the team.
A

Comms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

(3 blanks) is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and the situation requires the JTAC/FAC(A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack.

A

Type 1 Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) requires control of individual attacks and is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release or is unable to visually acquire the target
A

Type 2 Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. Direction is expressed in mils, degrees, or relative term. List the 8 cardinal directions in mils and what each corresponds to relative term.
A

N-0 NE-800 E-1600 SE-2400 S-3200 SW-4000 W-4800 NW-5600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within (blank) to (blank) meters of friendly positions.
A

Final Protective Fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within 200 to 400 meters of friendly positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

41 . List the requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect.

A

five requirements for accurate fires are: accurate target location and size, accurate firing unit location, accurate weapon and ammunition information, accurate meteorological information, and accurate computational procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. A (3 blanks) is an immediately available (blank) barrier of fire designed to (blank) enemy movement across defensive lines
A

A Final Protective Fire is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designated to impede enemy movement across defensive lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. A (blank) of targets is consists of two or more targets on which fires is desired simultaneously.
A

A group of targets consists of two or more targets on which fires is desired simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. A (2 blanks) is a target that is in a circular pattern or is vague as to exact composition and has a radius greater than (blank) meters
A

A circular target is a target that is in a circular pattern or is vague as to exact composition and has a radius greater than 100m.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. List the six methods of target location?
A

Grid, Laser Grid, Polar, Laser Polar, Mensuration, Shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. An observer must use a (blank) format to identify information on a terrain sketch. List the four mandatory pieces of information that must be contained within each formatted item.
A

T Format; Grid, Altitude, Direction, Distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. What items comprise the terrain sketch?
A

The skyline, Intermediate crests, hills, and ridges, Other natural terrain features, Manmade features, Labels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. Fill in the appropriate data for average smoke burn times and average obscuration lengths in the planning table.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. What are the four uses of Shell white phosphorus?
A

Marking, Incendiary, Obscuration, Screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Provide what information goes into each line of the Rotary Wing 5-Line Brief.
A

Rotary wing 5-line

Warning order

Friendly location and mark

Target location

Target description and mark

Remarks and restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. List the 8 critical pieces of information an observer will receive as part of the CAS Check-in Brief.
A

CAS Check in

Callsign

Mission #

Playtime

Abort code

Type of AC

POS/ALT

Capabilities

Ordnance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. What are the five illumination patterns?
A

One gun, two gun, two gun range, two gun lateral, four gun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. What is a use of obscuration smoke?
A

Obscuration Uses

Defeat flash ranging and disrupt counterfire

Obscure adversary observation posts and reduce their ability to provide accurate target locationfor adversary fire support assets.

Obscure adversary direct fire weapons and lasers.

Instill Apprehension and increase threat patrolling

Slow adversary vehicles to blackout speeds

Increase control problems by disrupting visual signals and increasing radio traffic

Defeat night observation devices and reduce capability of most IR devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. Fire support planning is conducted at all echelon levels, and is integrated through targeting and the running estimate. What is included in an integrated fires plan?
A

FSEM, FS Overlay, TLWS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. Army SEAD operations are designed to support operational and tactical plans by protecting Army aviation assets near the (3 blanks).
A

Forward Line Of Troops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Danger Close indicates FRIENDLY troops are within (blank) probability of incapacitation from the target as determined by the weapon or munition that is delivered or fired.
A

0.1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. Cleared HOT is and close air support terminal attack control clearance to release ordinance?
A

Type 1 and Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. When briefing aircraft on the situation the acronym TTFACOR is used, what does it stands for;
A

TFACOR

Threats

Targets

Friendlies

Artillery

Clearance Authority

Ordnance

Remarks Restrictions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Laser range finders are the preferred means of determining the observer-target distance. When a laser range finder is used, distance may be determined to the nearest
A

Nearest 10 meter pg 3-8 in ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Using flash to bang, the observer counts the number of seconds between the time the round impacts (flash) and the time the sound reaches the observer (bang) and multiply by (blank) meters/second. The answer is the approximate number of meters between the observer and the round.
A

350 m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

61 . In a polar plot mission, the FDC only needs to know the (blank) location.

