Most Commons Flashcards

1
Q

Most potent stimuli of pulmonary vasoconstriction

A

hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MC manifestation of R and L major fissures on CT

A

lucent band (LC dense)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MC cause of posterior tracheal stripe thickening

A

esophageal CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MC process underlying the formation of an air bronchogram

A

consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MC mechanism causing atelectasis

A

bronchial obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

MC end result of chronic bronchial obstruction

A

consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MC form of atelectasis

A

resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MC cause of obstructive pneumonitis

A

retention of normal epithelial cells secretions (distal to the point of obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MC area/location of round/helical atelectasis

A

posterior portion of the lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MC SOL within a pulmonary lobe displacing a fissure

A

pulmonary CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MC cause of pleural transgression

A

Actinomycotic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MC cause of cavity

A

tissue necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MC form cause of tubular shadows

A

bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MC manifestation of pleural thickening

A

fibrosis or neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MC associated abnormality in hypoplasia

A

decreased volume of the hemithorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

MC cause of lung hypoplasia

A

SOL in the pleural cavity 2’ to congenital diaphragmatic hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MC cause of hypoplasia involving the GUT

A

Potter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MC type of CCAM

A

Type I or cystic form (Type II in Swischuck)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MC lobe affected in congenital bronchial atresia

A

Left upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MC cause of extrinsic airway compression producing neonatal lobar hyperinflation

A

anomalous vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC abnormal origin of the lobar bronchi

A

tracheal origin of the right upper lobe bronchus (tracheal or pre-eparterial bronchus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MC extralaryngeal communication of the normal tracheobronchial tree

A

TEF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MC group of anomalous pulmonary drainage

A

supracardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MC cause of general pulmonary oligemia due to diminished blood flow

A

congenital anomaly of the RV outflow tract (eg pulmonary stenosis, TOF, PTA IV and Ebstein’s anomaly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MC life threatening infectious disease

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MC route of infection in pneumonia

A

via the tracheobronchial tree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

MC cause of abovementioned

A

aspiration/ inhalation of the microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MC cause of aspiration pneumonia

A

contaminated orophargyngeal/ gastric fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MC cause of pneumonia in adults

A

S pneumonia (2nd MC M pneumoniae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

MC cause of pneumonia in children

A

H influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC pneumonia in patients with AIDS

A

Pneumocystic carinii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

MC infectious agent in the lungs of patients with AIDS

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

MC AIDS related malignancy

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma (2nd MC NHL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

MC etiology of BPN

A

S aureus (previously S pyogenes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

MC form of S aureus pneumonia

A

acute purulent variety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MC clinical manifestation of B anthracis

A

localized cutaneous papule, ulcer or vesicle in site of initial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

MC gram negative aerobic bacteria

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MC location of Klebsiella pneumonia

A

posterior upper lobe or superior lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MC region of involvement in anaerobic bacterial pneumonia

A

posterior upper lobes and superior lower lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most important factor to determine the degree of source of infectiousness

A

cavity formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Mc form of extrapulmomary TB

A

GUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

MC cause of false positive diagnosis of malignancy in specimens obtained by TTNA

A

Tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

MC form of saprophytic aspergillosis

A

fungus ball or mycetoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MC manifestation of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

hemorrhagic infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MC form (clinical) of sporotrichosis

A

lymphocutaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MC manifestation of Nocardiosis

A

airspace pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MC cause of clinically evident nonbacterial pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

MC complication of M pneumonia

A

Steven Johnson’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

MC cause of cold agglutinin production of all respiratory diseases

A

M pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MC form of measles virus pneumonia

A

secondary bacterial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

MC cause of pleurodynia (Boerhaeve’s disease)

A

Coxsackievirus B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MC cause of “acute respiratory disease”

A

adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MC type of HSV in burn and immunocompromised patients

A

HSV I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MC type of HSV in neonates (during 2 weeks of life)

A

HSV II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

MC involved organs in SLE

A

lungs and pleura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

MC manifestation of SLE

A

pleural effusion (bilateral and small)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

MC extrapulmoary manifestation of SLE

A

arthritis and arthralgia (95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

MC thoracic manifestation of rheumatoid disease

A

pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

MC associated connective tissue disorder with Sjogren’s syndrome

A

rheumatoid disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

MC vessels in PAN

A

MC vessels in PAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

MC vessels in Takayasus

A

aorta and its branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

MC vessels in temporal arteritis

A

large vessel of head and neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

MC complication of bone marrow transplantation

A

infection 2’ to CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Most fatal malignancy in men

A

CA of the pulmonary airway and alveolar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Most important agents in the etiology of lung CA

A

smoking and asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

MC etiology of pulmonary fibrosis in CA

A

progressive systemic sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

MC epithelial pulmonary CA

A

Adeno CA (35-40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Most important roentgenographic feature that distinguishes benign from malignant nodules

A

calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

MC pleural manifestation in pulmonary CA

A

pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

MC symptom referable to the respiratory tract

A

cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

MC cardiac involvement in CA

A

pericardial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

MC polypeptide hormone produced by pulmonary neoplasms

A

calcitonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Most important factor in the prognosis of patients with pulmonary Ca

A

stage of the disease on the time of presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MC roentgenographic picture in carcinoid tumor

A

bronchial obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

MC subtype of tracheo-bronchial gland tumor

A

adenoid cystic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

MC manifestation of 1’ NHL

A

reticulonodular simulating lymphangitic carcinomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

MC intrathoracic manifestation of 2’ NHL

A

mediastinal hilar LADP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

MC roentgenographic sign of leukemia in the thorax

A

mediastinal/hilar LADP (2nd MC pleural effusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

MC ST sarcoma of the lung

A

leiomyosarcoma (2nd MC fibrosarcoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

MC neurogenic tumor in the lungs

A

NF (2nd MC schwannoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

MC in situ arterial thrombosis (cause)

A

infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

MC site of chemodectoma (paraganglioma)

A

ascending or transverse aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

MC clinically significant emboli to the lungs

A

bland thrombi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

MC underlying condition that predisposes to infarction

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

MC source of fat emboli

A

MC source of fat emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

MC antecedent of embolism

A

trauma (2nd MC external cardiac massage after accidental fractures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

MC site of air entry in systemic air embolism

A

pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

MC cause of systemic air embolism

A

penetrating thoracic trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

MC cause of multiple pulmonary thromboemboli occurring over a period of months

A

precapillary pulmonary HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

MC cause of postcapillary pulmonary HTN

A

diseases of the left side of the heart causing failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

MC cause of pulmonary aneurysm

A

congenital cardiovascular disease, infection and trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

MC location of pulmonary artery aneurysm

A

pulmonary trunk and its branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Most important cause of cardiogenic edema

A

LV decompensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

MC neurogenic edema associated with pulmonary edema

A

head trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

MC post ictal pulmonary edema

A

seizures 2’ to epilepsy and expanding SOL, IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

MC cause of acute pharyngitis and tonsillitis

A

Beta streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

MC cause of acute epiglottitis

A

H influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

MC cause of bilateral vocal cord paralysis

A

injury to the superior laryngeal nerve 2’ to thyroidectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

MC tracheal neoplasm

A

SCCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

MC substance causing airway effect in a dose dependent fashion in workers

A

cotton dust (byssinosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

MC isocyanate causing asthma

A

toluene diisocyanate (TDI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Most significant factor in the development of COPD

A

cigarette smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

MC infection causing clinical excacerbations of COPD

A

rhinovirus and myxovirus (during epidemics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

MC form of emphysema

A

centrilobular emphysema

105
Q

MC form of emphysema seen pathologically

A

irregular emphysema (irregular emphysema MC seen pathologically)

106
Q

Most dependable sign of pulmonary overinflation

A

flattening of the HD

107
Q

MC form of bulla, associated with pneumothorax

A

Type II

108
Q

MC lethal genetically transmitted abnormality in the whites

A

cystic fibrosis

109
Q

MC etiologic agent in lipid pneumonia

A

mineral oil

110
Q

MC pulmonary complication of blunt chest trauma

A

pulmonary parenchymal contusion

111
Q

MC findings in fracture of the trachea and bronchi

A

pneumothorax

112
Q

MC site of aortic rupture

A

aortic isthmus (2nd MC is avulsion of the innominate artery)

113
Q

MC cause of strangulated diaphragmatic hernia

A

trauma

114
Q

MC pulmonary complication of surgery

A

atelectasis

115
Q

MC mechanism of post op atelectasis

A

mucus plugging from retained secretions 2’ to decreased HD function

116
Q

MC roentgenographic abnormality in the post op thorax

A

pleural effusion

117
Q

MC cause of post op pneumothorax

A

lack of communication with the drainage tube

118
Q

MC NGT abnormality

A

coiling of the NGT

119
Q

MC complication of venous catheterization

A

thrombosis

120
Q

MC consequence of venous perforation

A

unilateral pneumothorax

121
Q

MC pulmonary complication in pulmonary arterial catheters

A

pulmonary artery occlusion

122
Q

MC clinical situation associated with perforation

A

cardiac surgery

123
Q

Most important factor in assessment of radiation injury of the lung

A

volume of irradiated lung

124
Q

MC serious pulmonary complication of DM

A

infection

125
Q

MC form of joint involvement in sarcoidosis

A

migratory arthralgia + erythema, LADP, fever

126
Q

MC form and manifestation of rheumatoid disease in the thorax

A

pleural effusion

127
Q

Mc cause of exudative pleural effusion

A

malignancy

128
Q

MC cause of chylothorax

A

neoplasm (lymphoma) (2nd MC trauma)

129
Q

MC lung abnormality with 1’ spontaneous pneumothorax

A

bulla

130
Q

MC pleural ST neoplasm

A

lipoma (benign tumor)

131
Q

MC 1’ mediastinal neoplasm

A

lymphoma (2nd MC thymoma)

132
Q

MC mediastinal germ vell tumor

A

teratoma (2nd MC seminoma)

133
Q

MC mesenchymal tumor of the mediastinum

A

lipoma (?)

134
Q

MC mediastinal abnormality

A

LN enlargement

135
Q

MC cause of SVC syndrome

A

malignancy

136
Q

MC lymphoma in the mediastinum

A

HL

137
Q

MC CA causing SVC syndrome

A

small cell CA

138
Q

MC benign lesion causing SVC syndrome

A

chronic sclerosing mediastinitis

139
Q

MC cause of azygos/ hemiazygos vein dilatation

A

cardiac decompensation

140
Q

MC cause of superior intercostals vein dilatation

A

cardiac decompensation

141
Q

MC acuse of unilateral diaphragmatic elevation

A

neoplastic invasion (2nd MC paralysis of unknown etiology)

142
Q

Most reliable roentgenographic maneuver to confirm HD paralysis

A

sniff test

143
Q

MC diaphragmatic herniation in the adults

A

hiatus hernia

144
Q

MC form of diaphragmatic hernia in the pediatrics

A

Bochdalek hernia

145
Q

MC 1’ neoplasm of the HD

A

fibrosarcoma

146
Q

MC cause of inferior rib notching

A

coarctation of the aorta

147
Q

MC cause of superior rib notching

A

chronic paralytic poliomyelitis (formerly); quadriplegia 2’ to cervical cord injury (at present)

148
Q

MC acquired cause of pectus carinatum

A

ASD and VSD

149
Q

MC cause of septic arthritis of the sternoclavicular and sternochondral joints

A

S aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa

150
Q

MC benign tumor of the chest wall

A

lipoma

151
Q

MC malignant neoplasm of the chest wall

A

fibrosarcoma and malignant fibrohistiocytoma

152
Q

MC lesions of the ribs

A

metastatic lesions

153
Q

MC lesions of the sternum

A

chondrosarcoma

154
Q

MC lesions of the clavicle

A

metastatic lesions

155
Q

MC non neoplastic tumor of the thoracic skeleton

A

fibrous dysplasia

156
Q

MC benign lesion of the thoracic skeleton

A

osteochondroma

157
Q

MC malignant neoplasm of the thoracic skeleton

A

chondrosarcoma

158
Q

MC rib anomaly

A

cervical ribs (rest are anterior bifurcations)

159
Q

MC accessory fissure

A

inferior accessory fissure

160
Q

MC site of anomalous supernumerary bronchus

A

R upper lobe

161
Q

MC location of ectopic thyroid

A

neck

162
Q

MC associated CHD with CPVS (scimitar syndrome)

A

ASD

163
Q

MC location of mediastinal bronchogenic cysts

A

paratracheal and carinal

164
Q

MC type opf CCAM

A

CCam Type I

165
Q

MC lobes affected by infantile lobar emphysema

A

L upper lobe and r middle lobe

166
Q

MC symptomatic vascular ring

A

double aortic arch (2nd MC right aortic arch w/ L subclavian artery)

167
Q

MC cause of bronchiolitis

A

RSV respiratory syncitial virus

168
Q

MC pathogen in the 1st 3 months

A

RSV and Chlamydia

169
Q

MC postnatal acquired infections

A

bacterial/fungal (Beta strep)

170
Q

MC prenatal infection

A

viral

171
Q

MC cause of epiglottitis

A

H influenza type B

172
Q

Mc subglottic mass in infants and young children

A

hemangioma

173
Q

MC laryngeal tumor in childhood

A

recurrent laryngeal respiratory papillomatosis (juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis)

174
Q

MC involved area of the abovementioned

A

glottis

175
Q

MC radiographic manifestation of an acutely aspirated endobronchial FB

A

air trapping

176
Q

MC tumor-like mass in 16 yo and below

A

plasma cell granuloma

177
Q

MC pulmonary blastoma in children

A

sarcoma

178
Q

MC initial radiographic manifestation of Askin tumors

A

pleural tumor or effusion

179
Q

MC cause of broncholithiasis

A

histoplasmosis

180
Q

Mc life threatening infections in AIDS

A

PCP

181
Q

MC non TB mycobacterial infection in AIDS

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAC)

182
Q

MC fungal pathogen in AIDS

A

Candida

183
Q

MC fungal pathogens causing pulmonary disease in AIDS

A

Cryptococcus, histoplasmosis and coccidiomycosis

184
Q

MC community acquired pneumonia in AIDS

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae and H influenza

185
Q

MC neoplasm in AIDS

A

kaposis sarcoma

186
Q

MC pathogen in lung transplant

A

CMV

187
Q

MC fungal disease in bone marrow aplasia

A

IPA (invasive pulmonary aspergillosis)

188
Q

MC cause of non acquired tracheal widening

A

Mounier Kuhn syndrome

189
Q

MC indication for tracheal resection and reconstruction

A

post intubation injuries

190
Q

MC tracheal filling defects

A

neoplasms

191
Q

MC occurrence of TEF in adults

A

complication of intrathoracic malignant (60%)

192
Q

MC location of congenital bronchial atresia

A

upper lobes

193
Q

Most mild form of bronchiectasis

A

cylindrical

194
Q

Most severe form of bronchiectasis

A

cystic

195
Q

MC cause of bronchiectasis

A

histoplasmosis

196
Q

MC form of emphysema

A

centrilobular

197
Q

Most important factor in the development of pneumonitis

A

aspiration

198
Q

MC cause of lipid pneumonia

A

mineral oil for constipation in adults

199
Q

MC cause of lipid pneumonia in pedia

A

cod liver oil aspiration

200
Q

MC cause of hemodynamic pulmonary edema

A

L heart failure

201
Q

MC form of pulmonary edema (hemodynamic)

A

elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure

202
Q

MC sources of pulmonary emboli

A

DVT in LE

203
Q

MC lobe affected in pulmonary infarction

A

lower lobes

204
Q

MC affected areas in aspiration pneumonia

A

R mid to lower lobes

205
Q

MC pulmonary viral infection in the immunocompromised

A

CMV

206
Q

MC site of abscess formation

A

posterior segment of the upper lobe (R>L) (2nd MC is superior segment of the lower lobe)

207
Q

MC malignant lung tumor based on cell type

A

adeno CA

208
Q

MC cell type in women and smokers

A

adeno CA

209
Q

MC type of lung CA causing hypercalcemia as paraneoplastic syndrome

A

small cell CA (SCCA?)

210
Q

MC cause of Pancoast syndrome

A

SCCA

211
Q

MC cause of SVC syndrome

A

small cell CA

212
Q

MC cause of Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH

A

small cell CA

213
Q

MC single radiographic sign of bronchogenic CA

A

atelectasis

214
Q

MC form of mets in bronchogenic CA

A

lymphangitic mets

215
Q

MC CT finding in the lung

A

areas/masses of consolidation/nodules

216
Q

MC benign lung tumor

A

hamartoma

217
Q

MC finding in SLE (pulmonary/thoracic)

A

pleural effusion

218
Q

MC thoracic finding in RA

A

pleuritis

219
Q

MC pulmonary change

A

interstitial pneumonia

220
Q

MC 2’ finding infection in pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A

Nocardia

221
Q

MC associated stricture in tracheal/bronchial injury

A

aorta

222
Q

MC radiographic finding in tracheobronchial injury

A

SQ and mediastinal emphjysema

223
Q

MC injured heart chamber

A

RV

224
Q

MC cause of lung opacification on ICU CXR

A

atelectasis

225
Q

MC location of a malpositioned CVP catheter (central venous catheter)

A

internal jugular vein

226
Q

MC misplacement of NGT

A

incomplete insertion and tube coiling

227
Q

MC reason for pneumonectomy in the US

A

non small cell ca

228
Q

MC indication for bilateral lung transplantation

A

cystic fibrosis

229
Q

MC performed thoracic surgical procedure in the US

A

coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

230
Q

MC cause of acute mediastinitis

A

esophageal rupture and post op infection 2’ to median sternotomy

231
Q

MC plain radiographic picture of mediastinal hemorrhage

A

mediastinal widening

232
Q

MC germ cell tumor in the mediastinum

A

tertomas (2nd MC seminoma)

233
Q

MC primary malignant germ cell tumor

A

seminoma

234
Q

MC non seminomatous germ cell tumor

A

teratoma

235
Q

MC anterior primary mediastinal tumor

A

thymic hyperplasia

236
Q

MC primary neoplasm of the anterior mediastinum

A

thymoma

237
Q

MC type of infrathoracic foregut cyst

A

bronchogenic cyst

238
Q

MC location of pericardial cysts

A

anterior CP angle

239
Q

MC neurogenic tumors

A

neurilemomma (schwanomma) (2nd MC neurofibroma)

240
Q

MC mediastinal tumor <5 yo

A

neuroblastoma

241
Q

MC cell type in esophageal CA (excluding the GE junction)

A

squamous cell CA

242
Q

MC clinical manifestation of pleural disease

A

pleural effusion

243
Q

MC causes of bronchopleural fistula

A

necrotizing pulmonary infections and surgical lung resections

244
Q

MC cause of chylothorax

A

neoplasm (75% 2’ to lymphoma)

245
Q

MC form of trauma causing chylothorax

A

cardiac surgery

246
Q

MC benign pleural neoplasm

A

lipoma (2nd MC pleural fibrosarcoma)

247
Q

MC form of pleural metastases

A

pleural effusion

248
Q

MC acuse of pleural malignancy

A

bronchogenic CA

249
Q

MC neoplasm to arise in the ST of the chest wall

A

breast CA

250
Q

MC cause of rib destruction 2’ to chest wall masses arising within a rib

A

metastases or myeloma

251
Q

MC cause of destructive rib masses in children

A

Ewings sarcoma and metastatic neuroblastoma

252
Q

MC cause of Pancoast tumor

A

lung CA

253
Q

MC disturbance of the diaphragm

A

singultus (hiccups)

254
Q

MC benign tumor of the diaphragm

A

lipoma

255
Q

MC malignant tumor of the diaphragm

A

fibrosarcoma

256
Q

MC causes of anterior tracheal indentation

A

anomalies of the innominate artery and anomalous left common carotid artery

257
Q

MC vena cava abnormalities

A

idiopathic dilatation of the SVC

258
Q

MC L to R shunts in the adults

A

ASD (2nd MC PDA VSD)