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Registry Study > Mosby's > Flashcards

Mosby's Flashcards

1
Q

Define Oncology

A

the study of a large variety of diseases that behave in a similar way with lethal behavior; the study of neoplastic disease

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2
Q

Define Tumor

A

Neoplasm composed of cells with abnormal proliferation capacity

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3
Q

What are the two classifications of tumors?

A

Benign and Malignant

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4
Q

Define Malignant Tumors

A

Referred to as cancer

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5
Q

Where did the word cancer come from?

A

Greek physician Hippocrates. Found a group of diseases that resembled a crab and named the disease “karkinos” - greek word meaning crab. Crab is the symbol for the zodiac sign for cancer.

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6
Q

Where did the word cancer come from?

A

Greek physician Hippocrates. Found a group of diseases that resembled a crab and named the disease “karkinos” - greek word meaning crab. Crab is the symbol for the zodiac sign for cancer.

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7
Q

What are the thee main routes of spread for cancer?

A

Local extension, lymphatics, and blood

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8
Q

Define Metastasis

A

when cancer has spread outside of the original locations in the body

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9
Q

Define Epidemiology

A

The study of cancer as it is distributed in a given population
The study of the incidence f the disease

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10
Q

Define Epidemiologic Studies

A

Help reveal patterns of incidence in a given population

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11
Q

How are epidemiological studies of incidence divided in populations?

A

Race, gender, common social habits, occupation, geographical location, age, religion, marital status, among others

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12
Q

Define Etiology

A 
Study of cancer causes and risk factors
study of the cause of the disease
 -identifying carcinogens
 -genetic factors
 - helps provide screening programs ad preventative cancer education
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13
Q

What are some etiologic factors?

A

smoking, asbestos exposure, arsenic exposure, ultraviolet radiation, nickel compounds, among many others.

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14
Q

What does the American Cancer Society recommend based on epidemiological and etiologic factors?

A

Cancer screenings

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15
Q

Define Carcinogens

A

Cancer causing agents

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16
Q

Define Carcinogenesis

A

The multistage process the occurs following exposure to a carcinogen leading to a malignancy

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17
Q

How many mutations in the stem cells of the tissue of origin is likely required for a tumor to develop?

A

2

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18
Q

How may carcinogens be categorized?

A

Chemical factors, physical factors, viral agents, or genetic factors

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19
Q

What are some known chemicals that increase the likelihood of developing cancer?

A

soot, tar, nickel compounds, asbestos, arsenic, and benzene

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20
Q

All mammalian cells contain genes known as:

A

protoncogenes, oncogenes, and antioncogenes (tumor suppressor genes)

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21
Q

What are protoncogenes responsible for? How can they be transformed?

A

controlling cellular proliferation. Can be transformed into oncogenes when activated by the presence of certain viruses or chemical agents

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22
Q

Cancers attributable to extrinsic (non-inherited) factors are classified as:

A

Sporadic

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23
Q

Inherited cancers are classified as:

A

familial

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24
Q

Sporadic cancers are typically caused by multiple:

A

outside factors

These cancers are likely due to a change in cell genes following multiple encounters with a carcinogenic agent

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25
Q

These show up in families who share a common environment and/or genetic abnormality that is passed down through generations:

A

Familial Cancers (the mothers side tends to be most influential)

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26
Q

Medical history should include these 7 things:

A
  1. Chief complaint and main symptoms
  2. Details of known or present illness
  3. Review of all body systems
  4. Past medical history
  5. Social history
  6. Family history
  7. Work history
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27
Q

Upon physical examination, the examiner should check the status of :

A

the skin, lymph nodes, oral cavity, breast, testis, perineum, and central nervous system.

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28
Q

What is the perineum?

A

the area between the anus and the scrotum or vulva

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29
Q

Define dysphagia

A

Difficulty swallowing

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30
Q

Define cachexia

A

loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness, and significant loss of appetite in someone who is not actively trying to lose weight

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31
Q

What is CAUTION?

A

7 warning signs of cancer by the American Cancer Society

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32
Q

Define CAUTION

A 
C change in bowel habits
A a sore that will not heal
U unusual bleeding or discharge
T thickening or lump
I indigestion or difficulty swallowing
O obvious change in a wort or mole
N nagging, persistent cough
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33
Q

Define biopsy

A

the removal of tissue or cells for microscopic evaluation

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34
Q

Name the different types of biopsies:

A
  1. Collection of body secretions: sputum or urine
  2. Scraping or curettage
  3. Aspiration of fluid as from the chest, fluid-filled mass, or other body cavity
  4. Core needle sampling
  5. Dermal punch
  6. Scalpel incision or excision
  7. Direct biopsy or endoscopy
  8. Open surgery
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35
Q

Tumors are classified and sorted by:

A
  • Biologic behavior
  • Anatomic site - breast, prostate, pancreas
  • Tissue origin - epithelial, connective, reticule-endothelial
  • Differentiation aka tumor grade
  • Stage
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36
Q

What is differentiation?

A

how well the cells can carry out the normal functions of cells of this origin; how well the cells exhibit normal physical characteristics; aka tumor grade

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37
Q

What is a well-differentiated tumor cell?

A

Well-differentiated cancer cells look more like normal cells and tend to grow and spread more slowly than poorly differentiated or undifferentiated cancer cells.

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38
Q

What is an undifferentiated tumor cell?

A

the cells are very immature and “primitive” and do not look like cells in the tissue from it arose. As a rule, an undifferentiated cancer is more malignant than a cancer of that type which is well differentiated. Undifferentiated cells are said to be anaplastic

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39
Q

What is anaplastic?

A

refers to a lack of differentiation in neoplastic cells

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40
Q

What are neoplastic cells?

A

abnormal growth of cells to form a tumor

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41
Q

What is the vena cava?

A

a large vein carrying deoxygenated blood into the heart

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42
Q

What is the superior vena cavas function?

A

carrying blood from the head, arms, and upper body

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43
Q

What is the inferior vena cavas function?

A

carrying blood from the lower body

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44
Q

Define aorta

A

the main artery of the body, supplying oxygenated blood to the circulatory system. In humans it passes over the heart from the left ventricle and runs down in front of the backbone

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45
Q

Left ventricle function:

A

the thickest of the heart’s chambers and is responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to tissues all over the body

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46
Q

Right ventricle function:

A

solely pumps blood to the lungs

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47
Q

How does blood enter and exit the heart?

A

Blood enters the heart through the two atria and exits through the two ventricles

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48
Q

Right and left atria functions?

A

function as receiving chambers for blood entering the heart

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49
Q

Cancerous tissues originating in epithelial tissues are referred to as:

A

carcinomas

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50
Q

Cell types that form epithelial tissues include:

A

Basal cells, squamous cells, and transitional cells

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51
Q

Epithelial tissues:

A

line, cover, or are glandular

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52
Q

Define adenocarcinoma:

A

cancerous tumor of glandular epithelium

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53
Q

Cancerous tissues originating in connective tissues are referred to as:

A

sarcomas

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54
Q

If distance is doubled, the intensity of radiation will be? Why?

A

Reduced by a factor of four

-The inverse square law applies here. The change in distance will result in a change in intensity by a quart of the distance change.

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55
Q

How many Rem is 1 Sievert?

A

100

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56
Q

1 rem = ? mrem

A

1000

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57
Q

A stochastic effect is defined as one in which:

A

probability is dose dependent

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58
Q

Define electromagnetic radiation:

A

a kind of radiation including visible light, radio waves, gamma rays, and X-rays, in which electric and magnetic fields vary simultaneously

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59
Q

Define prodromal:

A

relating to or denoting the period between the appearance of initial symptoms and the full development of a rash or fever. nausea or vomiting

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60
Q

What is the SI (system international) unit for activity?

A

becquerel

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61
Q

photons produced during the orbital transitions of electrons from a higher to lower energy shell are called? Why?

A

Characteristic radiation

-when electrons from a higher shell drop down to a lower shell, characteristic radiation is emitted

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62
Q

two or more chemicals with the same chemical formula, but having different nuclear states are known as:

A

isomers

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63
Q

wavelengths of x-rays are measured in:

A

angstroms

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64
Q

What is hematopoietic syndrome caused by?

A

reduced blood cells

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65
Q

Two or more chemicals with the same chemical formula, but having different nuclear states are known as:

A

isomers

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66
Q

Which is not true of the electromagnetic spectrum? All photons in the spectrum have the same:

A

energy

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67
Q

What is the latent period?

A

The time between exposure and the manifestation of any late effects

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68
Q

The process of cellular growth and development is called:

A

proliferation

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69
Q

Which of the following cells has the highest radiosensitivity? Why?

  • neurons
  • chondrocytes
  • osteoblasts
  • lymphocytes
A

Osteoblasts

-They’re the most sensitive because these bone cells are young and immature. Therefore they are still dividing, making them the most sensitive.