A

Observers Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. The goal of every observer is to provide the most accurate (2 blanks) possible by using the full range of capability and equipment.
A

Target Location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. The transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated constitutes aircraft (3 blanks)
A

Fire When Ready

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. provide the proper laser safety zone information for a target that located at 135 degrees from the observer to the target. The appropriate laser safety cone information is:
A

LS 145CW195 RS 85CW125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. A (3 blanks) is a certified and qualified service member who request, controls, and adjusts surface-to-surface fires; provides (blank) information in support of close air support; and performs terminal guidance operations.
A

Joint Fires Observer, Targeting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. The objective of an impact registration is to get spotting’s of (blank) rounds, (blank) and (blank) along the observer target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data (blank) apart.
A

2 rounds over and under; 25 m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. List the 14 methods of control.
A

14 methods of control

Fire When Ready

AMC

Cannot observe

TOT

TTT

Coord. Illum

Cont. Illum

Check Fire

Cease Loading

Continuous Fire

Request Splash

Repeat

DNL

Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. The NSFS call for fire is sent in (blank) transmission.
A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. List the 15 Subsequent corrections in order.
A

15 subsequent corrections

OT direction

DC

Trajectory

Method of Fire

Distribution

Projectile

Fuze

Volume

Deviation Correction

Range Correction

HOB Correction

Target Desc.

Mission Type/Method of Control

Splash

Repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. (blank) is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks and the situation requires the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and visually acquire the target for each attack.
A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

71 . Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65, GBU, and GP bombs?

A

F-16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. During adjustments of a fire mission, an observer spots a round which burst left of the target along the OT line. The range to the target is 700 meters. The observer measures the angular deviation as 45 mils left. His deviation spotting is (blank)
A

45 left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. The MK-82/BLU-111 consists of what ordnance description?
A

Mk-82/BLU-111: 500-pound (lb) general purpose (GP) bomb. BLU-111 uses a thermally protected body. Effects: blast, fragmentation, and limited cratering.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. Know how to authenticate, using RAMROD.
A

Know How to Authenticate using RAMROD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. means the laser designator system is inoperative.
A

Deadeye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. Fixed wing aircraft provide FS with (blank), C2, ISR, SCAR, (blank), (blank) and
    (blank)
A

SEAD, CAS, AI, FAC(A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is the air action by aircraft against hostile targets that in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.
A

Close Air Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. For (3 blanks) missions, all aircraft delivering ordinance must read back line 4 and line 6 from their system or weapon, as appropriate, in conjunction with other required restrictions.
A

Bomb on Coordinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. (Blank) is when two or more munitions will be released or fired in close succession.
A

Ripple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. What does ten seconds refer to when conducting TGO?
A

Standby to lase target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

81 . (3 blanks) are actions using electronic, mechanical, voice, or visual communications that provide approaching aircraft and/or weapons additional information regarding a specific target location.

A

Terminal guidance Operations

82
Q

During a mortar registration, the observer sends refinement corrections to the nearest (blank) meters.

A

10 m

83
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the GBU-51 Contact Prone?
A

125 m

84
Q
  1. What are the five FDC commands used to alert the observer that all information necessary to start, conduct, and cease firing?
A

Laid, Ready, Shot, Splash, Rounds Complete

85
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the AGM-65 Prone protected?
A

115 meters

86
Q
  1. For a mortar registration, the procedures are identical to an impact registration for artillery. The exception is that once a (blank) meter bracket has been split and the last round fired is within (blank) meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission.
A

100 meter/50 meters

87
Q

(3 blanks) is the planning and executing of fire so that targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.

