MQ-1C Flashcards
(165 cards)
1
Q
What is the maximum ramp weight for the 2.0L?
A
3600 lbs
2
Q
What is the maximum landing weight for the 2.0L
A
3200 lbs
3
Q
What is the maximum towing weight for the 2.0L
A
3600 lbs
4
Q
What is the maximum inboard weapons pylon weight
A
500 lbs
5
Q
What is the maximum outboard weapons pylon weight
A
250 lbs
6
Q
What is the maximum weight of the forward fuel tank can hold with a 2.0L configuration?
A
393.3
7
Q
What is the maximum weight of fuel the aft tank can hold with a 2.0L configuration
A
196.7 lbs
8
Q
What is the maximum fuel weight for the 2.0L Configuration
A
590 lbs
9
Q
What does the acronym LAR stand for
A
Launch Acceptability Region
10
Q
Do not autonomously engage or remotely disengage for moving targets if payload depression angle is estimated to exceed(. ) degrees anytime during the engagement
A
55 degrees
11
Q
How long is the track suspend interval at missile launch
A
5 sec
12
Q
All personnel must remain clear of aircraft with hung ordinates for (. ) after last attempt to fire a missile?
A
1 hr
13
Q
True or False? If the AGN-114 Missile does not fire on the second pass, per the CL, you can make a third attempt to fire the hellfire missile
A
False
14
Q
How long should you allow the hellfire missile seeker gimbals to spin down prior to powering the missile seeker again
A
30 sec
15
Q
True or False? Missiles can be launched even if the target is out of WFP.
A
True
16
Q
What is danger close range for an AGM 114 R, and 114 R2?
A
130 m, 150 m w height above burst.
17
Q
What is the Normal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) for naked eye exposure for the LRD?
A
39 km
18
Q
What is the Normal Ocular Hazard Distance (NOHD) for naked eye exposure for the LTM?
A
300 meters
19
Q
Which type of Missile has a fragmentation sleeve?
A
P-4A, R
20
Q
Which missile utilizes a thermal baric blast upon detonation?
A
N-4
21
Q
Which modes creates a graphic around the aircraft to dictate recommended missile capability?
A
Weapons foot print (WFP)
22
Q
What does (LOAL) stand for?
A
Lock On After Launch
23
Q
Which mode creates a graphic around the target to dictate recommended missile capability?
A
Launch Acceptability Region (LAR)
24
Q
What does TTR stand for?
A
Time To Release
25
What does TOF stand for?
Time Of Flight
26
What does RTT stand for?
Range To Target
27
What weapon station is the left inboard weapons station?
2
28
The weapons status mode displays status according to color of the “ARMED” text, what does red represent?
System is Armed
29
What is the max outboard pylon weight?
250 lbs
30
What is the max inboard pylon weight?
500 lbs
31
What indication is presented on the HUD when outside the WFP?
Green text
32
What indication is present on the HUD when inside the WFP?
Blue text
33
According to the -10 what does IR stand for?
Infrared
34
What does EO stand for?
Electro-optical
35
What does R9 data consist of?
Azimuth, elevation, range
36
True or False? The hellfire missile is a laser guided munition. It requires a coded laser beam to be placed on the target?
True
37
What are the five basic sections or major sub components of the hellfire missile?
Laser seeker, guidance, warhead, propulsion, and control.
38
Prior to take-off the CE must set the Weaponds System Override Switch to (. ) in Oder for missile to be fired.
Flight
39
The missiles status message "Hung" indicates what?
Missile has completed the release sequence but has not released from the aircraft.
40
The missile status display must report what in oder to fire the hellfire?
Ready
41
The term CCM refers to.
Counter Counter Measures
42
In the (. ) position, the laser could be armed and fired when more than 40 knots of airspeed is obtained.
Flight
43
How long can equipment sustain moderate sand storm and severe dust storm.
90 min/ 6 hrs
44
True or false? The Common Sensor Payload (CSP) must be manually bore sighted from the ground during engine run-up to ensure that the laser will work effectively during airborne operations.
False
45
When engaging a target what two locations should you know?
Friendly location and target location.
46
The Laser Spot Tracker (LST) will scan for and track a specified laser code. When commanded, the LST scan the current(. ) sensor LOS without moving the gimbal in an attempt to acquire and track the specified laser code.
