Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

737 > MQF > Flashcards

MQF Flashcards

0
Q

What system is used to open the forward cargo baggage door?

A

Manual mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

The designation of the engine on the 737 – NG is CFM international CFM 56–7B26

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With the emergency light switch in the armed position under normal power, what condition will cause the lights to illuminate automatically?

A

Loss of #1 DC bus or AC power is turned off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In-flight, when the gear horn sounds, under what conditions can it be silenced?

A

Flaps 1 – 10, thrust levers at any position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What warning inhibits are available in the GPWS system?

A

Flaps config, gear config and terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are the bleed valves operated?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A reactive windshear alert inhibits all others

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Can the engines be started with the engine bleed valve switches in the off position?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With the loss of system A hydraulic pressure, nose wheel steering:

A

Is manually selectable to system B hydraulics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What causes a bleed trip?

A

Both A and B

Excessive bleed pressure and temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many fuel measuring sticks are used to check the center tank quantity?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does a duct overheat light indicate?

A

Bleed air temperature in related duct exceeds limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of the EEC?

A

Both A and B

  • N1 is used by the EEC to set thrust in three control modes: normal and two alternates
  • EEC uses thrust Lever inputs to automatically control forward and reverse thrust
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where is the engine oil pressure measured?

A

On the outlet side of the engine driven oil pump, prior to engine lubrication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the purpose of the isolation valve?

A

Allows separation or connection of the left and right pneumatic systems when required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the in Flight operating limits of the APU?

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should the starter automatically cut out?

A

56% N2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the power sources of igniters?

A

Left, respective AC transfer bus and Right, standby AC bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Will the APU fire detection system automatically discharge the fire bottle?

A

No, it only shuts the APU down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What requirements must be met before reverse is available?

A

All of the above and reverse selected

  • Fire switch down
  • Either radio altimeter sensing less than 10 feet, or the air\ground sensor in the ground mode
  • Hydraulic pressure and battery power available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?

A

Allows landing gear retraction in the event of a number one engine failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the temperature limits of the APU?

A

Maximum limits are not displayed but are set by the ECU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the electrical sources for the 737?

A

All of the above

  • Two engine driven generators
  • APU
  • Ground Powerr
  • battery for standby bus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are the primary flight controls normally powered?

A

By hydraulic systems A & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How could the standby rudder be activated manually?

A

Placing either or both system A and B flight control switches to standby rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Under what conditions would an IDG disconnect (either manually or automatically) be necessary when low oil is sensed by a DRIVE amber caution light?

A

Both A and B

  • High oil temperature
  • IDG failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Can the standby hydraulic pump be activated by any additional method?

A

Yes, by selecting the alternate flap master switch to on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which buses supply the essential loads?

A

The standby buses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the minimum fuel to operate the electric hydraulic pumps on the ground?

A

1675 pounds in each wing tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why is there a minimum fuel requirement to operate the electric hydraulic pumps?

A

The A and B system heat exchangers are located in the main tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the primary and the backup sources of power for the transfer buses ?

A

Primary: respective IDG
Backup: opposite XFER bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

At what degree of control wheel displacement does Flight spoiler deployment begin to assist the ailerons in roll control?

A

10°

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Does aileron trim physically effect control wheel position?

A

Yes. The control wheel position directly indicates the amount of aileron trim applied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of a TR?

A

Convert 115 V AC power to 28 V DC power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the voltage output of the TR’s?

A

28 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If the trailing edge flaps are extended by the alternate method, what flap protections are available

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What powers the trailing edge flaps down with the alternate flaps system selected?

A

An electric motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When is the automatic standby power feature available?

A

Always. It functions the same on the ground as in the air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is not on the hot battery bus?

A

Standby Runner shut off valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

If the system B electric pump or lines developed a leak what would the indications be?

A

The quantity indication would go to zero. But sufficient fluid would be available to operate the power transfer unit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If you lost all standby system hydraulic fluid, would there be a cockpit indication?

