MQF 2023, Part 1/2 Flashcards by Joshua Koehn

1). Close air support (CAS) is air action by aircraft against hostile targets that are _____, and that require _____, of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces.

A. about to engage friendly forces / a JTAC to control
B. in range of friendly forces / coordination
C. in close proximity to friendly forces / detailed integration
D. targeting friendly forces / approval

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2). Conditions for effective close air support include:

A. Planning and integration / command and control / control of the air
B. Target marking / appropriate ordnance / environmental conditions
C. Visual friendly and tally target / timely aircraft acquisition / proper clearance
D. A&B

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3). During a control, the JTAC requires control of individual attacks but is unable to visually acquire the attacking aircraft at weapons release and/or is unable to visually acquire the target.

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. A and B

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4).
is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) determines that the desired effects can be created against that target with CAS aircraft and ordnance employing on a specified set of coordinates. The JTAC/FAC(A) does not need to delay the CAS attack in order to build CAS aircraft visual awareness to achieve target TALLY/CAPTURE.

A. Bomb on Target (BOT)
B. Bomb on Coordinates (BOC)
C. Bomb on Sensor (BOS)
D. AorB.

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5). FW PGM delivery run will typically begin _______from the target.

A. From the overhead
B. 1-5 KM
C. 5-15 NM
D. 8-10 NM

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6). For ROTARY WING aircraft: High operating altitudes are:

A. Above 5,000 ft. AGL
B. Above 3,000 ft. AGL
C. C. 500 TO 3,000 ft. AGL
D. D. Below 500 ft. AGL

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7). The three methods of integrating SOF Gunship with FW are:

A. Wheel, Dive Through, Echelon Attack
B. Wheel, IP-Target Run In, Opposite Sector
C. Dive, Dive Toss, Loft, Level, Pop-up
D. All the above

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8). Specific tasks for unmanned aircraft include:

A. Target acquisition and marking, terminal guidance of ordnance, delivery of onboard precision
guidedordnance
B. BDA, signal intelligence, communication and data relay
C. Air warden, stack management, briefing capabilities
D. A&B

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9). What coordinated attack type has the same avenue of attack:

A. Combined
B. Sectored
C. Sequential
D. Altitude

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10). _____ provides 2 of Air Force air and space operations and coordinates with other opponents and services. It allocates resources and tasks forces through ATOs.

A. Air Operations Center (AOC)
B. Air Support Operations Center (ASOC)
C. The Wing’s Operations Center (WOC)
D. Joint Special Operations Air Component (JSOAC)

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11). A _____ is a team provided by the JFSOCC that is attached to the JFACC to coordinate, deconflict, and integrate special operations air and surface operations with conventional air operations. The _____ is the focal point in the JAOC for all air support requests for SOF, to include CAS.

A. SOCCE
B. SOLE
C. JACE
D. D. JTAC

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12). The primary objective of _____ is to allow friendly aircraft to operate in airspace defended by an enemy air defense system, including the target area and ingress/egress routes. _____ missions
guarantee aircraft immunity from enemy air defenses.

A. High-Density Airspace Control Zone (HIDACZ)
B. Minimum Risk Routes (MRR)
C. Tactical Engagement Zones (TEZ)
D. Suppression of Enemy Air Defense (SEAD)

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13). A No-Fire Area (NFA), is a land area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited. Name one of two exceptions where it IS authorized.

A. It is authorized at any time during the mission.
B. When an enemy force within the NFA engages a friendly force and the engaged commander determines there is a requirement for immediate protection and responds with the minimal force needed to defend theforce.
C. If mission supports TST or HVT operations.
D. When the mission is in support of a Special Operations Team (SOT).

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14). _____ is an appropriate separation technique when aircraft and firing units engage targets along the GTL or aircraft must cross the GTL.

A. Lateral
B. Altitude
C. Altitude and lateral
D. Time

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15). Who establishes Informal ACAs?

A. The JTAC establishes informal ACAs at any given time during the mission.
B. The Joint Force Air Component Commander establishes informal ACAs.
C. The airspace control authority establishes informal ACAs at the request of the Fire Support Officer.
D. Informal ACAs can be established using separation plans and may be established by any supported
commander.

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16). What are the two types of CAS request?

A. Scheduled / On-Call
B. Immediate / Preplanned
C. CAS / ISR
D. Armed / RECCE

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17). Target Location Error (TLE) Category 1 is:

A. 0-20 feet / 0-6 meters
B. 21-50 feet / 7-15 meters
C. 51-100 feet / 16-30 meters
D. 101-300 feet / 31-91 meters

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18). Target coordinates and associated TLE only need to be of sufficient fidelity to create the desired effects on the target. T/F

A. True
B. False

A. True

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19). General Brevity Terms: CONTINUE

A. Ordnance release is authorized during Type 3 control.
B. Full motion video signal and data operative.
C. Continue present maneuver.
D. Focus on a specific target/terrain.

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20). Marking Brevity Terms: BLIND

A. No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft, ship, or ground position.
B. No visual contact with target
C. No communication with friendlies
D. Visual contact with FRIENDLIES

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21). Laser Brevity Terms: Ten Seconds

A. Aircraft will be in approximately 10 seconds
B. Standby for LASER ON call in approximately 10 seconds.
C. Turn laser on for 10 seconds
D. Turn laser off in 10 seconds

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22). Night IR Brevity Terms: SNAKE

A. Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position.
B. Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.
C. JTAC uses pulse mode available on some IR pointers.
D. JTAC stops the beam. This can aid in verifying that the aircrew is looking at the proper IR pointer, especially if
followed with another “Sparkle” call.

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23). Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: HANDSHAKE

A. Target appears to be no longer tracked by sensor.
B. Follow indicated target.
C. Lost full motion video signal and/or data
D. Video data link established.

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24). Sensor Tasking Brevity Terms: SCAN

A. Communicates sensor posture type
B. Search sector indicated and report any CONTACTS
C. Target marked by talk-on.
D. One minute until weapons impact.

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25). DACAS Brevity Term: HOOK A. Only the lead aircraft will attack the tracked vehicle. B. Cue sensors to a described point (point of interest, mark point, digital reference point, or track number) or togain amplifying information. C. Lead and wingman concentrate on friendly position. D. Engage target with electronic warfare (EW).

26). Electronic Warfare Brevity Terms: BUZZER A. A/C makes a low altitude pass to divert enemy attention. B. Alarm warning in the cockpit of a system malfunction. C. Electronic communications jamming D. None of the above

27). CAS Mission Planning: This document may have information about the radio frequencies, code words, airspace info, routing, coordinating instructions, and Standard Conventional Loads (SCL). A. Airspace Control Plan (ACP) B. Concept of Operations (CONOP) C. Special Instructions (SPINS) D. Operations Orders (OPORD)

28). CAS Mission Planning: The CAS Planning Phase consists of five steps. During which step do CAS planners continuously monitor and track the status of fire support systems to include available air support? A. Step 1- Receipt of Mission B. Step 2 - Mission Analysis C. Step 4 – COA Analysis / War gaming D. Step 5 – Orders Production

29). The close air support execution template consist of: A. Routing / Safety of flight, A/C Check in, Situation Update B. Game plan, CAS Brief, Remarks / Restrictions, Readbacks, Correlation C. Attack, Assess, BDA, Routing / Safety of Flight D. All of the above

30). The acronym MNPOPCA is used to memorize A. Minnesota Pops California B. CAS aircraft check in C. Mission number, number / type of A/C, position and altitude, ordnance, playtime, capabilities and abort code. D. B&C

31). For CAS, if no abort code is briefed, the proper abort call is: A. ABORT, ABORT, ABORT B. STOP, STOP, STOP C. KNOCK IT OFF D. TERMINATE

32). When using an abbreviated 9 line (i.e. From the OH or Lines 1-3, N/A), the elevation transmission in Line 4 should begin with A. Feet MSL B. Numbers C. Elevation D. AandC

33. Define Time to Target (TTT). A. A time at which the aircraft bombs are to impact the target and around which supporting surface fires can be coordinated. B. Establishes a precise number of minutes and seconds that elapse between an established time hack and ordnance effect. C. Establishes a precise number of seconds that munitions will take to hit target after aircraft release. D. Establishes a precise number of minutes and seconds that takes aircraft to get to target.

34). What is the difference between Army Attack Aviation Procedures and a RW CAS 5-Line Brief? A. No difference B. Non- standard Remarks/ Restrictions C. Type of Control, MOA, Ordnance Requested D. CCA does not support SEAD missions

35). Term used by a JTAC / FAC (A) during Type 1 and 2 control, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft attacking a specific target(s). A. Cleared Hot B. Cleared to Engage C. Continue Dry D. Cleared to Release

36). This model of AGM-114 Hellfire is a multipurpose, programmable fuse, integrated blast fragmenting steel case warhead with an internal tungsten sleeve with a height-of-burst assembly; designed for structures, vehicles, and personnel. A. N/N-5 B. M C. R9E D. K

37). Rik Estimate Distances (RED): A. Allows JTAC to estimate potential danger to friendly troops for the CAS attack during training. B. Allows the supported commander to estimate the potential danger to friendly troops from the CAS attack. C. Allows pilot to estimate potential danger to friendly troops from the CAS attack during t. D. Allows pilot and JTAC to estimate potential danger to friendly troops from the CAS attack.

38). JFIRE Minimum Safe Distances (MSDs) establish how close ground parties can be to the point of desired impact and account for gross miss distances due to a fin failure or other guidance issues. T/F 9 A. True B. False

B. False

39). is caused by the laser spot either being too large or only partially placed on the target. Any laser energy traveling beyond the target may be reflected back to the weapon and cause erroneous guidance. A. Beam divergence B. Target reflection C. Scattered reflection D. Spill over

40). What is the size of the safety zone for laser operations? A. 10 degree cone B. 20 degree cone C. 30 degree cone D. 60 degree cone

41). The _____ is an overt, aircraft delivered, parachute flare with an approximate burn time of 4 minutes. The _____ is the near infrared model and has an approximate burn time of 7 minutes. A. LUU-12 / LUU-21 B. LUU-1 / LUU-11 C. LUU-2 / LUU-19 D. LUU-3 / LUU-18

42). What capabilities does a FAC(A) bring to an operational area? A. Terminal Attack Control (Type 1,2 and 3), Radio Relay and SEAD B. Reconnaissance, Call for Fire and Coordinate Generation C. Asset coordination/Deconfliction/Target Marking and BDA D. All the above

43). The JFO should be on the TAD monitoring all communication between the JTAC and aircraft. T/F A. True B. False

A. True

44). How many elements does the Artillery/Mortar call for fire have and in how many transmissions is it delivered? A. 6/3 B. 3/6 C. 3/3 D. 6/6

45). What is the Danger Close distance for the 5” 54 NSFS? A. 300 meters B. 500 meters C. 600 meters D. 750 meters

D. 750 meters

46. When the technique of "From your Tally" is used for Line 6, at a minimum during read backs air crews are required to read back elevation and coordinates corresponding to the picture in their sensor. T/F A. True B. False

A. True

47). The _____ is a Service member, who, most often from a forward position, directs the action of combat aircraft engaged in CAS and other air operations and provides the ground commander recommendations on the use of CAS and its integration with ground maneuver. A. Joint Terminal Attack Controller (JTAC) B. Forward Observer (FO) C. Joint Forward Observer (JFO) D. Forward Air Controller (FAC)

A. Joint Terminal Attack Controller (JTAC)

48). _____ in the CAS employment process are responsible for the effective and safe planning and execution of CAS. A. GFC and JTACs B. GFC and pilots C. JTACs and pilots D. All participants

D. All participants.

49). During a _____ control, the JTAC/FAC(A) must visually acquire attacking aircraft and the target for each attack. A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. A and B

A. Type 1

50). Self-derived targeting via FLIR, advanced targeting pod, radar, or visually, assumes that the JTAC/FAC(A)s intended target or aim-point is CAPTURED/TALLY/ CONTACT by the aircrew. This refers to which Method of Attack? A. Bomb on Target (BOT) B. Bomb on Coordinates (BOC) C. Bomb on Marks (BOM) D. A and B.

A. Bomb on Target (BOT)

51). _____ altitude tactics are flown above approximately 8,000 ft AGL. A. HIGH B. MEDIUM / HIGH C. LOW D. LOW / VERY LOW

B. MEDIUM / HIGH

52). For ROTARY WING aircraft: MEDIUM operating altitudes are: A. Above 5,000 ft. AGL B. Above 3,000 ft. AGL C. 500 TO 3,000 ft. AGL D. Below 500 ft. AGL

C. 500 to 3,000 ft. AGL

53). When adjusting fire during an AC-130 control, adjust from A. Nose of aircraft using clock position B. Friendly position using clock position C. Impact by giving cardinal direction (North, South, East, West) and range (meters) from impact to the desired target. D. Aircraft location by giving range (meters) and cardinal direction (North, South, East, West)

C. Impact by giving cardinal direction (North, South, East, West) and range (meters) from impact to the desired target.

54). Routing, controlling, and deconfliction of unmanned aircraft is different to methods used for fixed-winged and rotary-winged manned aircraft, with exceptions made for their unmanned nature (e.g., inability to see and avoid other air traffic). T/F A. True B. False

B. False

55). What Coordinated Attack type has acknowledged sectors? A. Combined B. Sectored C. Sequential D. Random

B. Sectored

56). is an Army liaison provided by the Army component or force commander to the COMAFFOR for duties with the AOC or to the JFACC for duties in the JAOC based on the scenario. A. Army Aviation Liaison (AAL) B. Fire Support Officer (FSO) C. Ground Liaison Officer (GLO) D. Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD)

D. Battlefield Coordination Detachment (BCD)

57). A performs C2 or liaison functions according to mission requirements and is directed by the JFSOCC. Its level of authority and responsibility may vary widely. It is the C2 focal point for CAS requests for SOF units in support of a conventional joint or Service force. A. SOLE B. JIPTL C. SOCCE D. JIPOE

C. SOCCE

58). Coordinated Fire Line (CFL). A. A line beyond which conventional, surface-to-surface direct fire and IDF support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination. B. A line that separates boundaries of adjacent units AOR. C. A line which conventional forces must coordinate with HQs to fire. D. A line beyond which conventional, indirect, surface fire support means may create effects at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ with additional coordination.

A. A line beyond which conventional, surface-to-surface direct fire and IDF support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ without additional coordination.

59). _____ separation is an appropriate technique when aircrew and firing units engage the same or nearby targets, when IDF is providing SEAD in conjunction with the aircraft attack, or when the target is being marked by IDF. A. Lateral B. Altitude C. Altitude and lateral D. Time

D. Time

60). The ACA is the primary FSCM that reflects the coordination of airspace for use by air support and indirect joint fires. T/F A. TRUE B. FALSE

A. True

61). What is a Coordinating Level? A. A direct control method to separate FW and RW aircraft by determining an altitude above which FW aircraft normally will not fly and below which RW aircraft will not normally fly. B. An ACM used to separate FW and RW aircraft by determining an altitude below which FW aircraft normally will not fly. C. An altitude that aircraft must coordinate requests before flying in. D. An altitude which RW aircraft are not allowed.

B. An ACM used to separate FW and RW aircraft by determining an altitude below which FW aircraft normally will not fly.

62). Preplanned Joint Tactical Air Strike Requests are: A. Requests that are approved by ASOC and BCD B. Requests that are approved from JSOAC and include SOF aircraft C. Requests that arise from situations that develop outside the planning stages of the joint air tasking cycle. D. Those CAS requirements foreseen early enough to be included in the first ATO distribution are submitted as preplanned air support requests for CAS.

D. Those CAS requirements foreseen early enough to be included in the first ATO distribution are submitted as preplanned air support requests for CAS.

63). Target Location Error (TLE) Category 2 is: A. 0-20 feet / 0-6 meters B. 21-50 feet / 7-15 meters C. 51-100 feet / 16-30 meters D. 101-300 feet / 31-91 meters

B. 21-50 feet / 7-15 meters

64). Target coordinate mensuration occurs at the _____ level. A. Strategic (national agency) B. Tactical C. Operational (theater HQ and components) D. All of the above

D. All of the above

65). General Brevity Terms: BASE [+/- number] A. Proceed to this location B. Proceed to this IP C. Return to base in +/- minutes D. Reference number used to indicate such numbers as headings, altitudes, fuels, etc.

D. Reference number used to indicate such numbers as headings, altitudes, fuels, etc.

66). Marking Brevity Terms: VISUAL A. No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft/ground position. B. Sighting of FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position, or ship. C. Acknowledges the sighting of a specified reference point (either visual or via sensor). Aircrew does not have visual contact with target D. Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

B. Sighting of FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position, or ship.

67). Laser Brevity Terms: LASER ON A. Preparatory command before turning on laser B. Aircraft turning on their laser C. 10 seconds for laser designation D. Directive call to start lasing

D. Directive call to start lasing

68). Night IR Brevity Term: PULSE A. Call made by exception for the JTAC to jiggle the IR beam on the target. B. Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position. C. Illuminate/illuminating a position with flashing IR energy. D. Acknowledging the sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

C. Illuminate/illuminating a position with flashing IR energy.

69). Video Downlink (VDL) Brevity Terms: HOLLOW A. Lost video data link, or any data link message not received. B. Full motion video signal and data operative. C. Target appears to be no longer tracked by sensor. D. Follow indicated target.

A. Lost video data link, or any data link message not received.

70). Sensor Tasking Brevity Terms: POPEYE A. Flying in clouds or area of reduced visibility B. Communicates sensor posture type (offensive) C. Communicates sensor posture type (defensive) D. None of the above

A. Flying in clouds or area of reduced visibility

71). DACAS Brevity Terms: TIMBER A. A pattern the A/C will fly to gain a better DACAS signal. B. A call from the JTAC to direct the pilot’s eyes to a specific location. C. The Link 16 Network. D. A data-link directive call to shut down the system.

C. The Link 16 Network.

72). Electronic Warfare Brevity Terms: POND A. Establish a 5 NM orbit over a specified location. B. Carry out the jamming plan indicated or in accordance with previous orders. C. Directive term for a second party to overlay an IR mark on an existing mark. D. Call acknowledging the sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor

B. Carry out the jamming plan indicated or in accordance with previous orders.

73). CAS Mission planning: is a scheme developed to accomplish a mission. It constitutes a broad potential solution to an identified problem. Once selected, the statement clearly portrays how the unit will accomplish the mission. A. Course of Action B. INSUM Report C. SIGACT D. OPORD

A. Course of Action

74). The _____ is one of the most overlooked aspects of maneuver and fire support planning. It provides attendees the opportunity to visualize the battle, ensure total comprehension of the plan, promote responsiveness, and identify areas of confusion, friction or conflict that may have been overlooked. A. OPLAN B. Rehearsal C. CONOP D. FRAGO

B. Rehearsal

75). Authentication should be used to determine if a station on the net is friendly, if not using secure communications. T/F A. True B. False

A. True

76). The acronym TTFACOR used for situation updates means: A. Threat, targets, friendly forces, artillery, clearance authority, ordnance, and remarks and restrictions. B. Threats, time on target, FAC(A), artillery, control, ordnance, and remarks C. Threats, enemy situation, friendly situation, artillery, control, hazards, remarks and restrictions. D. None of the above

A. Threat, targets, friendly forces, artillery, clearance authority, ordnance, and remarks and restrictions.

77). The Game Plan, at a minimum will contain: A. Type of Control, Method of Attack, Ordnance, Interval B. Type of Control, Method of Attack, GFC initials C. Type of Control, Method of Attack D. Type of Control, Method of Attack, Attack Template

C. Type of Control, Method of Attack

78). The JTAC selects an IP based on what? A. Friendly location, Aircraft capabilities, Enemy capabilities, weather, Target orientation, and FSCMs requirements. B. Aircraft capabilities, FAH, LTL, distance in nautical miles C. Commanders intent D. A and C

A. Friendly location, Aircraft capabilities, Enemy capabilities, weather, Target orientation, and FSCMs requirements.

79). The authority and responsibility for the expenditure of any ordnance on the battlefield rests with the A. Pilot B. Supported Commander C. JTAC D. CJSOTF

B. Supported Commander

80). Battle Damage Assessment (BDA) reports should include: A. Size and Activity B. Location and Time C. Remarks D. All of the above

D. All of the above

81). Term used by a JTAC/FAC(A) during Type 3 control, granting weapons release clearance to an aircraft or flight attacking a target or targets. A. Continue Dry B. Cleared Hot C. Cleared to Release D. Cleared to Engage

D. Cleared to Engage

82). Which mode of the AGM-65 is laser guided? A. A B. E/L C. F/W D. K

B. E/L

83). Ordnance delivery inside the 0.1% PI distance will be considered: A. TIC B. DANGEROUS C. DANGER CLOSE D. CLOSE

C. DANGER CLOSE

84). What is DANGER CLOSE (0.1% PI) for the GBU-12? A. 310 meters B. 205 meters C. 270 meters D. 350 meters

C. 270 meters

85). LASER SAFETY: What is the safety zone? A. A 45-degree cone whose apex is at the target and extends 10 degrees either side of the target-to- designator line, and extends from the surface to infinity. B. A 20-degree wedge whose apex is at the target and extends 10 degrees either side of the target- to- designator line, and extends from the surface to infinity. C. A 120 degree cone whose apex is at the target and extends 60 degrees either side of the target-to- laser designator line, and extends from the surface to infinity. D. A 60 degree cone whose apex is at the target and extends 60 degrees either side of the target-to- laser designator line, and extends from the surface to infinity.

B. A 20-degree wedge whose apex is at the target and extends 10 degrees either side of the target- to- designator line, and extends from the surface to infinity.

86). Infrared (IR) pointers or laser sources SHOULD be used as the sole source for target marking or verification. A. True B. False

B. False

87). Urban temperatures are generally higher than rural areas and can be 10-20 degrees higher than the surrounding environment. This thermal heating can: A. Adversely affect thermal sights and IR sensors. B. Make target acquisition difficult for aircrew. C. Both A & B D. None of the above

C. Both A & B

88). When operating without a JTAC on the scene, it is NOT important for the FAC(A) to maintain communications with the GFC. T/F A. True B. False

B. False

89). What are some advantages to having a JFO assigned to your mission? A. Can provide target refinement B. Mark the target C. Provide BDA D. All of the above

D. All of the above

90). There are six elements in the call for fire: (1) the observer identification, (2)warning order, (3)target location, (4) ? (5) ? (6) ? A. target description, method of engagement and time of flight B. time of flight, maximum ordnance and adjust fire C. target description, method of engagement and method of fire and control D. target sizing, fusing and polar plot

C. (4) target description, (5) method of engagement and (6) method of fire and control

91). The creeping method of adjustment (no adjustment greater than meters for mortars / artillery and no adjustments greater thanmeters for naval surface fires will be used exclusively during danger close missions. A. 100 / 200 meters B. 200 / 400 meters C. 500 / 1000 meters D. 200 / 100 meters

A. 100 / 200 meters

92). Link 16 and SADL messages allow transfer of information between potentially large numbers of data link participants. T/F A. True B. False

A. True

93) A certified Service member who requests, controls and adjusts surface-to-surface fires, provides targeting information in support of CAS, and performs terminal guidance operations. A. JTAC B. FAC(A) C. JFO D. RTO

C. JFO

94) A _____ is a one flight by one aircraft. A. Flight B. Sortie C. Section D. Division

B. Sortie

95) This control is used when the JTAC requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement, subject to specific attack restrictions. A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. A and B

C. Type 3

96) The optimum method of attack is chosen based on which method allows the quickest target engagement and is dependent on the target type, how the target will be acquired, and the situation. T/F. A. True B. False

A. True

97) Advantages of medium-/high altitude tactics include: A. Lower fuel consumption and increased time on station. B. Enemy acquisition systems can detect the attack force at long range, allowing preparation of air defenses. C. Improved LGB self-lasing options and targeting pod capture capability D. Both A & C

D. Both A & C

98) RW CAS attack tactics include: A. Popping, level, toss, and dive toss. B. Hovering fire, running fire, and diving fire. C. Forward firing, off axis firing, small arms engagements D. Wheel orbit, Figure 8, and Racetrack

B. Hovering fire, running fire, and diving fire.

99) To get the AC-130 to fire closer than DANGER CLOSE distances, the ground commander must accept responsibility. _____ (with commander’s initials) must be stated on line five of the AC-130 Call for Fire. A. All on my Position B. Cleared Hot C. Adjust Danger Close (with commander’s initials) must be stated on line five of the AC- 130 Call for D. Cleared Danger Close

D. Cleared Danger Close

100) Which unmanned aircraft system has an operating altitude of 2000-25000 feet MSL, can operate up to 40 hours, has video down link in the C and Ku band, and carries AGM 114s. A. MQ-9 B. MQ-27B C. MQ-1C D. MQ-4C

C. MQ-1C