A

Fire support coordination

88
Q
  1. The GBU-38 is described as a (blank) with a (blank) bomb body.
A

JDAM/ MK-82

89
Q
  1. What is DANGER CLOSE or 0.1% Standing for the GBU-IO (2,000 LGB) contact?
A

1300 meters

90
Q
  1. Shell Hexachloroethane-Zinc is time fuzed and function at a height of burst of approximately (blank) meters. The projectile expels the HC smoke canisters to disperse them in the target area.
A

50 meters

91
Q

91 . List the 4 AH-64D/E rotary wing weapons

A

30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 114, APKWS

92
Q
  1. List the 3 primary effects of the MK 82/BLU-111 general purpose bomb.
A

Blast, Fragmentation, limited Cratering

93
Q
  1. The goal of every observer is to provide the most accurate (blank) (including elevation) possible by using the full range of capability and equipment.
A

Target Location

94
Q
  1. Danger close for artillery and mortars is (blank) and naval gunfire is (blank)
A

600 meters/ 750 meters

95
Q
  1. When conducting an immediate suppression or immediate smoke mission the CFF is sent in (blank) transmissions.
A

1 transmission

96
Q
  1. (blank) Is the activity that neutralizes, destroy, or temporarily degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means.
A

SEAD

97
Q
  1. Define the brevity term SNAKE.
A

Oscillate an Infared pointer in a figure 8 about the target

98
Q
  1. (blank) is a line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination.
A

CFL

99
Q
  1. Altitude is the (2 blanks) of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured, from mean sea level or height above ellipsoid.
A

Vertical Distance

100
Q
  1. The OF fan has (blank) radial arms that are (blank) mils apart and cover
A

17/ 100 mils

101
Q

101 . The gun target line is

A

The line from the gun to the target

102
Q
  1. The observer target OT line is
A

The line from the observer to the target

103
Q
  1. What is the basic principle of Army SEAD operations?
A

See-Kill

104
Q
  1. List the two major reasons MARK is included in the method of engagement to indicate that the observer is going to call for rounds for either of the following reasons.
A

To indicate targets to ground troops, aircraft, or other observers and to orient self in the zone of observation

105
Q
  1. During an illumination mission, in order to achieve fewer shadows than illumination that is concentrated in one place the observer should request (blank) in the call for fire.
A

2-gun illumination range spread

106
Q

1 06. During an illumination mission, when the area to be illuminated has greater width that depth, the observer should request (blank) in the call for fire.

A

2 gun lateral spread

107
Q
  1. The 81 -mm mortar system fires a round specific only to its particular system.
A

Red Phosphorus

108
Q

1 08. Altitude may also be determined as a vertical shift from the altitude of the observer’s position or from a known point to the target. If there is a significant difference in vertical shift of equal or greater than (blank) in altitude between the observer’s position or a known point to a target, the observer includes it in the target location. It is expressed as an (blank) or (blank) correction.

A

35 meters, Up or Down

109
Q
  1. List the variables that make up the Mil Relation Formula. After writing the variables, write the formula according to how it will be used in calculations.
A

W=RxM
Width = Range (in thousands) x Mils

110
Q

1 10. The Mil Relation formula helps the observer determine the (blank) in meters.

A

Shift

111
Q

1 1 1. List the six elements of the call for fire in order.

A

Observer Identification, Warning Order, Target Location, Target Description, method of engagement, method of fire and control

112
Q

1 12. Altitude may be determined as a vertical shift from observer to target. This is expressed to the nearest (blank) and is sent if the altitude change is equal or greater than (blank)

A

5 meters, 35 meters

113
Q

1 1 3. List the four characteristic uses of smoke.

A

Deceptive, Obscuring, Screening, Signaling

114
Q

1 1 4. Attitude is sent to the nearest (blank) and less than 3200 mils.

A

100 mils

115
Q

1 1 5. An azimuth may be measured in degrees or mils between a reference direction and the line to an observed or designated point but, if possible, should be converted to (blank) before transmitting a call for fire.

A

Mils

116
Q

1 16. Define the brevity term HOLLOW.

A

Any data link not received/ any lost data link

117
Q

1 17. A degree is a unit of horizontal clockwise angular measurement that is equal to (blank) of a circle. Degrees may be converted to mils by multiplying the number of degrees by (blank)

A

360 degrees, 17.78

118
Q

1 18. (2 blanks) is reasonable certainty that the entity or object is a valid military target and the correct target.