A

Yes. The standby low quantity light would be illuminated and system B reservoir would read one half and RFL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What activates the standby hydraulic pump?

A

All of the above and activation of the FFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the power source for APU start?

A

A and B

  • AC power if available
  • Main battery only if AC not available
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Will the autobrake disarm light normally illuminate after take off with RTO selected?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When selected, at what speed is RTO available?

A

Above 90 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for retracting the landing gear?

A

235 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When is the fuel heated?

A

The fuel is constantly heated by a fuel\oil heat exchanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When retracting the highlift devices using the alternate method will the LED’s return to the retracted position?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the two sources of power for the ground service bus?

A

Both A and C

  • Transfer bus one
  • Ground power via the ground service switch on the F\A panel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When are the ground service buses powered?

A

When external power is available and the ground service switch is on, or both transfer buses are powered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When is the latest you should wait for oil pressure to be indicated?

A

By idle RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The APU has an overheat warning system

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Must the battery switch be on to operate the APU?

A

Yes, on the ground and in Flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Can the APU be started without the battery?

A

No, the battery is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What actuates the thrust reversers?

A

Hydraulic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What do the start levers control?

A

Both A and C

  • fuel
  • ignition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How long should you operate the APU before using it as a bleed air source?

A

1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The EGPWS gets position information from:

A

GPS position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

When are the aux and main batteries tied together?

A

When the batteries are the only source of power (except during APU start)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the primary source for DC power?

A

Three transformer rectifiers (TRs) and a ground service TR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the maximum EGT allowed during engine start?

A

Not given, but the APU start will automatically terminate in an exceedance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What would indicate an APU hung start?

A

The start is automatically terminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How high may the APU be started?

A

Up to the service ceiling of the aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is a good test indication of the TCAS?

A

A and B

  • Four traffic symbols on the NDs
  • An aural message that the test is okay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Where did the air conditioning packs get their air?

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is the APU compartment and exhaust system cold?

A

Air enters the cooling inlet above the exhaust opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If the APU EGT rises above acceptable limits during engine start:

A

It will reduce the electrical output to maintain bleed air pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the primary source of cockpit air?

A

The left pack, upstream of the mix manifold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What would be your indication with a TR3 failure?

A

0 V & amps. TR 3 output is read at the TR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the power source for TR3?

A

XFER BUS #2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How could you verify that TR1 had failed?

A

TR1 amps 0 and volts normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

If the DC meter switch is placed to the standby power position, what would you be able to read?

A

DC standby bus voltage only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Normally, what would you expect to happen if the DC bus number 1 or Transfer bus number 1 failed?

A

The battery bus would power the standby DC bus and the standby AC bus through the static inverter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the normal and backup power sources for the standby AC and DC buses?

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What malfunctions does the reset button effect?

A

Bleed trip, pack trip, duct overheat

75
Q

What would be a reason to switch the standby power switch to battery on the ground?

A

None as the standby buses are powered with the battery switch in the on position on the ground

76
Q

What are the power sources for the battery bus?

A

Both A and C

  • with normal AC power and the battery switch on-TR3
  • with loss of AC power in Flight-the battery
77
Q

With the battery switch off and ground power supplying ground services in the cabin, are the batteries being charged?

A

Yes, because the ground service buses supply the battery chargers

78
Q

How long will the battery provide standby power?

A

60 minutes with the two battery option

79
Q

What is the function of the recirculation fan?

A

Both A and B

  • reduces fuel consumption
  • reduces the amount of bleed air demanded from the packs
80
Q

When are the deflector doors extended?

A

On the ground

81
Q

What is the power source for the recirculation fan?

A

Driven by an AC motor

82
Q

When will be EQUIP COOLING OFF light illuminate?

A

When airflow is insufficient to cool the airflow sensor

83
Q

What is the maximum lateral fuel imbalance?