EO/IR
47
True or False? In the message area of the HUD there is an abbreviation, WFP in blue writing. This means that the target is outside the WFP.
False
48
What are the altitude restrictions for the WFP to be green?
5,000-25,000 ft Height Above Target (HAT)
49
Fog, haze , rain, snow, smoke, or dust in the laser to-target LOS are known as what?
Obscurants
50
(...) is when the seeker is looking for scattered laser energy; it must be able to"see" the reflecting surface. When the surface that the laser is designated on is blocking the reflection this is know as what?
Podium effect
51
The further the laser designator is from the target, the wider the spot becomes on the target (less energy return)
Beam divergence
52
The Counter Counter Measures(CCM) default settings is always set to "on" when the missiles are loaded on the MQ-1C.
False
53
What does SMS link stand for?
Store Management System Link
54
Which laser class is exempt from control measures and is considered incapable of producing damaging radiation levels during operations?
Class 1
55
Which laser class is considered harmless because it only emits in the visible spectrum and causes the human aversion response (Blinking).
Class 2
56
Which class of laser maybe hazardous for direct or speculate reflection but is not a fire hazard?
Class 3
57
Which class of lasers is a hazard to both eye and skin, maybe a fire hazard and maybe a source of laser generated air contaminants?
Class 4
58
What are three categories of laser exposure?
Intrabeam viewing
Specular reflection
Diffused reflection
59
What category of laser exposure is the most hazardous and occurs when the laser is directly viewed by the source?
Intrabeam viewing
60
What category of laser exposure occurs when the laser is directed at a reflective object and the beam is viewed directly?
Specular reflection
61
What category of laser exposure is the least hazardous, occurs when the laser is directed at a rough surface and scatter back into the eye?
Diffused reflection
62
What can cause the laser energy concentration to become more dangerous and Increase up to a million times?
Magnifying optics
63
What is the definition of NOHD(Non Ocular Hazard Distance)
The minimum safe direct viewing distance without the use of magnifying optics.
64
What is the definition of MPE (Maximum Permissable Exposure)?
The maximum time one could be exposed to laser radiation without hazardous effects to the eye or skin.
65
If the laser energy and the sighting mechanism of the designator are not matched up it will result in what?
Bore Sight Error
66
What class of laser is the LRD
Class 4
67
Do not autonomously engage or remotely disengage for stationary targets if payload depression angle is estimated to exceed(...)degrees anytime during the engagement.
70 degrees
68
DIDEA stands for what?
Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage, Assess
69
Tables V and VI must be completed within how many days of completing tables I?
180 days
70
Max engagement time is(...)seconds. An additional(...) seconds added for each additional missile fired. Time can be stopped by announcing (...).
150 sec, 50 sec, Repositioning
71
Laser must be steady on target for the last (...) seconds of missile flight?
10 sec
72
In-line shot is considered (...)degrees to(...) degrees.
0 to +/- 10 degrees
73
Off-set shots is considered (...) degrees to (...) degrees
+/- 11 degrees to +/- 175 degrees
74
(...) initials is necessary for a missile fired Danger Close.
Ground Commanders
75
ROC-V is part of which gunnery table?
Table 1
76
What is the MOHD for the Laser Designator when using magnifying optics?
82km
77
What class of laser is the Laser Target Marker (LTM)?
Class 4
78
What class of Laser are the GDT fiber optic cables?
Class 3B
79
True or False? During a misfire, the status text will display a red box with misfire in white letters, and the missile graphic will have a red X through it.
True
80
The House Mouse Training Missile is also known as the?
M36P
81
What are the 3 lock on after launch (LOAL) modes that can be selected?
Direct (D), Low (L), and High (H).
82
When using LAR for engagements, what does a gray line indicate?
Gray line indicates that the aircraft is outside of the altitude constraints of the missile (5k-25k ft).
83
True or False? WFP and LAR size and shape depend on aircraft altitude and system limitations?
True
84
What are seven possible missile icon indications?
1. Blue Outline - missile is present but not verified.
2. Green Outline - missile is ready and the system is not armed.
3. Yellow Outline - missile is in a degraded status.
4. Red Outline - missile fails BIT.
5. Solid Green - missile is ready and System is armed.
6. Solid Yellow - missile is running BIT.
7. Solid Red - missile fails to fire or fatal error has occurred.
(8. No icon present - no Missile loaded)
85
True or False? Due to the low probability of a hit, operators should not engage moving target while operating from SATCOM data link.
True, Due to the time delay associated with the SATCOM link
86
What are the four forms of reconnaissance operations?
Route
Zone
Area
Aerial??? Inforce?!
87
What's does MIJI stand for?
Michaning
Interference
Jamming
Intrusion
88
How to solve for fuel burn in a trip
How to sol for play time
D/GS=Tx60 BRhrs/60=Fuel min
TxF=Fuel burn
89
What are three forms of security operations
```
-Area security
•Screen
•Guard
•Cover
-Route security
-Convoy security
```
90
What are two types of screen missions?
STATIONARY: is a screen for a stationary force when the main body commander is preparing for future TACOP's
MOVING SCREEN: when the main body is moving, the ARC co ducts a moving screen and determines the technique of screening based on METTTC.
91
JTAC, FAC (A) uses (...) types of control to provide terminal attack.
3
TYPE 1: must visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack
TYPE 2: JTAC is unable to visually acquire the the attacking aircraft at weapons release.
•JTAC is unable to visually acquire the target.
•The attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/ prior to weapons
TYPE 3: The attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the marked/target prior to weapons release
•JTAC is un able to visually acquire the target
•The attacking aircraft is unable to acquire the mark/target prior to weapons release
92
If there is no abort code the operator will state (...) during check-in.
Request abort In the clear
93
When requesting 9 Line, what lines are mandatory read back lines?
4,6 and restrictions
94
Max head wind (METS)
26 kts
95
Max crosswind (METS)
22 kts
96
Max tailwind
8 kts
97
Max gust spread
10 kts
98
Max taxi
Head win is 36 kts
| You speed is 20 Kts
99
Max ramp weight (2.0L)?
3600 lbs
100
Max gross takeoff (2.0L)?
3600 lbs
101
Max landing
3200 lbs
102
Max fuel
350 lbs
103
Never exceed speeds (VNE)
130 KIAS/ 180 KTAS
104
Maneuvering speed (VA)
130 KIAS
105
Landing gear extended speed (VLE)
130 KIAS/ 180 KTAS
106
Landing gear operating speed (VLO)
105 KIAS
107
Max taxi speed (straight)
20 kts
108
Max taxi speed (turning)
5 kts
109
Service ceiling max
25,000ft MSL
110
Engine idle rpm
1400-1600 rpm
111
Engine speed or operating range
1400-4149 rpm
112
Engine rpm transient
4150-4499 rpm 2 min transient
113
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) Normal
100-899 *C
114
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) Transient
900-924 *C up to 2 min
115
Oil temperature Normal
50-137*C
116
Oil temperature Transient
138-140*C up to 10 sec
117
Oil pressure (1000-2300 RPM) Normal
23-87psi
118
Oil pressure (1000-2300 RPM) Transient
88-93psi for 5 sec
119
Oil pressure (>2300 RPM) Normal
42-87psi
120
Oil pressure (>2300 RPM) Transient
88-93 psi up to 5 sec
121
Manifold air pressure Normal
20-72 in Hg (green) 72-74 in Hg (yellow)
122
Manifold air pressure Transient
74-81 in Hg up to 10 sec
123
Standing water
Taxi, takeoff, or landing(never)
124
Rain
Light rain falling at 1/2 in per hour
125
Icing
Light icing for up to 1 hr with EEDS in auto
126
COA
Certificate of authorization
127
What is the commanders evaluation for, and what does it consist of?
TC 1-696, para 2-8; Commanders evaluation determines the RL level, it consist of a records review and possibly a Proficiency Flight Evaluation.
128
What are the phases of lost link? Explain what happens at each one.
Initial entry phase: determines if it is at lost link altitude, set weapons and lasers to safe, and set fuel management and de-ice to auto.
Loiter climb phase: set its self for best rate of climb, and climbs for 30 min or until lost link altitude is reached. If not reached after 30 min makes its way to contingency while on a climb.
Contingency phase: heads to contingency waypoints and continues to the last 6 waypoints set.
129
Fundamentals of security
```
Cover
Local
Area
Guard
Screen
```
130
ATLS Mission Waypoints
```
Standard entry waypoint
Base point
IAF
FAF
Flare point
Touchdown point
Alignment point
Rollout point
Go-Around point
```
131
9 Line CAS
```
1- Initial point/Battle point
2- Heading
3- Distance
4- Target Elevation
5- Target Description
6- Target Location
7- Type of Mark
8- Location of Friendlies
9- Egress
```
132
LTL
Laser Target Line
133
PTL
Point Target Line
134
SEAD
Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses
135
ACA
Airspace Coordination Areas
136
GTL
Gun Target Line
137
TOT
Time On Target
138
TTT
Time To Target
139
BOC
Bomb On Coordinate
140
BOT
Bomb On Target
141
JTAC
Joint Terminal Attack Controller
142
MOA
Method Of Attack
143
What are the 3 classifications of un manned aircraft weight and balance?
1a,1b,2
144
When should DD Dorm 365-4 be checked for accuracy? Reviewed?
90 days/ 2 years
145
Aircraft will not be flown above a cloud or fog layer under VFR for more than how many minutes?
30
146
What will happen if ATP requirements are not met after the extension and a waiver is not approved?
Reclass
147
What happens when ATP requirements are not met?
```
Commanders evaluation
Reclass or extension
```
148
What are the four hands on performance test?
SFE- standardized flight evaluation
PFE- proficiency ". "
MFE- medical ". "
Post Misshap
149
Who can grant a waiver for your ATP requirements?
Commander O6 & above
150
What DA PAM do you use for procedures for investigating and reporting UAS mishaps?
385-40
151
What is the minimum feet in AGL when operating above a noise sensitive area?
2,000ft
152
Types or reports?
MIJI: Mechaning,intrution,jamming,interference
CBRNE: Chemical,biological,radiological,nuclear,explosive
SALUTE: size,activity,location,uniforme,time,equipment
(SALT)
BDA: Battle,damage,assessment
153
What is DA Form 175
Military Flight Plan
154
DA Form 1594
Daily Staff Journal or Duty Officers Log
155
Fuse delay times
```
10 mil sec
3.5 mil sec
6.9 mil sec
0 mil
HAB
```
156
Optimal distance for strike posture and for rifling
Strike between 8-6k
| Rifle between 6-5k
157
If GPS fails, what else gives us approximate direction/location?
Inertial Navigation System (INS)
158
How much time must you wait before flying after donating plasma? How much for blood?
24 hrs
| 72Hrs
159
Types of Drag?
1. Parasitic. (SWIFPI)
2. Form
3. Interference
4. Skin friction
5. Wave
6. Induced
1. Parasitic drag: Parasite drag is comprised of all the forces that work to slow an aircraft’s movement. As the term parasite implies, it is the drag that is not associated with the production of lift.
2. Form drag: Form drag is the portion of parasite drag generated by the aircraft due to its shape and airflow around it. Examples include the engine cowlings, antennas, and the aerodynamic shape of other components.
3. Interference drag: Interference drag comes from the intersection of airstreams that creates eddy currents, turbulence, or restricts smooth airflow.
4. Skin friction: Skin friction drag is the aerodynamic resistance due to the contact of moving air with the surface of an aircraft.
5. Wave drag: wave drag is a component of the aerodynamic drag on aircraft wings and fuselage, propeller blade tips and projectiles moving at transonic and supersonic speeds, due to the presence of shock waves.
6. Induced drag: The second basic type of drag is induced drag. It is an established physical fact that no system that does work in the mechanical sense can be 100 percent efficient. This means that whatever the nature of the system, the required work is obtained at the expense of certain additional work that is dissipated or lost in the system. The more efficient the system, the smaller this loss.
160
What is Yaw?
(of a moving ship or aircraft) twist or oscillate about a vertical axis.
161
What is roll?
move or cause to move in a particular direction by turning over and over on an axis
162
What is lift?
is the force that directly opposes the weight of an airplane and holds the airplane in the air.
163
Auto track modes
```
Auto
Feature
Point
Mtt
Area
```
164
PMD
TIRES
BATTERY
1. 1 week/ last flight
2. 6 hrs
3. 12 hrs
165
Laser tachometers
Accurate within 7 inch
Good below 1 ft
Lasers active between after final but before flare