A

Positive ID

119
Q

1 19. A call for fire is a (2 blanks) prepared by the observer. It contains all the information needed by the FDC to determine the (blank) of (2 blanks)

A

Concise message, method of target attack

120
Q
  1. Name three doctrinal common terms that commanders may use to describe the desired effects when providing guidance for fire support.
A

Neutralize, suppress, destroy

121
Q
  1. Define the brevity term BLIND.
A

No visual contact w/friendly aircraft, ships, or ground positions

122
Q
  1. Define the brevity term SLANT.
A

The number of people or objects noted at a specified location

123
Q
  1. The Army’s targeting process steps are (3 blanks) and (blank) is integrated with the operations process, joint targeting cycle, and MDMP.
A

decide, detect, deliver, assess

124
Q
  1. The FO is assigned a particular fire support asset from which the FO may request fire support. Under what FO control option does this fall under? (Write out the key word).
A

designated

125
Q
  1. (blank) is the process of selecting and prioritizing targets and matching the appropriate response to them while considering operational requirements and capabilities.
A

targeting

126
Q
  1. What fuze can be added to 155mm HE round to provide a near precision capability?
A

precision guidance kit

127
Q
  1. Mortars provide unique indirect fires that are (blank) to the ground maneuver commander. Their rapid high-angle fires are invaluable against dug in adversaries and targets in defilade, which are not vulnerable to attack by direct fires.
A

responsive

128
Q
  1. A (3 blanks) is a location in which specific restrictions are imposed into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters.
A

restrictive fire area

129
Q
  1. A linear target is a target that is greater that (blank) and less than or equal to (blank) in length and width.
A

200, 200

130
Q
  1. When selecting an OP, the memory aid (blank) is used for occupying a position.
A

sloctop

131
Q

131 . The rate of descent for the M485A2 155mm illumination is (blank) meters per second.

A

5

132
Q
  1. The rate of descent for M721 60mm illumination is (blank) meters per second.
A

8

133
Q
  1. The warning order contains (blank) sub-elements. List them below.
A

3: type of mission, size of elements to FFE, method of target location

134
Q

1 34. A target description must describe the target in enough details that the FDC can determine the amount and type of ammunition to use. The target description should contain the following;

A

what the target is, what it’s doing, # of elements, degree of protection

135
Q
  1. (2 blank) normally produces the specific effect on a target with minimum ammunition expenditure and reduces vulnerability to enemy target acquisition.
A

massing fires

136
Q
  1. Failure to select proper (3 blanks) may result in undesired effects on targets, a reduction in desired effects on target, or excessive expenditure of ammunition.
A

shell fuze combination

137
Q
  1. The maneuver commander has the responsibility to (blank) fires with the (3 blanks)
A

integrate, scheme of maneuver

138
Q
  1. Name the four targeting effects through which Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD) operations are accomplished.
A

denial, degradation, destruction, disruption

139
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is a three dimensional block of airspace in a target area established by the appropriate commander in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly
A

airspace coordination area

140
Q
  1. List the steps for the fuze furrow and center of crater method for crater analysis.
A

place stake in the center crater, place second stake in the fuze furrow at the point where the fuze was blown forward to the front of the crater, set up direction measuring instrument in line with the stakes and away from frag, orient instruments, measure direction to hostile weapons

141
Q

141 . List the 6 sub elements to the method of engagement.

A

type of adjustment, trajectory, ammunition, distribution, danger close, mark

142
Q
  1. In the method of engagement, the types of adjustment are:
A

area, precision

143
Q
  1. Define the brevity term SHIFT.
A

Shift laser/ir/ radar device energy

144
Q
  1. Target location utilizing the Shift from a Known Point method means that the target will be located in relation to a preexisting known point or recorded target. Both the FDC and observer must know the location of the point or recorded target. Corrections are sent in (blank) shift, (blank) shift, and (blank) shift.
A

lateral, range, vertical

145
Q
  1. The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into (blank) increments of (blank) with shorter hash marks at increments.
A

