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15W > MQ-1C > Flashcards

MQ-1C Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum ramp weight for the 2.0L?

A

3600 lbs

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2
Q

What is the maximum landing weight for the 2.0L

A

3200 lbs

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3
Q

What is the maximum towing weight for the 2.0L

A

3600 lbs

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4
Q

What is the maximum inboard weapons pylon weight

A

500 lbs

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5
Q

What is the maximum outboard weapons pylon weight

A

250 lbs

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6
Q

What is the maximum weight of the forward fuel tank can hold with a 2.0L configuration?

A

393.3

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7
Q

What is the maximum weight of fuel the aft tank can hold with a 2.0L configuration

A

196.7 lbs

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8
Q

What is the maximum fuel weight for the 2.0L Configuration

A

590 lbs

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9
Q

What does the acronym LAR stand for

A

Launch Acceptability Region

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10
Q

Do not autonomously engage or remotely disengage for moving targets if payload depression angle is estimated to exceed(. ) degrees anytime during the engagement

A

55 degrees

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11
Q

How long is the track suspend interval at missile launch

A

5 sec

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12
Q

All personnel must remain clear of aircraft with hung ordinates for (. ) after last attempt to fire a missile?

A

1 hr

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13
Q

True or False? If the AGN-114 Missile does not fire on the second pass, per the CL, you can make a third attempt to fire the hellfire missile

A

False

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14
Q

How long should you allow the hellfire missile seeker gimbals to spin down prior to powering the missile seeker again

A

30 sec

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15
Q

True or False? Missiles can be launched even if the target is out of WFP.

A

True

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16
Q

What is danger close range for an AGM 114 R, and 114 R2?

A

130 m, 150 m w height above burst.

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17
Q

What is the Normal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) for naked eye exposure for the LRD?

A

39 km

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18
Q

What is the Normal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) for naked eye exposure for the LTM?

A

300 meters

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19
Q

Which type of Missile has a fragmentation sleeve?

A

P-4A, R

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20
Q

Which missile utilizes a thermal baric blast upon detonation?

A

N-4

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21
Q

Which modes creates a graphic around the aircraft to dictate recommended missile capability?

A

Weapons foot print (WFP)

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22
Q

What does (LOAL) stand for?

A

Lock On After Launch

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23
Q

Which mode creates a graphic around the target to dictate recommended missile capability?

A

Launch Acceptability Region (LAR)

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24
Q

What does TTR stand for?

A

Time To Release

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25
Q

What does TOF stand for?

A

Time Of Flight

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26
Q

What does RTT stand for?

A

Range To Target

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27
Q

What weapon station is the left inboard weapons station?

A

2

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28
Q

The weapons status mode displays status according to color of the “ARMED” text, what does red represent?

A

System is Armed

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29
Q

What is the max outboard pylon weight?

A

250 lbs

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30
Q

What is the max inboard pylon weight?

A

500 lbs

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31
Q

What indication is presented on the HUD when outside the WFP?

A

Green text

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32
Q

What indication is present on the HUD when inside the WFP?

A

Blue text

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33
Q

According to the -10 what does IR stand for?

A

Infrared

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34
Q

What does EO stand for?

A

Electro-optical

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35
Q

What does R9 data consist of?

A

Azimuth, elevation, range

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36
Q

True or False? The hellfire missile is a laser guided munition. It requires a coded laser beam to be placed on the target?

A

True

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37
Q

What are the five basic sections or major sub components of the hellfire missile?

A

Laser seeker, guidance, warhead, propulsion, and control.

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38
Q

Prior to take-off the CE must set the Weaponds System Override Switch to (. ) in Oder for missile to be fired.

A

Flight

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39
Q

The missiles status message “Hung” indicates what?

A

Missile has completed the release sequence but has not released from the aircraft.

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40
Q

The missile status display must report what in oder to fire the hellfire?

A

Ready

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41
Q

The term CCM refers to.

A

Counter Counter Measures

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42
Q

In the (. ) position, the laser could be armed and fired when more than 40 knots of airspeed is obtained.

A

Flight

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43
Q

How long can equipment sustain moderate sand storm and severe dust storm.

A

90 min/ 6 hrs

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44
Q

True or false? The Common Sensor Payload (CSP) must be manually bore sighted from the ground during engine run-up to ensure that the laser will work effectively during airborne operations.

A

False

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45
Q

When engaging a target what two locations should you know?

A

Friendly location and target location.

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46
Q

The Laser Spot Tracker (LST) will scan for and track a specified laser code. When commanded, the LST scan the current(. ) sensor LOS without moving the gimbal in an attempt to acquire and track the specified laser code.

A

EO/IR

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47
Q

True or False? In the message area of the HUD there is an abbreviation, WFP in blue writing. This means that the target is outside the WFP.

A

False

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48
Q

What are the altitude restrictions for the WFP to be green?

A

5,000-25,000 ft Height Above Target (HAT)

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49
Q

Fog, haze , rain, snow, smoke, or dust in the laser to-target LOS are known as what?

A

Obscurants

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50
Q

(…) is when the seeker is looking for scattered laser energy; it must be able to”see” the reflecting surface. When the surface that the laser is designated on is blocking the reflection this is know as what?

A

Podium effect

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51
Q

The further the laser designator is from the target, the wider the spot becomes on the target (less energy return)

A

Beam divergence

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52
Q

The Counter Counter Measures(CCM) default settings is always set to “on” when the missiles are loaded on the MQ-1C.

A

False

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53
Q

What does SMS link stand for?

A

Store Management System Link

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54
Q

Which laser class is exempt from control measures and is considered incapable of producing damaging radiation levels during operations?

A

Class 1

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55
Q

Which laser class is considered harmless because it only emits in the visible spectrum and causes the human aversion response (Blinking).

A

Class 2

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56
Q

Which class of laser maybe hazardous for direct or speculate reflection but is not a fire hazard?

A

Class 3

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57
Q

Which class of lasers is a hazard to both eye and skin, maybe a fire hazard and maybe a source of laser generated air contaminants?

A

Class 4

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58
Q

What are three categories of laser exposure?

A

Intrabeam viewing

Specular reflection

Diffused reflection

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59
Q

What category of laser exposure is the most hazardous and occurs when the laser is directly viewed by the source?

A

Intrabeam viewing

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60
Q

What category of laser exposure occurs when the laser is directed at a reflective object and the beam is viewed directly?

A

Specular reflection

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61
Q

What category of laser exposure is the least hazardous, occurs when the laser is directed at a rough surface and scatter back into the eye?

A

Diffused reflection

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62
Q

What can cause the laser energy concentration to become more dangerous and Increase up to a million times?

A

Magnifying optics

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63
Q

What is the definition of NOHD(Non Ocular Hazard Distance)

A

The minimum safe direct viewing distance without the use of magnifying optics.

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64
Q

What is the definition of MPE (Maximum Permissable Exposure)?

A

The maximum time one could be exposed to laser radiation without hazardous effects to the eye or skin.

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65
Q

If the laser energy and the sighting mechanism of the designator are not matched up it will result in what?

A

Bore Sight Error

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66
Q

What class of laser is the LRD

A

Class 4

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67
Q

Do not autonomously engage or remotely disengage for stationary targets if payload depression angle is estimated to exceed(…)degrees anytime during the engagement.

A

70 degrees

68
Q

DIDEA stands for what?

A

Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage, Assess

69
Q

Tables V and VI must be completed within how many days of completing tables I?

A

180 days

70
Q

Max engagement time is(…)seconds. An additional(…) seconds added for each additional missile fired. Time can be stopped by announcing (…).

A

150 sec, 50 sec, Repositioning

71
Q

Laser must be steady on target for the last (…) seconds of missile flight?

A

10 sec

72
Q

In-line shot is considered (…)degrees to(…) degrees.

A

0 to +/- 10 degrees

73
Q

Off-set shots is considered (…) degrees to (…) degrees

A

+/- 11 degrees to +/- 175 degrees

74
Q

(…) initials is necessary for a missile fired Danger Close.

A

Ground Commanders

75
Q

ROC-V is part of which gunnery table?

A

Table 1

76
Q

What is the MOHD for the Laser Designator when using magnifying optics?

A

82km

77
Q

What class of laser is the Laser Target Marker (LTM)?

A

Class 4

78
Q

What class of Laser are the GDT fiber optic cables?

A

Class 3B

79
Q

True or False? During a misfire, the status text will display a red box with misfire in white letters, and the missile graphic will have a red X through it.

A

True

80
Q

The House Mouse Training Missile is also known as the?

A

M36P

81
Q

What are the 3 lock on after launch (LOAL) modes that can be selected?

A

Direct (D), Low (L), and High (H).

82
Q

When using LAR for engagements, what does a gray line indicate?

A

Gray line indicates that the aircraft is outside of the altitude constraints of the missile (5k-25k ft).

83
Q

True or False? WFP and LAR size and shape depend on aircraft altitude and system limitations?

A

True

84
Q

What are seven possible missile icon indications?

A
  1. Blue Outline - missile is present but not verified.
  2. Green Outline - missile is ready and the system is not armed.
  3. Yellow Outline - missile is in a degraded status.
  4. Red Outline - missile fails BIT.
  5. Solid Green - missile is ready and System is armed.
  6. Solid Yellow - missile is running BIT.
  7. Solid Red - missile fails to fire or fatal error has occurred.
    (8. No icon present - no Missile loaded)
85
Q

True or False? Due to the low probability of a hit, operators should not engage moving target while operating from SATCOM data link.

A

True, Due to the time delay associated with the SATCOM link

86
Q

What are the four forms of reconnaissance operations?

A

Route
Zone
Area
Aerial??? Inforce?!

87
Q

What’s does MIJI stand for?

A

Michaning
Interference
Jamming
Intrusion

88
Q

How to solve for fuel burn in a trip

How to sol for play time

A

D/GS=Tx60 BRhrs/60=Fuel min

TxF=Fuel burn

89
Q

What are three forms of security operations

A 
-Area security
  •Screen
  •Guard
  •Cover
-Route security
-Convoy security
90
Q

What are two types of screen missions?

A

STATIONARY: is a screen for a stationary force when the main body commander is preparing for future TACOP’s

MOVING SCREEN: when the main body is moving, the ARC co ducts a moving screen and determines the technique of screening based on METTTC.

91
Q

JTAC, FAC (A) uses (…) types of control to provide terminal attack.

A

3
TYPE 1: must visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack

TYPE 2: JTAC is unable to visually acquire the the attacking aircraft at weapons release.
•JTAC is unable to visually acquire the target.
•The attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/ prior to weapons

TYPE 3: The attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the marked/target prior to weapons release
•JTAC is un able to visually acquire the target
•The attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release

92
Q

If there is no abort code the operator will state (…) during check-in.

A

Request abort In the clear

93
Q

When requesting 9 Line, what lines are mandatory read back lines?

A

4,6 and restrictions

94
Q

Max head wind (METS)

A

26 kts

95
Q

Max crosswind (METS)

A

22 kts

96
Q

Max tailwind

A

8 kts

97
Q

Max gust spread

A

10 kts

98
Q

Max taxi

A

Head win is 36 kts

You speed is 20 Kts

99
Q

Max ramp weight (2.0L)?

A

3600 lbs

100
Q

Max gross takeoff (2.0L)?

A

3600 lbs

101
Q

Max landing

A

3200 lbs

102
Q

Max fuel

A

350 lbs

103
Q

Never exceed speeds (VNE)

A

130 KIAS/ 180 KTAS

104
Q

Maneuvering speed (VA)

A

130 KIAS

105
Q

Landing gear extended speed (VLE)

A

130 KIAS/ 180 KTAS

106
Q

Landing gear operating speed (VLO)

A

105 KIAS

107
Q

Max taxi speed (straight)

A

20 kts

108
Q

Max taxi speed (turning)

A

5 kts

109
Q

Service ceiling max

A

25,000ft MSL

110
Q

Engine idle rpm

A

1400-1600 rpm

111
Q

Engine speed or operating range

A

1400-4149 rpm

112
Q

Engine rpm transient

A

4150-4499 rpm 2 min transient

113
Q

EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) Normal

A

100-899 *C

114
Q

EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) Transient

A

900-924 *C up to 2 min

115
Q

Oil temperature Normal

A

50-137*C

116
Q

Oil temperature Transient

A

138-140*C up to 10 sec

117
Q

Oil pressure (1000-2300 RPM) Normal

A

23-87psi

118
Q

Oil pressure (1000-2300 RPM) Transient

A

88-93psi for 5 sec

119
Q

Oil pressure (>2300 RPM) Normal

A

42-87psi

120
Q

Oil pressure (>2300 RPM) Transient

A

88-93 psi up to 5 sec

121
Q

Manifold air pressure Normal

A

20-72 in Hg (green) 72-74 in Hg (yellow)

122
Q

Manifold air pressure Transient

A

74-81 in Hg up to 10 sec

123
Q

Standing water

A

Taxi, takeoff, or landing(never)

124
Q

Rain

A

Light rain falling at 1/2 in per hour

125
Q

Icing

A

Light icing for up to 1 hr with EEDS in auto

126
Q

COA

A

Certificate of authorization

127
Q

What is the commanders evaluation for, and what does it consist of?

A

TC 1-696, para 2-8; Commanders evaluation determines the RL level, it consist of a records review and possibly a Proficiency Flight Evaluation.

128
Q

What are the phases of lost link? Explain what happens at each one.

A

Initial entry phase: determines if it is at lost link altitude, set weapons and lasers to safe, and set fuel management and de-ice to auto.

Loiter climb phase: set its self for best rate of climb, and climbs for 30 min or until lost link altitude is reached. If not reached after 30 min makes its way to contingency while on a climb.

Contingency phase: heads to contingency waypoints and continues to the last 6 waypoints set.

129
Q

Fundamentals of security

A 
Cover
Local 
Area 
Guard 
Screen
130
Q

ATLS Mission Waypoints

A 
Standard entry waypoint
Base point
IAF
FAF
Flare point 
Touchdown point
Alignment point
Rollout point
Go-Around point
131
Q

9 Line CAS

A 
1- Initial point/Battle point
2- Heading
3- Distance
4- Target Elevation
5- Target Description
6- Target Location 
7- Type of Mark
8- Location of Friendlies
9- Egress
132
Q

LTL

A

Laser Target Line

133
Q

PTL

A

Point Target Line

134
Q

SEAD

A

Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses

135
Q

ACA

A

Airspace Coordination Areas

136
Q

GTL

A

Gun Target Line

137
Q

TOT

A

Time On Target

138
Q

TTT

A

Time To Target

139
Q

BOC

A

Bomb On Coordinate

140
Q

BOT

A

Bomb On Target

141
Q

JTAC

A

Joint Terminal Attack Controller

142
Q

MOA

A

Method Of Attack

143
Q

What are the 3 classifications of un manned aircraft weight and balance?

A

1a,1b,2

144
Q

When should DD Dorm 365-4 be checked for accuracy? Reviewed?

A

90 days/ 2 years

145
Q

Aircraft will not be flown above a cloud or fog layer under VFR for more than how many minutes?

A

30

146
Q

What will happen if ATP requirements are not met after the extension and a waiver is not approved?

A

Reclass

147
Q

What happens when ATP requirements are not met?

A 
Commanders evaluation
Reclass or extension
148
Q

What are the four hands on performance test?

A

SFE- standardized flight evaluation
PFE- proficiency “. “
MFE- medical “. “
Post Misshap

149
Q

Who can grant a waiver for your ATP requirements?

A

Commander O6 & above

150
Q

What DA PAM do you use for procedures for investigating and reporting UAS mishaps?

A

385-40

151
Q

What is the minimum feet in AGL when operating above a noise sensitive area?

A

2,000ft

152
Q

Types or reports?

A

MIJI: Mechaning,intrution,jamming,interference
CBRNE: Chemical,biological,radiological,nuclear,explosive
SALUTE: size,activity,location,uniforme,time,equipment
(SALT)
BDA: Battle,damage,assessment

153
Q

What is DA Form 175

A

Military Flight Plan

154
Q

DA Form 1594

A

Daily Staff Journal or Duty Officers Log

155
Q

Fuse delay times

A 
10 mil sec
3.5 mil sec
6.9 mil sec
0 mil
HAB
156
Q

Optimal distance for strike posture and for rifling

A

Strike between 8-6k

Rifle between 6-5k

157
Q

If GPS fails, what else gives us approximate direction/location?

A

Inertial Navigation System (INS)

158
Q

How much time must you wait before flying after donating plasma? How much for blood?

A

24 hrs

72Hrs

159
Q

Types of Drag?

A
  1. Parasitic. (SWIFPI)
  2. Form
  3. Interference
  4. Skin friction
  5. Wave
  6. Induced
  7. Parasitic drag: Parasite drag is comprised of all the forces that work to slow an aircraft’s movement. As the term parasite implies, it is the drag that is not associated with the production of lift.
  8. Form drag: Form drag is the portion of parasite drag generated by the aircraft due to its shape and airflow around it. Examples include the engine cowlings, antennas, and the aerodynamic shape of other components.
  9. Interference drag: Interference drag comes from the intersection of airstreams that creates eddy currents, turbulence, or restricts smooth airflow.
  10. Skin friction: Skin friction drag is the aerodynamic resistance due to the contact of moving air with the surface of an aircraft.
  11. Wave drag: wave drag is a component of the aerodynamic drag on aircraft wings and fuselage, propeller blade tips and projectiles moving at transonic and supersonic speeds, due to the presence of shock waves.
  12. Induced drag: The second basic type of drag is induced drag. It is an established physical fact that no system that does work in the mechanical sense can be 100 percent efficient. This means that whatever the nature of the system, the required work is obtained at the expense of certain additional work that is dissipated or lost in the system. The more efficient the system, the smaller this loss.
160
Q

What is Yaw?

A

(of a moving ship or aircraft) twist or oscillate about a vertical axis.

161
Q

What is roll?

A

move or cause to move in a particular direction by turning over and over on an axis

162
Q

What is lift?

A

is the force that directly opposes the weight of an airplane and holds the airplane in the air.

163
Q

Auto track modes

A 
Auto
Feature
Point
Mtt
Area
164
Q

PMD

TIRES

BATTERY

A
  1. 1 week/ last flight
  2. 6 hrs
  3. 12 hrs
165
Q

Laser tachometers

A

Accurate within 7 inch
Good below 1 ft
Lasers active between after final but before flare

15W (16 decks)

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