MP Flashcards
What is the mechanism of action of clonidine as an anti-hypertensive agent?
a) Stimulation of beta-2 adrenoreceptors
b) Inhibition of post-synaptic alpha-1 adrenoreceptors
c) Stimulation of pre-synaptic alpha-2 adrenoreceptors
d) Inhibition of vascular voltage-sensitive calcium channels
e) Inhibition of cardiac voltage sensitive potassium channels
c) Stimulation of pre-synaptic alpha-2 adrenoreceptors
The mechanism of action of organic nitrates includes which one of the following steps?
a) Stimulation of nitric oxide metabolism
b) Inhibition of guanylate cyclase
c) Dephosphorylation of myosine light chain
d) Stimulation of cAMP synthesis
e) Inhibition of PDE4
c) Dephosphorylation of myosine light chain
Statins stimulate LDL receptor synthesis on hepatocytes by:
a) Inhibiting endogenous cholesterol synthesis
b) Stimulating HMG-coenzyme A
c) Inhibiting PPAR gamma
d) Inhibiting cholesterol absorption from the intestines
e) Stimulating cholesterol metabolism
a) Inhibiting endogenous cholesterol synthesis
Which one of the following molecules is the main target for digoxin?
a) Sodium-calcium exchange pump
b) PPAR gamma
c) Beta adrenoreceptors in the heart
d) Sodium-potassium ATPase
e) Voltage-gated calcium channels
d) Sodium-potassium ATPase
Warfarin inhibits coagulation by:
a) Inactivating prothrombin
b) Inhibiting active factor Xa
c) Inhibiting vitamin K oxidase
d) Inhibiting vitamin K reductase
e) Activating antithrombin III
d) Inhibiting vitamin K reductase
Muscarinic antagonists such as hyoscine are employed clinically in the prevention or treatment of which disorder?
a) Motion sickness
b) Asthma
c) Peptic ulcer
d) Glaucoma
e) Constipation
a) Motion sickness
Use-dependence is a typical feature of which class of anti-dysrhythmic drugs?
a) Class II
b) Class I
c) Class III
d) Class IV
b) Class I
Prazosin is an example of a:
a) Nonselective alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist
b) Selective alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonist
c) Selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor antagonist
d) Selective alpha-1 adrenoceptor agonist
e) Selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist
b) Selective alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonist
What is the mechanism of action of the Class III anti-dysrhythmic drug amiodarone?
a) Blocking potassium channels involved in repolarisation
b) Blocking sodium channels
c) Blocking beta-adrenorecepotors
d) Blocking calcium channels
e) Stimulating cAMP levels
a) Blocking potassium channels involved in repolarisation
Which drug competes with adenosine diphosphate at its platelet receptor?
a) Aspirin
b) Clopidogrel
c) Epoprostenol
d) Hirudin
e) Tirofiban
b) Clopidogrel
What is the target site for osmotic diuretics?
a) Proximal tubule
b) Distal convoluted tubule
c) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
d) Ascending loop of Henle
e) Collecting duct
a) Proximal tubule
Which one of the following drugs is a beta-1 specific adrenoreceptor antagonist? a) Propranolol
b) Domperidone
c) Clopidogrel
d) Atenolol
e) Salbutamol
d) Atenolol
Vascular L-type calcium channel blocker nifedipine may provoke tachyarrhythmias because:
a) It increases action potential generation in the SA node
b) It stimulates beta-adrenoreceptors
c) It produces vasoconstriction
d) It indirectly increases sympathetic tone
e) It directly increases sympathetic tone
d) It indirectly increases sympathetic tone
Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation are the primary effects of:
a) Prostacyclin
b) Prostaglandin E2
c) Thromboxane
d) Prostaglandin F1alpha
e) Prostaglandin F2alpha
a) Prostacyclin
Class Ib and Class Ic anti-dysrhythmic drugs differ in their”:
a) Association-dissociation kinetics
b) Molecular target
c) Pharmacokinetics
d) Side-effects
e) Toxicity
a) Association-dissociation kinetics
Which one of the following side-effects is NOT caused by beta-blockers?
a) Bradycardia
b) Night terror
c) Bronchoconstriction
d) Hypotension
e) Polyuria
e) Polyuria
The cheese reaction, which may occur in patients consuming tyramine-rich foods while taking MAO inhibitors:
a) Can evoke a life threatening hypotensive crisis
b) Is due to tyramine acting as a false substrate at MAO
c) Is due to tyramine’s indirect sympathomimetic action
d) Is due to tyramine competing with tyrosine for catecholamine synthesis
c) Is due to tyramine’s indirect sympathomimetic action
Which one of the following changes in ion homeostasis can increase digoxin toxicity?
a) Hyperkalaemia
b) Hypokalaemia
c) Hyponatraemia
d) Hypernatraemia
e) Hypochloraemia
b) Hypokalaemia
Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody to receptors for:
a) Thrombi
b) Thromboxane
c) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
d) Adenosine diphosphate
e) Von Willebrand factor
c) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
Succinylcholine is characteristically an agonist at:
a) Muscarinic M1 receptors
b) Muscarinic M2 receptors
c) Muscarinic M3 receptors
d) Nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle
e) Nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia
d) Nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle
Activation of muscarinic M2 receptors:
a) Increases calcium conductance
b) Increases potassium conductance
c) Increases cardiac rate and force
d) Causes central nervous system excitation
e) Produces vascular smooth muscle relaxation
b) Increases potassium conductance
Which ion imbalance is associated with the use of loop diuretics?
a) Hyponatraemia
b) Hypercalcaemia
c) Hypermagnesaemia
d) Hypokalaemia
e) Hyperkalaemia
d) Hypokalaemia
Myositis leading to rhabdomyolysis is a potentially severe adverse effect of:
a) Atorvastatin
b) Niacin
c) Cholesterol
d) Ezetimibe
e) Cholestyramine
a) Atorvastatin
Thiazide diuretics exert heir effect by blocking:
a) Na+/K+-ATPase
b) Vasopressin receptors
c) Na+/Cl- symporter
d) Na+/K+/Cl- co-transporter
e) Aldosterone receptors
c) Na+/Cl- symporter
Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of carbimazole?
a) Suppression of iodine uptake
b) Inhibition of the action of thyroperoxidase
c) Mimicking of the action of thyroxine
d) Mimicking of the action of liothyronine
b) Inhibition of the action of thyroperoxidase
Which one of the following drugs exerts its anti-diabetic effects through blockade of ATP-sensitive K+ channels?
a) Metformin
b) Insulin
c) Thiazolidenediones
d) Sulphanylurea drugs
e) Incretins
d) Sulphanylurea drugs
Ingestion of foods containing tyramine may lead to a hypertensive crisis in persons taking:
a) A tricyclic antidepressant
b) Mirtazapine
c) A MAO-A inhibitor
d) Lithium
e) A nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor
e) A nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor
Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy because:
a) It causes uterine contractions
b) It has teratogenic effects
c) It decreases placental perfusion
d) It is neurotoxic
e) It causes nausea during early pregnancy
a) It causes uterine contractions
When finasteride is used in treating benign prostatic hypertrophy, it acts by
a) Blocking androgen receptors
b) Inhibiting gonadotrophin secretion
c) Inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase
d) Inhibiting testosterone secretion
e) Blocking alpha-1 adrenoceptors
c) Inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase
Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that acts through:
a) Blocking dopamine receptors
b) Blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
c) Stimulating cAMP
d) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase IV
e) Stimulating dopamine receptors
a) Blocking dopamine receptors
Insulin is given as an emergency treatment in hyperkalaemia because:
a) It increased potassium excretion through the kidney
b) It antagonises the effects of potassium
c) Inhibits potassium pump
d) Facilitates transport of potassium into the cell
e) Inhibits transport of potassium into the cell
d) Facilitates transport of potassium into the cell
The opening of chloride ion channels by gamma-amino butyric acid is facilitated by
a) Tricyclic antidepressant drugs
b) Benzodiazepine drugs
c) Local anesthetics
d) Opioid analgesics
e) Central nervous system stimulants
b) Benzodiazepine drugs
Fluoxetine is believed to produce its antidepressant effect by:
a) Activating 5-hydroxytryptamine 5-HT1 receptors
b) Activating 5-hydroxytryptamine 5-HT1 receptors
c) Activating presynaptic alpha-2 adrenoceptors
d) Blocking serotonin transporters
e) Blocking noradrenaline transporters
d) Blocking serotonin transporters
Orlistat acts in part by inhibiting:
a) Leptin secretion
b) Pancreatic lipase
c) Neuropeptide Y receptors
d) Food intake
e) Storage of fat
b) Pancreatic lipase
The use of buspirone in the treatment of anxiety disorders is characterized by:
a) A rapid onset of action
b) A risk of drug dependence
c) Sedation and motor incoordination
d) A lack of withdrawal effects
e) Blockade of 5-hydroxytryptamine 5-HT1A receptors
d) A lack of withdrawal effects
Selective serotonin uptake inhibitors cause:
a) Immediate inhibition of serotonin reuptake and mood improvement
b) Delayed inhibition of serotonin reuptake and mood improvement
c) Immediate inhibition of serotonin reuptake and delayed mood improvement*
d) Immediate mood improvement and delayed inhibition of serotonin reuptake
e) Mood depression followed by mood improvement
a) Immediate inhibition of serotonin reuptake and mood improvement
Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis through
a) Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase
b) Inhibition of GSK3-beta
c) Stimulation of insulin secretion
d) Stimulation of insulin receptors
e) Activation of protein kinase A
a) Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase
The main mechanisms of action of progestin-only contraceptives include:
a) Increased release of GnRH
b) Thickening of cervical mucus
c) Increased release of LH and FSH
d) Complete inhibition of ovulation
b) Thickening of cervical mucus
Which one of the following drugs exerts its effects through the parietal cells in the stomach?
a) Misoprostol
b) Proglumide
c) Cimetidine
d) Bizmuth
e) Tetracyclines
c) Cimetidine
The antiemetic ondansetron acts through:
a) Blocking 5-HT2 receptors
b) Stimulating D2 dopamine receptors
c) Blocking muscarinic ACh receptors
d) Blocking D1 dopamine receptors
e) Blocking 5-HT3 receptors
e) Blocking 5-HT3 receptors
Sulfonylurea drugs decrease blood glucose through:
a) Stimulating glucagon-like peptide 1 secretion
b) Inhibiting dipeptidyl peptidase 4
c) Inhibiting APT-sensitive potassium channels
d) Facilitation of glucose excretion
e) Stimulation of PPAR-gamma
c) Inhibiting APT-sensitive potassium channels
Which of the following is NOT an anti-inflammatory mechanism caused by corticosteroids?
a) Reduced activation of neutrophils, macrophages and mast cells
b) Decreased transcription of genes for cell adhesion factors and cytokines
c) Decreased fibroblast function
d) Increased production of prostanoids
e) Increased synthesis of anti-inflammatory factors
d) Increased production of prostanoids
Loperamide is the preferred opioid anti-motility agent because:
a) It is more effective than morphine
b) It does not cross the blood-brain barrier
c) It does not cause constipation
d) It does not cause dizziness
e) It is equipotent to morphine
b) It does not cross the blood-brain barrier
Which one of the following drugs is a pro-drug?
a) Misoprostol
b) Cimetidine
c) Omeprazole
d) Proglumide
e) Ondansetrone
c) Omeprazole
The elimination half-life of insulin is approximately
a) 5 min
b) 30 min
c) 60 min
d) 120 min
e) 10 min
e) 10 min