10 mils, 5 mils

146
Q
  1. What do the FSO responsibilities include?
A

plan coordinate and execute fire support, make recommendations to integrate fires, integrate fires with company troop ops, keep key personnel informed, train the FiST and JFO in applicable FS matters, initiate CFF on targets of opportunity and execute planned tgts IAW FS plan, prepare and disseminate information

147
Q
  1. A (3 blanks) is an area within which designated ground unit or fire support ship delivers or is prepared to deliver fire support.
A

zone of fire

148
Q
  1. What are the responsibilities of the Fire Support Sergeant?
A

be the SME on the op and maintenance, keep personnel informed of pertinent info, advise the FSO, train the FiST an FOs in FS, initiate fires on targets of opportunity

149
Q

1 49. The FOS primary duty is to (3 blanks) then call for, and adjust fire support.

A

accurately locate targets

150
Q

1 50. What are the additional responsibilities of the FO?

A

use target coordinate mensuration tools, fully understand responsibility within observation plan and provide refinement, prepare maintain and situation maps, establish and maintain digital and voice comms, report combat info

151
Q

1 51 . The FO may call for fire from fire support assets available to support the operation. Under what FO control option does this fall under? (write out the key word).

A

decentralized

152
Q

1 52. The FO must contact the FIST for each call for fire. Under what FO control option does this fall under? (write out the key word).

A

centralized

153
Q

1 53. What should be considered when positioning an observation post on a forward slope?

A

offer views to the fronts and flanks, fires impacting on the topographical crest won’t neutralize the position, hillside provides background and aids in concealment, occupation during daylight is difficult without risking disclosure, radio comms may be difficult

154
Q

1 54. What are the reverse slope considerations?

A

allows occupation during daylight hours, allows greater freedom of movement over forward slope, facilitates installation and concealment of comms equipment, provides protection form direct fire, affords limited field of view

155
Q

1 55, Unguided ordinance dropped from medium to high altitude above an overcast on coordinates accurate enough to achieve the supported commander’s objectives for CAS, is an example of (3 blanks)

A

bomb on coordinate

156
Q

1 56. What are the five height of burst spotting’s?

A

air, graze, mixed, mixed air, mixed graze

157
Q

1 57. What are the seven range spotting’s?

A

over, short, target, range correct, doubtful, lost, unobserved

158
Q

1 58. (2 blanks) is a three dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure with an associated airspace coordinating measure used to facilitate the integration of fires.

A

kill box

159
Q
  1. What is the tactical range of a 2S6?
A

4km/13,000ft

160
Q

1 60. Define the brevity term WINCHESTER.

A

no ordnance remaining

161
Q

161 . What are the effects of a Mk-84/BLU-117?

A

Blast, Fragmentation, Cratering

162
Q
  1. The rate of descent for all 120mm illumination is (blank) to (blank) meters per second.
A

8 to 10

163
Q

1 63. What are the recommended ordinance options for buildings?

A

JDAM, LJDAM, LGB, SDB, GP

164
Q

1 64. What is the minimum and maximum effective ranges for the SA-13?

A

min: 0.3nm/0.6km Max: 2.7nm/5km

165
Q

1 65. What must be done before occupying the observations post?

A

SLoCTOP

166
Q

1 66. (blank) is the most valuable resource for developing situational awareness during occupation.

A

Communication

167
Q

1 67. Define the brevity term RIFLE.

A

Friendly missile launch

168
Q
  1. (2 blanks) is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited.
A

no-Fire area

169
Q

1 69. What are the four items the Message to Observer consists of?

A

units to fire, changes to cff, number of rounds, target number

170
Q

1 70. What are the four techniques that can be used to conduct area adjustment fires?

A

successive bracketing, hasty bracketing, one round adjust, creeping fire

171
Q

1 71. (2 blanks) mathematically ensures the observer that the fire for effect rounds will impact within 50 meters of the adjusting point.

A

successive bracketing

172
Q

1 72. The use of quick smoke is used to obscure areas from (blank) meters up to (blank) meters wide.

A

150 to 600 meters

173
Q

1 73. When preparing a quick smoke mission, the observer first determines the nature of the (blank) and the (blank) of the (blank) point.

A

target, location, adjustment

174
Q

1 74. When conducting a quick smoke mission what information is usually sent in the third transmission of the CFF?

A

target description, length, MTL/ attitude, wind dir, duration

175
Q
  1. Define the brevity term BASE.
A

used to indicate altitude

176
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is a line beyond which conventional surface to surface direct fire and indirect fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing headquarters without additional coordination but does not eliminate the responsibility to coordinate the airspace required to conduct the missions.
A

coordinated fire line

177
Q
  1. Define the brevity term IN
A

entering terminal phase of air to ground attack

178
Q
  1. The role of the field artillery is to (blank), (blank), or (blank) the enemy by cannon, rocket, and missile fire to integrate and synchronize all fire support assets into operations.
A

suppress, neutralize, destroy

179
Q
  1. The company/troop commander refines the guidance for fires in the( 2 blanks) and (3 blanks)
A

commanders intent, concept of operations

180
Q
  1. Define the brevity term RIPPLE.
A

two or more munitions released

181
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the 60-mm (M1061 ) Mortar standing at 1/3, 2/3, and maximum ranges?
A

1/3: 100m/328ft, 2/3: 150m/492ft, max: 175m/574ft

182
Q
  1. What is the 0.1% Probability of Incapacitation for the AGM-114 FA/K/L/M/N Prone?
A

115

183
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement subject to specific attack restrictions.
A

type 3 control

184
Q

What are the conditions for effective CAS?

A

thourghly trained personnel, effective planning and integration, effective command and control, air superiority, target marking

185
Q
  1. Unguided ordinance dropped with CAS aircraft TALLY or CONTACT and employing on the target mark, is an example of (3 blanks)
A

bomb on target

186
Q
  1. What are five considerations for using laser spot trackers?
A

line of sight, pulse repetition frequency codes, direction of attack, laser target designator, the delivery system

187
Q
  1. When laser designating for an aircraft the aircraft is required to be within the (blank) degree attack zone, with (blank) to (blank) degree zone being the most preferred or optimal.
A

120, 10 to 45

188
Q

(2 blanks) is an efficient method for establishing an IP or BP in the absence of control points or when their location does not sufficiently support the target engagement.

A

keyhole template

189
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft.
A

terminal attack control

190
Q
  1. Define the brevity term CLEARED TO ENGAGE.
A

type 3 close air support TAC. Attack aircraft or flight may initiate attacks within parameters impose by the JTAC

191
Q
  1. The (3 blanks) is the process by which the supported commander ensures that fires or their effects will have no unintended consequences on friendly units or the scheme of maneuver.
A

clearance of fires

192
Q
  1. What are the three deviation spotting’s?
A

Line, left, right

193
Q
  1. (2blanks) is an area from which the weapon locating radar is prohibited from reporting acquisitions.
A

sensor zone

194
Q
  1. There are (blank) requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect.
A

5

195
Q
  1. What are the five target types or entities?
A

facility, individual, virtual, equipment, organization

196
Q
  1. An observer’s primary mission is (blank) of (blank) and (2 blanks) on targets.
A

placement, timely, accurate fires

197
Q
  1. Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by (2 blanks) in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, or area fire capabilities.
A

massing fires

198
Q
  1. (3 blanks) is a specific boundary established between converging friendly surface forces that prohibits fires or their effects from crossing.
A

restrictive fire line

199
Q
  1. The terrain sketch is a (blank) sketch as precise as possible of the terrain by the observer of the area of responsibility. It aids in (2 blanks) in a static environment.
A

panoramic, target location

200
Q
  1. A rectangular target is a target that is greater than (blank) meters in length and width described by (2 blanks) or by a (2 blanks) a (blank), (blank) and an attitude.
A

200M, four grids, center grid, a length, width

201
Q
  1. A (blank) is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent unit’s formations or areas.
A

boundary

202
Q
  1. What is the tactical range of a ZSU 23-4?
A

2.5km/ 8200ft

FSO Knowledge (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions