MQF Flashcards

1
Q

To override the #2 or #3 hydraulic aux pumps for an auto shutdown due to low quantity or overheating, ___.

A

Press and hold the appropriate Aux pump switch for 5 seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When the APU alert start feature is used, there will be no ___ until the Battery Bus is powered.

A

Fire detection or protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Battery Direct Bus, the Battery Bus, the AC and DC Emergency Buses, and the AC and DC Transfer Buses compromise the ___.

A

emergency power system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

To preclude damage to the landing gear, accomplish no more than ___ consecutive landings without a cooling period. A cooling period consists of, flying with the gear retracted for at least 20 minutes or with the gear extended for at least 10 minutes before the next landing.

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

To determine an individual aircraft’s maximum payload ___.

A

Subtract Operating Weight from Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Following an intentional cabin depressurization above 10,000 feet, the cabin must be depressurized to less than ___ feet to reset the regulators. If the regulators are not reset, subsequent flights above 9,000 feet cabin altitude may deploy the passenger oxygen masks.

A

3,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Below ___ feet cabin altitude, each emergency oxygen regulator SURGE MODE lever/three-position toggle switch must be positioned to MAN ON/ MANUAL ON position to ensure regulated oxygen is provided to passengers.

A

12,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The Passenger oxygen masks can be manually deployed at any altitude with the -1 emergency oxygen regulator by positioning the SURGE MODE lever to the MAN ON position, rotating the loaded surge knob ___, and holding momentarily (appropriately ___ seconds) to open the passenger oxygen containers and start the flow of oxygen.

A

Clockwise;
6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If either the pilot’s or loadmaster’s FED ARM switch is in ARM, all four FEDS hatches can be deployed from either the ___ initiator handles.

A

maintenance/ ditching hatch or the forward loadmaster station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Portable hand fire extinguishers are provided in the following areas; ___ in the Cockpit, ___ in the Crew rest area, and ___ in the cargo compartment

A

2;
1;
6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The EEBD is a ___-minute self-contained, disposable breathing unit. There are ___ installed on the aircraft.

A

15;
6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If the aircraft is powered by batteries alone and the pilot’s CNC indicates OFF, radio communication is possible using the ___ radio with the VHF/UHF Backup Contol panel.

A

COM 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During AE missions, the loadmaster advises the medical crew director that seat belts are required ___.

A

immediately prior to takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The purge valve on the Legacy flight crew quick-don mask should be in the ___ position except during preflight and when oxygen is in use

A

OPEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During in-flight operation of the troop doors, deploy the air deflector between ___ and ___ degrees before opening the first door.

A

10;
15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When on/offloading vehicles, do not deflate vehicles’ pneumatic tires ___.

A

below the tires rated inflation pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Equipment mounted on a single axle loaded with its tongue resting on the aircraft floor or ramp ___.

A

will be drained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When the vehicle is parked on the cargo floor and parking brakes are inoperative, ___.

A

install a minimum of two chains and two tiedown devices, one forward and one aft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When loading pallets with a bare tine forklift, one set of inner roller channels may be removed from the ramp toes if the pallet weight does not exceed ___ pounds.

A

8,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Except where prohibited by specific procedures, open circuit breakers ___ in the event that the electrical condition was transient in nature.

A

may be reset once

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The signal for preparing for ditching or crash landing is

A

6 short rings of the alarm bell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If both left and right side FEDS Shielded Mild Detonating Cord (SMDC) lines are inoperative (AA-EM w/o TCTO 1549), limit persons on board to a maximum of ___ when mission segments involve overwater flight.

A

92

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

All odors not identifiable by the flight crew shall be considered toxic. Refer immediately to ___.

A

Fire and Smoke, Smoke, Fire, or Fumes procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When ditching is imminent, as a minimum, the loadmaster will provide ___.

A

a flashlight and first aid kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If a fire is being fed by an oxygen system, the system should be turned off with the ___ until the fire is suppressed.

A

Manual shutoff valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The selective freefall of any landing gear can be accomplished by activating the release handles only for those gear that is not extended. When lowering both main gears on one side, lower ____.

A

The forward gear first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The maximum vertical height of a load to be jettisoned is ___ inches measured from the ___ of the pallet/ platform.

A

118; top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

During cargo jettison, ensure all selected lock annunciators are ___ before stating “LOCKS RELEASED”.

A

blank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

During a ditching, do not activate ___ prior to the aircraft coming to a rest as life rafts may be lost.

A

FEDS hatches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The maximum cargo weight that can be loaded left or right of the aircraft center line is ___ pounds, provided all aircraft limitations are complied with.

A

93,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Do not use ___ cargo compartment lighting in flight. PA system speakers/volume will be deactivated during any condition that activates the cargo compartment lights because of sidewall oxygen system deployment. The speakers/volume must be manually reactivated to make PA announcements.

A

SECURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When ambient temperatures are at or below -9C (15F), the AUX pumps may not initially generate full pressure. If system pressure does not rise to at least 3500 psi within 30 seconds of selecting the pump to AUTO, select the pump to off, wait 30 seconds and proceed as follows. 1. Select the AUX pump to AUTO for 30 seconds, then off for 30 seconds. 2. Repeat ___ or until system pressure indicates at least 3500 psi.

A

for a maximum of 10 cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If a centerline seat assembly cannot be secured with ___ serviceable floor attachment fittings that seat module shall not be installed.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If nonstandard cargo/ equipment is presented for airlift and an air transportability certification from AFLSMS/EZFC (ATTLA) does not accompany the load, these items ___.

A

may be loaded provided they do not exceed the limitations/ procedures in the -9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than ___ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartments D, F, and G.

A

22,001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vehicle single axle weights equal to or greater than ___ pounds must be loaded within 8 inches of the aircraft centerline in compartment E.

A

27,001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The maximum vehicle weight of a tracked vehicle with articulated suspension loaded in E compartment is ___.

A

130,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tracked vehicles with articulated suspension and with wheel weights exceeding ___ lbs (average) must be loaded within 8 inches of aircraft centerline.

A

5,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tunner loader furnished bridge plates shall not be used when loading/offloading rolling stock from a K-loader with the ramp toes installed.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Hazardous cargo considered jettisonable ___ be positioned forward of non-jettisonable cargo, except when it’s size, weight, and location will permit jettison by hand.

A

Shall not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

___ highlight essential operating procedure, practice, condition or statement, etc. which if not strictly observed could result in damage to, or destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness.

A

Cautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When cargo projects aft of the end of the logistics rails (FS ____), ensure the ramp toes do not contact the cargo while being raised to the vertical position.

A

1390

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When pedestal shoring is used under the Ramp Ground Support Pad for special loads, the shoring shall be a minimum of ___ inches long and ____ inches wide.

A

18/30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The aft end of the ramp toes shall not be supported when In the ___ position.

A

Low

45
Q

When winching a vehicle with pneumatic tires up the cargo ramp at a 15 degree angle, a single line winching configuration has a limit of ___ pounds.

A

20,000

46
Q

When winching and the direction of pull is changed, the sheave ___.

A

Must be manually realigned to the new direction

47
Q

In flight, the ramp toes will be ___.

A

Stowed on the cargo door or installed and raised to the up (vertical over center) position

48
Q

Palletized seat assemblies may be loaded in the logistic rails when transported as cargo. Passengers will not occupy palletized seats in the logistic rails.

A

TRUE

49
Q

On aeromedical evacuation missions with litter or ambulatory patients, the ramp is restricted ___.

A

To two pallets in the ADS rails or centerline floor loaded items

50
Q

Pallets or pallet trains up to ____ pounds per pallet may be loaded into the logistics rails/lock systems provided at least one lock left and one right are engaged in each pallet

A

10,355

51
Q

The ramp loadable height capability varies between ____ at the ramp hinge to ____ inches at the end of the ramp.

A

156, 116

52
Q

Spotters are required to observe clearances and to prevent contact with the wing box structure when loading cargo higher than ____ inches forward of FS ____.

A

148; 937

53
Q

When loading ISU containers that are 90 inches or higher into the logistic rails on the aircraft ramp, ___.

A

Ramp toes with rollers and guide rails shall be installed

54
Q

The primary method of loading pallets into the ADS and logistic rail system is using the ramp toes.

A

True

55
Q

If ___ are not used, Ramírez 40K and Emerson 25K-loaders must be backed-in when preparing to load/unload cargo into the logistic rail system.

A

Ramp toes

56
Q

Required restraint for cargo on the pallet/ pallet train shall be provided using nets, tie down straps, or chains. When supplemental restraint is required, additional tie downs may be attached to the pallet or cargo floor.

A

True

57
Q

Straps and chains shall not be mixed or restrain cargo in the same direction. However, 10,000 and 25,000 pound rated devices with the appropriate chains may be used for a given direction of restraint.

A

True

58
Q

Netted two pallet trains that exceed ___ shall be restrained to the cargo floor.

A

20,710 pounds

59
Q

Pallets or pallet trains up to 7,800 pounds may be loaded into the ADS rail/lock system when ___.

A

At least one lock left and one right are engaged in each pallet

60
Q

Ensure the cargo is restrained for ___ prior to raising and closing the ramp when cargo is positioned on the ramp for flight.

A

Forward and aft directions

61
Q

When properly installed on a single pallet, the nets provide all the necessary restraint for cargo loads up to ___ pounds when the height of stacked cargo does not exceed 96 inches.

A

10,000

62
Q

The maximum wheel load on each ramp toes in the low position is ___ pounds.

A

5,000

63
Q

The maximum pallet/platform weight on two ramp toes is ___ pounds except for 18-foot type VI platforms which may be increased to 14,500 pounds.

A

10,355

64
Q

The maximum single axle load on the toes in low position is ___ pounds.

A

10,355

65
Q

Vehicles with transmissions that are not equipped with a neutral position shall be loaded/ offloaded using the cargo winch.

A

False

66
Q

Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked to 96 inches shall not exceed ___ pounds.

A

26,000

67
Q

Two or three pallet train weight for cargo secured with nets and stacked above 96 inches (not to exceed 100 inches) shall not exceed ___ pounds.

A

21,000

68
Q

All vehicles winching must be closely monitored by a crew of at least ___ personnel.

A

3

69
Q

When low profile cargo does not permit the use of side nets, the top net may be used by itself provided the cargo weight does not exceed ___ pounds and cargo height does not exceed ___ inches from the pallet surface.

A

2,500; 45

70
Q

When plywood barriers and chain bridles are installed for forward restraint on palletized cargo, pallets that exceed ___ inches in height will have a minimum of ___ bridle(s) installed and the minimum thickness for the barrier will be ___ inches.

A

30; 2; 3/4

71
Q

If ___ stowage pins are not engaged on ___ side of each toe stowed on the cargo door, that toe may come loose during flight.

A

Lower; both left and right

72
Q

If not carefully monitored, MHE may contact the aircraft ___ while positioning pallets/ platforms for loading into the logistic rail system.

A

Strakes

73
Q

To maintain continuous cable tension, while winching, it may be necessary to physically ____ the vehicle/ item aft when traversing the main floor/ramp hinge while loadmaster gradually unwinds the cable.

A

Push

74
Q

Empty 463L pallets may be stacked for airlift up to a maximum of ___ pallets, excluding the base support.

A

20

75
Q

During palletized cargo loading (non-winching), the minimum distance between the aircraft ramp/toes and k-loader is ___ inches.

A

4

76
Q

Damage may occur if cargo tie down that spans from the main floor to the ramp is not ___ or sufficiently slackened.

A

Removed

77
Q

The minimum thickness of rolling shoring shall be ___ inch(es).

A

1/2

78
Q

With the ramp toes in the high position, the required overlap between the ramp toe contact pads and the floor of the loader is ___ inches.

A

11

79
Q

In the high position the ramp toes should be at an angle which causes the aft end of the toe to be above coplanar position with the ramp floor.

A

False

80
Q

Each tie down ring can accommodate up to ___ CGU-1/B tie down straps for any directional pull calculations.

A

Five

81
Q

When attaching multiple devices to one tie down ring, the ring ___.

A

Cannot be used for both forward and aft restraint

82
Q

Assure that a minimum of ___ turns of strap is wound around ratchet spool to prevent slippage of 5k pounds capacity strap.

A

1 1/2

83
Q

To ensure good CRM when there is a multiple loadmaster requirement, the ___ loadmaster assumes overall responsibility for the completion of all checklists.

A

Primary

84
Q

___ or ___ will be worn at all times while crewmembers are operating at their primary duty station.

A

Headset; helmets

85
Q

Due to mission requirements, and at the discretion of the PIC, loadmasters may occupy a seat on the flight deck or in the cargo compartment.

A

True

86
Q

Use of non-mission-related material is prohibited by any crew member during any critical phase of the flight. After completion of the ___ checklist, the PIC may authorize the use of other media if deemed appropriate.

A

Cruise

87
Q

C-17 missions can release up to ___ seats for passengers with checked bags without a baggage pallet/position.

A

20

88
Q

ERO: Do not on-load or offload through the crew entrance door and the cargo ramp/door at the same time unless both doors are directly supervised by a/an ___.

A

C-17A qualified pilot/loadmaster

89
Q

Emergency airlift of personnel: for planning purposes, an estimate of ___ personnel can be seated on the main floor and ___ on the ramp. The number of personnel varies depending on their size, the amount of baggage/equipment carried, and the number of tiedown straps onboard the aircraft.

A

300, 50

90
Q

The maximum altitude for emergency airlift of personnel will not exceed flight level ___.

A

250

91
Q

The ___ is the on-scene expert for load planning and accepting cargo for airlift.

A

Loadmaster

92
Q

The following smoke detectors are required for home station/main operating base departures: One AV, all 4 IRU, ___ plus two others in the cargo compartment.

A

CAR 9,10,13,14

93
Q

Other than refueling/defueling with P-4, loading/downloading flares, or servicing LOX, simultaneous servicing of fuel while loading passengers/patients, cargo (including hazardous or explosive), performing maintenance, aircrew members performing inspections or operating aircraft systems is considered normal fuel servicing operations.

A

True

94
Q

Maintenance personnel or a crew member should be used to act as “ground” during engine starts. The engines may be started without someone outside the aircraft. If this option is used, ensure all crew members are thoroughly briefed.

A

True

95
Q

The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew (including basic +1) is ___ hours, (___) hours when the autopilot and/or autothrottles are inoperative).

A

16/12

96
Q

maximum CDT is ___ hours for a basic aircrew.

A

18 hrs

97
Q

Maximum CDT for an augmented aircrew is ___ hrs

A

24+45

98
Q

____ is the waiver authority for all missions )in regard to Minimum Equipment List).

A

The WG/CC or equivalent, delegable no lower than OG/CC.

99
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within ___ of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___.

A

25 ft; 10 ft

100
Q

Personnel performing duties, requiring them to be mobile in the cargo compartment during an airdrop, low-level operations, or threat environments will wear ___.

A

Protective headgear

101
Q

instructors will receive credit for the courses they teach

A

true

102
Q

instructors are responsible to provide students with ___.

A

thorough preflight briefing, post-flight briefings and critiques

103
Q

should the judgment or proficiency of the trainee raise a question in the instructor’s mind as to the trainee’s ability to safely execute the duties of the aircrew position at any time during the flight, the instructor will immediately ___.

A

takeover the duties

104
Q

An aircrew member is unqualified upon expiration of ___.

A
  • Qualification evaluation
  • loss of currency exceeding 6 months
  • completion of qualification evaluation in a different MDS
  • all the above ***
105
Q

Individuals who complete the applicable instructor course are qualified instructors ___.

A

for all mission qualification events in which they maintain currency

106
Q

Instructors will review each trainee’s TMS training record ___.

A

Prior to performing each training flight or session

107
Q

When performing crewmembers duties, the following personnel will be under direct supervision of an instructor of like specialty:

A
  • non-current crewmembers
  • crewmembers in initial, upgrade, or re-qualification flying training unless the syllabus states direct supervision is not required.
  • any other personnel designated by the wing, OG, or SQ/CC
  • all the above****
108
Q

Instructors shall be current and qualified in any event they instruct

A

True