A

1000 pounds for all phases of flight

84
Q

Describe the normal fuel loading sequence

A

Fill the main tanks to full, then center tank.

85
Q

With fuel in all tanks and all boost pumps on, how is feel feed scheduled to the engines?

A

Center tank to both engines until the tank is empty, then main tank to respective engine

86
Q

When is the air conditioning ram air deflector door open?

A

When on the ground

87
Q

What is the power source for the pack valves?

A

The battery bus

88
Q

A pack valve can automatically regulate to high flow:

A

A and B

  • except on the ground, or in the air with flaps extended
  • The other pack is not operating
89
Q

The forward outflow valve will open automatically:

A

It’s a trick! There’s no forward outflow valve

90
Q

The overboard exhaust valve closes:

A

At high cabin differential cabin pressures

91
Q

When is the overboard exhaust valve open?

A

On the ground

92
Q

When does the aircraft start pressurizing?

A

It starts pressurizing the cabin at higher power settings on the ground

93
Q

What causes illumination of the equipment cooling off light?

A

A loss of airflow

94
Q

What action is required when the equipment cooling off light illuminates

A

Place the switch to alternate

95
Q

What is the source of equipment cooling air?

A

Conditioned air from the cockpit is drawn across the circuit breaker panels, then routed through the E & E compartment racks.

96
Q

Where does the fuel temperature indicator get it’s reading?

A

1 main tank

97
Q

With all fuel pump switches on and the forward pump in the number one tank not working, when will the master caution and fuel cap lights illuminate?

A

Both A and C

  • when the CAP Panel is pressed for recall
  • when the second pump in that tank quits
98
Q

With total loss of normal AC power, can the engines still be provided with fuel?

A

Yes, through section feed from the main tanks only

99
Q

At what cabin altitude will the cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy?

A

At approximately 14,000 feet cabin altitude

100
Q

The fuel pumps for the main and center tanks are powered by which electrical system?

A

AC

101
Q

What is another purpose of the defueling valve?

A

Ground transfer of fuel

102
Q

A center tank fuel pump low-pressure light will illuminate when the pump switch is off

A

False

103
Q

Each tank supplies pressurized fuel by using ___ boost pumps

A

2

104
Q

With the crossfeed valve closed, the left center tank boost pump will feed the left engine and the right-center tank boost pump will feed the right engine, until the center tank is dry.

A

True

105
Q

With a complete loss of electrical power, only fuel from which tanks will be available?

A

Main tanks

106
Q

The Fuel quantity indicators are found on the upper MFD panel and require standby AC power to operate

A

True

107
Q

In Flight, when when the crossfeed valve is open, fuel may be fed from any tank to:

A

Either engine

108
Q

The engine fuel shut off valves may be closed by:

A

Both A and B

  • pulling the engine fire warning switch
  • placing the engine start lever to cut off
109
Q

Which valve interconnects the engine feed system to the fueling station?

A

Manual defueling valve

110
Q

The power transfer unit provides an alternate source of hydraulic power for autatic extension of the autos lays if the system B engine driven pump pressure falls below limits.

A

True

111
Q

Can the standby hydraulic pump operate the thrust reversers?

A

Yes, but more slowly than normal operation

112
Q

When both the crossfeed switch and the crossfeed valve are open, the crossfeed valve open light will:

A

Iluminate dim blue

113
Q

For a fuel annunciator and master caution light to illuminate, two fuel low-pressure lights must be illuminated in the same wing tank(except on Recall)

A

True

114
Q

When the landing gear is up and locked, all landing gear indicator lights will be extinguished when the landing gear lever is placed in what position?

A

Either A or B

Up or off

115
Q

The maximum fuel imbalance for landing is?

A

1000 pounds

116
Q

What does the illumination of the fuel filter bypass light indicate?

A

Impending filter bypass

117
Q

Wing tanks number one and number two must be full if the center tank contains more than what about?

A

1000 pounds

118
Q

The warning horn will sound when landing gear is not down and locked, flaps greater than 15 and the thrust levers are at idle; it cannot be silenced

A

True

119
Q

Air/ground safety sensors are located on what gear?

A

All of the above

120
Q

The engine fuel shut off valve is:

A

DC powered (hot battery bus) and controlled by the engine start lever and/or the engine fire switch

121
Q

What ensures proper fuel flow direction and prevents transfer of fuel between tanks?

A

Check valves

122
Q

If the trailing edge flaps were extended and retracted by the alternate method, according to procedure; how long would it be before you could extend the trailing edge flaps again?

A

Five minutes

123
Q

Which outflow valve motor does the auto mode use?

A

A DC motor

124
Q

If the cowl valve fails to agree with the position of the engine anti-ice switch, what will the indication be?

A

The COWL VALVE OPEN LIGHT will be bright blue

125
Q

In auto mode, where does the controller derive its altitude information?

A

From the ADIRUs

126
Q

If unable to close the engine anti-ice valve in flight, what should the crew do?

A

Limit the thrust in the affected engine to 80% N1 if TAT exceeds 10C

127
Q

What does an illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE light mean?

A

An over pressure condition exists in the cowl anti ice duct

128
Q

The engine anti ice should be turned on at what time?

A

When icing conditions exist or are anticipated

129
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for extending the landing gear?

A

270 kts

130
Q

The purpose of the single point fueling system is to allow:

A

All of the above

Rapid fueling, gnd transfer and defueling

131
Q

Is it possible to service the center tank without single point fueling?

A

Yes, by the use of ground transfer

132
Q

If both A and B hydraulic systems failed could any of the primary flight controls be hydraulically powered?

A

Yes, the rudder thru the standby rudder power control unit powered by the standby hydraulic system

133
Q

With the loss of all generators, both center tank boost pumps are inoperative and the fuel in the tank is no longer usablea

A

True. Suction feed is available from main tanks only

134
Q

Where does the Auto mode of the pressure controller receive its barometric reference?

A

From the BARO selectors through the ADIRUs

135
Q

Yaw damper operations occur only when what hydraulic system is operational?

A

B system

136
Q

Where does the ALTN mode get its barometric reference?

A

From the BARO selectors through the ADIRUs

137
Q

If an OVERHEAT light cannot be extinguished by using the recommended overheat procedures, which engine procedures should be followed?

A

Engine failure,fire,severe damage, or separation

138
Q

How many minutes prior to takeoff should the window heat be turned in?

A

10 min

139
Q

With the overheat detector switch in normal, which loops must sense an overheat or fire condition before an overheat or fire warning is activated?

A

Both A and B loops

140
Q

A green window heat on light illuminates:

A

Whenever the window heat controller is applying heat to the associated window

141
Q

Pulling and rotating a fire warning handle will discharge the fire extinguisher selected even when the battery switch is OFF

A

True

142
Q

The results of pulling the APU fire warning handle are:

A

Both of the above

APU shutoff valves closes. Bleed air valve closes. Inlet door closes.
Trips the generator control relay. Arms the extinguisher.

143
Q

When the FLT/GRD switch is placed in the FLT position, what does the system do?

A

It’s a trick! There’s no FLT/GRD SWITCH

144
Q

APU fire detection loop failure is indicated by the illumination of which light?

A

APU DET INOP light

145
Q

The FAULT light monitors which detector loops?

A

Engine #1 and Engine #2

146
Q

How are the fire warning switches unlocked manually?

A

Both A and B

By pressing he override release
By conducting a FIRE test, then pulling the switch

147
Q

If a flight attendant turns on the a Emergency exit lights on the aft panel, is there a cockpit indication and can the cockpit crew override the F/A switch?

A

No indication in the cockpit, the pilots switch will not override the F/A switch

148
Q

What does the green disk on the right side of the fuselage indicate?

A

Crew oxygen thermal pressure relief disk

149
Q

If ground power is being supplied to the aircraft and APU power is put on one bus, does the ground power trip off the line?

A

No, ground power will continue to power the other side until it is removed, or another power source powers that bus.

150
Q

What is the minimum fuel to operate the electric hydraulic pumps on the ground?

A

1675 pounds in each wing tank

151
Q

Why is there a minimum fuel requirement to operate the electric hydraulic pumps?

A

The A and B system heat exchangers are located in the main tanks

152
Q

What are the primary and the backup sources of power for the transfer buses ?

A

Primary: respective IDG
Backup: opposite XFER bus

153
Q

At what degree of control wheel displacement does Flight spoiler deployment begin to assist the ailerons in roll control?

A

10°

154
Q

Does aileron trim physically effect control wheel position?

A

Yes. The control wheel position directly indicates the amount of aileron trim applied.

155
Q

What is the function of a TR?

A

Convert 115 V AC power to 28 V DC power

156
Q

What is the voltage output of the TR’s?

A

28 volts

157
Q

If the trailing edge flaps are extended by the alternate method, what flap protections are available

A

None

158
Q

What powers the trailing edge flaps down with the alternate flaps system selected?

A

An electric motor

159
Q

When is the automatic standby power feature available?

A

Always. It functions the same on the ground as in the air.

160
Q

Which of the following is not on the hot battery bus?

A

Standby Runner shut off valve

161
Q

If the system B electric pump or lines developed a leak what would the indications be?

A

The quantity indication would go to zero. But sufficient fluid would be available to operate the power transfer unit.

162
Q

If you lost all standby system hydraulic fluid, would there be a cockpit indication?

A

Yes. The standby low quantity light would be illuminated and system B reservoir would read one half and RFL

163
Q

What activates the standby hydraulic pump?

A

All of the above and activation of the FFM

164
Q

What is the power source for APU start?

A

A and B

  • AC power if available
  • Main battery only if AC not available
165
Q

Will the autobrake disarm light normally illuminate after take off with RTO selected?

A

No

166
Q

When selected, at what speed is RTO available?

A

Above 90 knots

167
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for retracting the landing gear?

A

235 knots

168
Q

When is the fuel heated?

A

The fuel is constantly heated by a fuel\oil heat exchanger

169
Q

When retracting the highlift devices using the alternate method will the LED’s return to the retracted position?

A

No

170
Q

What are the two sources of power for the ground service bus?

A

Both A and C

  • Transfer bus one
  • Ground power via the ground service switch on the F\A panel
171
Q

When are the ground service buses powered?

A

When external power is available and the ground service switch is on, or both transfer buses are powered

172
Q

When is the latest you should wait for oil pressure to be indicated?

A

By idle RPM

173
Q

The APU has an overheat warning system

A

False

174
Q

Must the battery switch be on to operate the APU?

A

Yes, on the ground and in Flight

175
Q

Can the APU be started without the battery?

A

No, the battery is required

176
Q

What actuates the thrust reversers?

A

Hydraulic pressure

177
Q

What do the start levers control?

A

Both A and C

  • fuel
  • ignition
178
Q

How long should you operate the APU before using it as a bleed air source?

A

1 minute

179
Q

The EGPWS gets position information from:

A

GPS position

180
Q

When are the aux and main batteries tied together?

A

When the batteries are the only source of power (except during APU start)

181
Q

What is the primary source for DC power?

A

Three transformer rectifiers (TRs) and a ground service TR

182
Q

What is the maximum EGT allowed during engine start?

A

Not given, but the APU start will automatically terminate in an exceedance

183
Q

What would indicate an APU hung start?

A

The start is automatically terminated

184
Q

How high may the APU be started?

A

Up to the service ceiling of the aircraft

185
Q

What is a good test indication of the TCAS?

A

A and B

  • Four traffic symbols on the NDs
  • An aural message that the test is okay

737 (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions