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MP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clonidine as an anti-hypertensive agent?
a) Stimulation of beta-2 adrenoreceptors
b) Inhibition of post-synaptic alpha-1 adrenoreceptors
c) Stimulation of pre-synaptic alpha-2 adrenoreceptors
d) Inhibition of vascular voltage-sensitive calcium channels
e) Inhibition of cardiac voltage sensitive potassium channels

A

c) Stimulation of pre-synaptic alpha-2 adrenoreceptors

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2
Q

The mechanism of action of organic nitrates includes which one of the following steps?
a) Stimulation of nitric oxide metabolism
b) Inhibition of guanylate cyclase
c) Dephosphorylation of myosine light chain
d) Stimulation of cAMP synthesis
e) Inhibition of PDE4

A

c) Dephosphorylation of myosine light chain

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3
Q

Statins stimulate LDL receptor synthesis on hepatocytes by:
a) Inhibiting endogenous cholesterol synthesis
b) Stimulating HMG-coenzyme A
c) Inhibiting PPAR gamma
d) Inhibiting cholesterol absorption from the intestines
e) Stimulating cholesterol metabolism

A

a) Inhibiting endogenous cholesterol synthesis

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4
Q

Which one of the following molecules is the main target for digoxin?
a) Sodium-calcium exchange pump
b) PPAR gamma
c) Beta adrenoreceptors in the heart
d) Sodium-potassium ATPase
e) Voltage-gated calcium channels

A

d) Sodium-potassium ATPase

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5
Q

Warfarin inhibits coagulation by:
a) Inactivating prothrombin
b) Inhibiting active factor Xa
c) Inhibiting vitamin K oxidase
d) Inhibiting vitamin K reductase
e) Activating antithrombin III

A

d) Inhibiting vitamin K reductase

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6
Q

Muscarinic antagonists such as hyoscine are employed clinically in the prevention or treatment of which disorder?
a) Motion sickness
b) Asthma
c) Peptic ulcer
d) Glaucoma
e) Constipation

A

a) Motion sickness

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7
Q

Use-dependence is a typical feature of which class of anti-dysrhythmic drugs?
a) Class II
b) Class I
c) Class III
d) Class IV

A

b) Class I

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8
Q

Prazosin is an example of a:
a) Nonselective alpha-adrenoceptor antagonist
b) Selective alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonist
c) Selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor antagonist
d) Selective alpha-1 adrenoceptor agonist
e) Selective alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist

A

b) Selective alpha-1 adrenoceptor antagonist

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the Class III anti-dysrhythmic drug amiodarone?
a) Blocking potassium channels involved in repolarisation
b) Blocking sodium channels
c) Blocking beta-adrenorecepotors
d) Blocking calcium channels
e) Stimulating cAMP levels

A

a) Blocking potassium channels involved in repolarisation

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10
Q

Which drug competes with adenosine diphosphate at its platelet receptor?
a) Aspirin
b) Clopidogrel
c) Epoprostenol
d) Hirudin
e) Tirofiban

A

b) Clopidogrel

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11
Q

What is the target site for osmotic diuretics?
a) Proximal tubule
b) Distal convoluted tubule
c) Juxtaglomerular apparatus
d) Ascending loop of Henle
e) Collecting duct

A

a) Proximal tubule

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12
Q

Which one of the following drugs is a beta-1 specific adrenoreceptor antagonist? a) Propranolol
b) Domperidone
c) Clopidogrel
d) Atenolol
e) Salbutamol

A

d) Atenolol

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13
Q

Vascular L-type calcium channel blocker nifedipine may provoke tachyarrhythmias because:
a) It increases action potential generation in the SA node
b) It stimulates beta-adrenoreceptors
c) It produces vasoconstriction
d) It indirectly increases sympathetic tone
e) It directly increases sympathetic tone

A

d) It indirectly increases sympathetic tone

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14
Q

Vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation are the primary effects of:
a) Prostacyclin
b) Prostaglandin E2
c) Thromboxane
d) Prostaglandin F1alpha
e) Prostaglandin F2alpha

A

a) Prostacyclin

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15
Q

Class Ib and Class Ic anti-dysrhythmic drugs differ in their”:
a) Association-dissociation kinetics
b) Molecular target
c) Pharmacokinetics
d) Side-effects
e) Toxicity

A

a) Association-dissociation kinetics

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16
Q

Which one of the following side-effects is NOT caused by beta-blockers?
a) Bradycardia
b) Night terror
c) Bronchoconstriction
d) Hypotension
e) Polyuria

A

e) Polyuria

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17
Q

The cheese reaction, which may occur in patients consuming tyramine-rich foods while taking MAO inhibitors:
a) Can evoke a life threatening hypotensive crisis
b) Is due to tyramine acting as a false substrate at MAO
c) Is due to tyramine’s indirect sympathomimetic action
d) Is due to tyramine competing with tyrosine for catecholamine synthesis

A

c) Is due to tyramine’s indirect sympathomimetic action

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18
Q

Which one of the following changes in ion homeostasis can increase digoxin toxicity?
a) Hyperkalaemia
b) Hypokalaemia
c) Hyponatraemia
d) Hypernatraemia
e) Hypochloraemia

A

b) Hypokalaemia

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19
Q

Abciximab is a monoclonal antibody to receptors for:
a) Thrombi
b) Thromboxane
c) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
d) Adenosine diphosphate
e) Von Willebrand factor

A

c) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

20
Q

Succinylcholine is characteristically an agonist at:
a) Muscarinic M1 receptors
b) Muscarinic M2 receptors
c) Muscarinic M3 receptors
d) Nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle
e) Nicotinic receptors in autonomic ganglia

A

d) Nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle

21
Q

Activation of muscarinic M2 receptors:
a) Increases calcium conductance
b) Increases potassium conductance
c) Increases cardiac rate and force
d) Causes central nervous system excitation
e) Produces vascular smooth muscle relaxation

A

b) Increases potassium conductance

22
Q

Which ion imbalance is associated with the use of loop diuretics?
a) Hyponatraemia
b) Hypercalcaemia
c) Hypermagnesaemia
d) Hypokalaemia
e) Hyperkalaemia

A

d) Hypokalaemia

23
Q

Myositis leading to rhabdomyolysis is a potentially severe adverse effect of:
a) Atorvastatin
b) Niacin
c) Cholesterol
d) Ezetimibe
e) Cholestyramine

A

a) Atorvastatin

24
Q

Thiazide diuretics exert heir effect by blocking:
a) Na+/K+-ATPase
b) Vasopressin receptors
c) Na+/Cl- symporter
d) Na+/K+/Cl- co-transporter
e) Aldosterone receptors

A

c) Na+/Cl- symporter

25
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the mechanism of carbimazole?
a) Suppression of iodine uptake
b) Inhibition of the action of thyroperoxidase
c) Mimicking of the action of thyroxine
d) Mimicking of the action of liothyronine

A

b) Inhibition of the action of thyroperoxidase

26
Q

Which one of the following drugs exerts its anti-diabetic effects through blockade of ATP-sensitive K+ channels?
a) Metformin
b) Insulin
c) Thiazolidenediones
d) Sulphanylurea drugs
e) Incretins

A

d) Sulphanylurea drugs

27
Q

Ingestion of foods containing tyramine may lead to a hypertensive crisis in persons taking:
a) A tricyclic antidepressant
b) Mirtazapine
c) A MAO-A inhibitor
d) Lithium
e) A nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor

A

e) A nonselective monoamine oxidase inhibitor

28
Q

Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy because:
a) It causes uterine contractions
b) It has teratogenic effects
c) It decreases placental perfusion
d) It is neurotoxic
e) It causes nausea during early pregnancy

A

a) It causes uterine contractions

29
Q

When finasteride is used in treating benign prostatic hypertrophy, it acts by
a) Blocking androgen receptors
b) Inhibiting gonadotrophin secretion
c) Inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase
d) Inhibiting testosterone secretion
e) Blocking alpha-1 adrenoceptors

A

c) Inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase

30
Q

Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that acts through:
a) Blocking dopamine receptors
b) Blocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
c) Stimulating cAMP
d) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase IV
e) Stimulating dopamine receptors

A

a) Blocking dopamine receptors

31
Q

Insulin is given as an emergency treatment in hyperkalaemia because:
a) It increased potassium excretion through the kidney
b) It antagonises the effects of potassium
c) Inhibits potassium pump
d) Facilitates transport of potassium into the cell
e) Inhibits transport of potassium into the cell

A

d) Facilitates transport of potassium into the cell

32
Q

The opening of chloride ion channels by gamma-amino butyric acid is facilitated by
a) Tricyclic antidepressant drugs
b) Benzodiazepine drugs
c) Local anesthetics
d) Opioid analgesics
e) Central nervous system stimulants

A

b) Benzodiazepine drugs

33
Q

Fluoxetine is believed to produce its antidepressant effect by:
a) Activating 5-hydroxytryptamine 5-HT1 receptors
b) Activating 5-hydroxytryptamine 5-HT1 receptors
c) Activating presynaptic alpha-2 adrenoceptors
d) Blocking serotonin transporters
e) Blocking noradrenaline transporters

A

d) Blocking serotonin transporters

34
Q

Orlistat acts in part by inhibiting:
a) Leptin secretion
b) Pancreatic lipase
c) Neuropeptide Y receptors
d) Food intake
e) Storage of fat

A

b) Pancreatic lipase

35
Q

The use of buspirone in the treatment of anxiety disorders is characterized by:
a) A rapid onset of action
b) A risk of drug dependence
c) Sedation and motor incoordination
d) A lack of withdrawal effects
e) Blockade of 5-hydroxytryptamine 5-HT1A receptors

A

d) A lack of withdrawal effects

36
Q

Selective serotonin uptake inhibitors cause:
a) Immediate inhibition of serotonin reuptake and mood improvement
b) Delayed inhibition of serotonin reuptake and mood improvement
c) Immediate inhibition of serotonin reuptake and delayed mood improvement*
d) Immediate mood improvement and delayed inhibition of serotonin reuptake
e) Mood depression followed by mood improvement

A

a) Immediate inhibition of serotonin reuptake and mood improvement

37
Q

Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis through
a) Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase
b) Inhibition of GSK3-beta
c) Stimulation of insulin secretion
d) Stimulation of insulin receptors
e) Activation of protein kinase A

A

a) Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase

38
Q

The main mechanisms of action of progestin-only contraceptives include:
a) Increased release of GnRH
b) Thickening of cervical mucus
c) Increased release of LH and FSH
d) Complete inhibition of ovulation

A

b) Thickening of cervical mucus

39
Q

Which one of the following drugs exerts its effects through the parietal cells in the stomach?
a) Misoprostol
b) Proglumide
c) Cimetidine
d) Bizmuth
e) Tetracyclines

A

c) Cimetidine

40
Q

The antiemetic ondansetron acts through:
a) Blocking 5-HT2 receptors
b) Stimulating D2 dopamine receptors
c) Blocking muscarinic ACh receptors
d) Blocking D1 dopamine receptors
e) Blocking 5-HT3 receptors

A

e) Blocking 5-HT3 receptors

41
Q

Sulfonylurea drugs decrease blood glucose through:
a) Stimulating glucagon-like peptide 1 secretion
b) Inhibiting dipeptidyl peptidase 4
c) Inhibiting APT-sensitive potassium channels
d) Facilitation of glucose excretion
e) Stimulation of PPAR-gamma

A

c) Inhibiting APT-sensitive potassium channels

42
Q

Which of the following is NOT an anti-inflammatory mechanism caused by corticosteroids?
a) Reduced activation of neutrophils, macrophages and mast cells
b) Decreased transcription of genes for cell adhesion factors and cytokines
c) Decreased fibroblast function
d) Increased production of prostanoids
e) Increased synthesis of anti-inflammatory factors

A

d) Increased production of prostanoids

43
Q

Loperamide is the preferred opioid anti-motility agent because:
a) It is more effective than morphine
b) It does not cross the blood-brain barrier
c) It does not cause constipation
d) It does not cause dizziness
e) It is equipotent to morphine

A

b) It does not cross the blood-brain barrier

44
Q

Which one of the following drugs is a pro-drug?
a) Misoprostol
b) Cimetidine
c) Omeprazole
d) Proglumide
e) Ondansetrone

A

c) Omeprazole

45
Q

The elimination half-life of insulin is approximately
a) 5 min
b) 30 min
c) 60 min
d) 120 min
e) 10 min

A

e) 10 min

MCQ (4 decks)

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