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70
Q

What is Bragg peak?

A

maximum ionization near the end of the range of a heavy, charged particle

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71
Q

A joule is a unit of:

A

energy

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72
Q

What is the half-life of iodine-125?

A

60.2 days

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73
Q

What is the half-life of radon?

A

4 days

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74
Q

How many joules are in one electron volt?

A

1.6 x 10 to 19 joules in 1 electron volt

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75
Q

what is adenocarcinoma?

A

cancerous tumor of glandular epithelium

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76
Q

what is an osteosarcoma?

A

cancerous tumor of the bone

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77
Q

cancerous tumors originating in connective tissues are referred to as:

A

sarcomas

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78
Q

The suffix -OMA means?

A

benign growths in various tissues

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79
Q

What are some exceptions to the root + suffix rule?

A

lymphoma, leukemia, glioma

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80
Q

What is a glioma?

A

malignancy originating in the central nervous system

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81
Q

What is leukemia?

A

malignancy originating in the blood

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82
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

malignancy originating in the lymphatic system

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83
Q

What is the lymphatic system?

A

the network of vessels through which lymph drains from the tissues into the blood

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84
Q

What is lymph?

A

a colorless fluid containing white blood cells, that bathes the tissues and drains through the lymphatic system into the bloodstream

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85
Q

What are the main functions of the lymphatic system?

A
  • It is responsible for the removal of interstitial fluid from tissues.
  • It absorbs and transports fatty acids and fats as chyle from the digestive system.
  • It transports white blood cells to and from the lymph nodes into the bones
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86
Q

Pathologic staging requires the use of:

A

imaging and histologic study

-CT, MRI, PET, and tissue sampling

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87
Q

What is the most widely used and internationally accepted staging system?

A

TNM

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88
Q

What does the TNM system describe?

A
  • The tumor’s size, circumference, depth of invasion, or mobility status
  • the involvement of lymph nods, their size, and mobility are also evaluated.
  • the presence of distant metastasis
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89
Q

How many stages are there in the TNM staging system?

A

IV

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90
Q

What are the three main cancer management modalities?

A

surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy

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91
Q

What is an up and coming cancer management modality that is not yet widely used?

A

immunotherapy

-may become more prevalent as we continue studying the mechanisms for carcinogenesis, remission, and recurrent disease

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92
Q

What is a local approach used to diagnose or aid in disease staging, palliate symptoms, curatively manage, or as an adjunct to other cancer management modalities?

A

Surgery

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93
Q

Surgical lymph node dissections can be helpful in staging that kinds of cancers?

A

Breast and Head and Neck

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94
Q

What kind of cancers are easily cured with surgery?

A

small and localized with no evidence of distant metastasis

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95
Q

What is localized cancer?

A

usually found only in the tissue or organ where it began, and has not spread to nearby lymph nodes or to other parts of the body.

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96
Q

Define prophylactic:

A

intended to prevent disease.

-example: bilateral mastectomy for a patient with diagnosed breast cancer in one breast, who is at an increased risk of developing cancer in both breasts

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97
Q

The use of anticancer drugs (cytotoxic drugs) or hormonal agents to cure, palliate, maintain remission, or as a prophylactic measure is known as:

A

Chemotherapy

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98
Q

How is chemotherapy administered?

A

intravenously, orally, topically, or locally

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99
Q

What are the two categories of cytotoxic drugs?

A

Phase-specific and non-phase-specific

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100
Q

What are phase-specific drugs?

A

drugs that specifically work during the time in which the tumor cell is dividing

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101
Q

What are non-phase-specific drugs?

A

Drugs that can be given at any stage of cell division and may be effective on tumor cell populations that are no longer or sparsely dividing

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102
Q

What are the 5 classes of cytotoxic drugs?

A
  • Alkylating agents
  • Antitumor antibiotics
  • Antimetabolites
  • Plant alkaloids
  • Nitrosoureas
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103
Q

Cytotoxics are intended to act as a _____ to malignant cells.

A

poison

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104
Q

Why are hormones administered?

A

to counteract the body’s response to the presence of certain types of cancers.

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105
Q

What does BRM stand for?

A

Biologic Response Modifiers

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106
Q

What is a biologic response modifier?

A

Used in cancer management and are administered to induce or enhance the body’s natural response to the presence of disease or physiologic imbalance

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107
Q

What can decrease swelling in central nervous system cancers?

A

an anti-inflammatory such as dexamethasone

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108
Q

chemotherapy agents that sensitize the cancerous tissues to other cancer therapy such as radiation are called:

A

radiosensitizers

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109
Q

Some chemical agents protect normal tissues from other therapy such as radiation, these are known as:

A

radioprotectors

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110
Q

What is the equivalent square for a field size?

A

2xlengthxwidth / length+width

Example:
15cm x 20 cm field size

Equivalent Square is 17.1 cm

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111
Q

During radiation treatment, the arm should be:

A

consistent throughout the treatment fraction

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112
Q

Your px being treated for bronchogenic adenocarcinoma complains of difficulty swallowing. His symptom is likely caused by:

A

esophagitis

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113
Q

Landmarks around the mouth are generally not very accurate due to:

A

extreme flexibility in the area

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114
Q

What does “renal” refer to?

A

The kidneys

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115
Q

What is the equivalent square for a field size ?

A

2xlengthxwidth / length+width

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116
Q

A joule is a unit of:

A

Energy

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117
Q

A T1 glottic larynx will likely be treated with parallel opposed laterals with field sizes of about:

A

6 x 6

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118
Q

Landmarks around the mouth are generally not very accurate due to:

A

Extreme flexibility in the area

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119
Q

What does “renal refer to?

A

The kidneys

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120
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas usually spread:

A

Along the muscle plane and compartment where it originated

-even neighboring compartments typically go unaffected by tumor growth

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121
Q

Which type of chemotherapy is known to cause hearing loss?

A

cisplatin

-as well as renal dysfunction

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122
Q

Your patient being treated for bronchogenic adenocarcinoma complains of difficulty swallowing. His symptom is likely caused by:

A

esophagitis

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123
Q

What is the density of water?

A

1

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124
Q

Deodorants should not be used in areas treated with radiation because:

A

The deodorant may cause a bolus effect

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125
Q

Soft tissue sarcomas usually spread:

A

Along the muscle plane and compartment where it originated

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126
Q

Which type of chemotherapy is known to cause hearing loss?

A

cisplatin

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127
Q

Placing marks on the central axis only is:

A

insufficient for daily realignment and targeting

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128
Q

What is the density of bone?

A

1.65 to 1.85

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129
Q

What are 4 methods of disposing of depleted radioactive materials?

A
  • flushing into a holdup tank
  • incineration
  • transfer to an authorized recipient
  • burial
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130
Q

What is the SI unit of exposure?

A

coulomb

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131
Q

What is the tradition unit of exposure?

A

roentgen

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132
Q

A surgical procedure in which an incision is made through the abdominal wall to examine lymph nodes and establish the extent of disease is called:

A

laparoscopy

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133
Q

The does at the point where the axis of the beam emerges from the patient is known as the:

A

Exit dose

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134
Q

The energy loss of mega voltage (MeV) electron beams in water is approximately ____ MeV/cm.

A

2

-Electrom beams lose about 2 MnV per centimeter of tissue

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135
Q

What is lidocaine?

A

Lidocaine is a local anesthetic that works by causing temporary numbness/loss of feeling in the skin and mucous membranes.

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136
Q

Lucite is often used as the material for positioning devices. One major concern when this material is in the path of the treatment beam is:

A

beam attenuation

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137
Q

What is the average diastolic pressure in an adult?

A

60-90 mm og Hg

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138
Q

The iliac breast is located at about the level of lumbar vertebrae number:

A

4

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139
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5

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140
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

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141
Q

What is C1 also referred to as?

A

Axis

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142
Q

What is C2 also referred to as?

A

Atlas

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143
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

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144
Q

How many ribs are there?

A

12

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145
Q

Which ribs are floating?

A

11 & 12

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146
Q

What is above the sternum?

A

manubrium

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147
Q

Partial breast irradiation may involve treatment techniques that employ all of the following except:

A

5-field breast technique

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148
Q

Which of the following would influence the onset or duration of action for a certain drug?

  • purity
  • kidney function
  • nutrition
  • liver function
A

nutrition (fluid and electrolyte balance)

-may be influenced by many things including the route of administration, dose, patient’s age, health, ethnicity, state of mind, weight, and nutrition

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149
Q

The angle between two beams is known as the:

A

hinge angle

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150
Q

What is caudad?

A

toward the feet/ tail/posterior

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151
Q

When breathing in the diaphragm moves:

A

caudad

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152
Q

Which of the following reduces the skin sparing effect in photon beams?

A

bolus

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153
Q

The rate of kinetic energy lost per unit path length is referred to as:

A

stopping power

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154
Q

Varying the beam size and shape using multi-leaf collimators during treatment is known as:

A

intensity modulated radiation therapy

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155
Q

How do you figure this out and what is the answer:

The closest blocked equivalent for a 10 x 20 rectangular field with a 4 x 6 block in the field is:

A

Subtract the area of the block from the area of the open field, and them take the square root.

10x20   = 200
4x6       = 24
200-24 = 176

square root of
176 = 13.3

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156
Q

In radiation therapy, which of the following interactions with matter are least important?

A

photoelectric effect

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157
Q

What is the advantage of a rotating anode versus a stationary anode in an X-ray tube?

A

Larger exposures are possible without overheating the tube

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158
Q

The spinal cord proper extends in the adult from the:

A

foramen magnum to the second lumbar spine

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159
Q

How many sacral vertebra are there?

A

5 fused sacral vertebrae

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160
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

4

coccyx

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161
Q

How far does the cauda equina extend?

A

2nd lumbar spine to the approximate level of the coccyx

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162
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

a bundle of spinal nerves and spinal nerve rootlets, consisting of the second through fifth lumbar nerve pairs, the first through fifth sacral nerve pairs, and the coccygeal nerve, all of which arise from the lumbar enlargement and the conus medullaris of the spinal cord

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163
Q

What is the dural sac (aka thecal sac) and where does it terminate?

A
  • membranous sheath or tube of dura mater that surrounds the spinal cord and the cauda equina
  • at the approximate level of the second sacral body
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164
Q

When using rotational arc therapy, monitor units or treatment time should be calculated using which of the following methods?

A

TAR method- tissue air ratio

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165
Q

Every stage ovarian cancer can be successfully treated with:

A

surgery followed by chemotherapy

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166
Q

The following would be appropriate advice for a patient receiving radiation to the whole brain EXCEPT:

A

when dry desquamation occurs, use a dandruff shampoo

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167
Q

The dDmax dose for a 250 cGy tumor dose if the depth dose percentage is 96% would be:
What formula do you use?

A

-the applied dose formula
Applied dose = TD/%DD

So,

250/96% = 260

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168
Q

Which of the following examination instruments is necessary for examination of the pharynx?

A

laryngeal mirror

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169
Q

Anatomical data for CT imaging and reconstruction is acquired through the :

A

transverse plane

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170
Q

The equivalent square field size must be determined in order to calculate the:

A

dose to be delivered to the central axis of an irregular field

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171
Q

For patients with pancreatic cancer, extra care is taken to limit the dose to the radiosensitive:

A

liver, kidney and spinal cord

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172
Q

The method by which all healthcare workers can control the transmission of blood borne diseases is known as:

A

universal precautions

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173
Q

When clinically setting up an electron field, the electron cone should not be pointed obliquely to the patient surface because:

  • The depth of Dmax in the patient can shift toward the surface
  • beam penetration can be reduced
  • side scatter to the patient increases
  • all of the above
A

all of the above

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174
Q

What does the blood brain barrier do?

A

protects the brain from potentially toxic substances

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175
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

difficulty breathing

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176
Q

What is the semi Fowler’s position?

A

Upright at 90 degrees is full or high Fowler’s position. Semi-Fowler’s would be tilted back to approximately 30 degrees.

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177
Q 
A well healed skin graft would be treated:
With a decreased dose
With increased dose
Would not be treated
Same as normal tissue
A

Same as normal tissue

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178
Q 
A tracheostomy is usually:
blocked
bolused
Treated, not bolused
boosted
A

bolus

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179
Q 
If the chart states that the patient is ambulatory, this means that:
They can walk
They cannot walk
They need a wheelchair
They need a walker
A

They can walk

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180
Q

What is a normal platelet count range?

A

200,000-450,000

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181
Q 
What is the shape of an isodose curve for tandem and ovoids?
Elliptical
Pear-shaped
Round
oval
A

pear-shaped

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182
Q 
Which of the following implants are permanent?
Cesium
Radium
Gold
Iridium
A

gold

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183
Q 
The iliac crest is at the level of:
T12
L1
L4
S1
A

L4

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184
Q 
The tip of the xiphoid is at level:
T10
T12
L1
L4
A

T10

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185
Q

What is the xiphoid?

A

small cartilaginous process (extension) of the lower (inferior) part of the sternum

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186
Q 
Which drug makes the heart more sensitive?
Bleomycin
Chlorambucil
Methotrexate
Adriamycin
A

adriamycin

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187
Q

What is adriamycin?

A

In some cases health care professionals may use the trade names Adriamycin® or Rubex® when referring to the generic drug name Doxorubicin. Drug Type: Doxorubicin is an anti-cancer (“antineoplastic” or “cytotoxic”) chemotherapy drug

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188
Q

What is the target in a linear accelerator?

A

tungsten

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189
Q 
Which drug is not used for diarrhea?
Lomotil
Imodium
Decadron
Kaopectate
A

decadron

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190
Q 
Highest skin dose is with:
Grenz rays
Orthovoltage x-rays
9 MeV electrons
4 MV x-rays
A

Grenz Rays

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191
Q

What are grenz rays?

A

Grenz rays are a form of radiation, similar to ultraviolet radiation, x-rays and gamma rays. The difference is that Grenz rays are produced at low kilovoltages giving them a very low penetration power. They are absorbed within the first 2 mm of skin, which means they do not penetrate beneath the dermis of the skin.

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192
Q

What is decadron?

A

Decadron (dexamethasone) is a corticosteroid, similar to a natural hormone produced by the adrenal glands, used to treat arthritis, skin, blood, kidney, eye, thyroid, intestinal disorders, severe allergies, and asthm

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193
Q 
Radiation myelopathy occurs:
During treatment
2-4 days after treatment
2-4 weeks after treatment
2-4 months after treatment
A

2-4 months after treatment

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194
Q 
An adenoma is a tumor of:
Glandular tissue
Skin
Muscle
Mucous membrane
A

glandular tissue

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195
Q 
Which of the following is most  radioresponsive?
Seminoma
Dysgerminoma
Teratoma
Choriocarcinoma
A

seminoma

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196
Q 
What is dyspnea?
Difficulty speaking
Difficulty swallowing
Difficulty chewing
Difficulty breathing
A

difficulty breathing

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197
Q 
Where are the vallate papilla located?
In the epiglottis
In the intestines
At the back of the tongue
At the junction of the esophagus and stomach
A

At the back of the tongue

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198
Q

Where is the ramus?

A

jawbone

199
Q

Where are the seminal vesicles?

A

superior to the prostate

200
Q 
Halfway through a treatment you notice that the wrong wedge was used.  You should:
Continue treatment
Change the wedge and continue 
Recalculate
Report to doctor
1 and 4
1 and 3
2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
A

2, 3, and 4

201
Q 
A patient suffering from emesis is at risk for:
Dyspnea
Aspiration
Anaphylaxis
Syncope
A

Aspiration

202
Q 
Whole brain x-ray therapy causes all but:
Skin irritation
Headaches
Memory loss
epilation
A

memory loss

203
Q 
Half beam blocks are used mainly for:
Skin sparing
Abutting fields
Reducing cord dose
Reducing hotspots
A

abutting fields

204
Q 
When moving a patient with a tumor in the midshaft of the bone, you need to support:
The proximal aspect
The distal aspect
The midshaft
1 only
2 only
1 and 2
2 and 3
A

1 and 2

205
Q 
When the patient is experiencing dyspnea, you want to position the patient in the \_\_\_\_\_ position.
Supine
Prone
Semi Fowler’s
Sims’
A

semi fowler’s

206
Q 
How do you make a 10 year old feel comfortable with their treatment?
Tell the truth
Tell them it will not hurt
Let them watch someone else get treated
Let their mother explain the procedure
A

Tell the truth

207
Q 
When contrast is to be injected into a patient, ensure that \_\_\_\_\_ is available.
Prednisone
Atropine
Epinephrine
Albuterol
A

epinephrine

208
Q 
At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate?
T10
L1
L4
S2
A

L4

209
Q

The principal advantage to using an electron beam is:
Skin sparing
High skin dose
Rapid fall off of dose with increasing depth
Rapid fall off of dose with decreasing depth

A

Rapid fall off of dose with increasing depth

210
Q 
If the patient’s platelet count is 225,000, you should:
Hold treatment and report to doctor
Treat, but report to doctor
Send patient home
Continue treatment as normal
A

continue treatment as normal

211
Q 
A brachytherapy source can be disposed of when it has gone through \_\_\_\_\_ half lives.
2
5
10
20
A

10

212
Q 
What diet should a patient being treated for cancer of the bladder be on?
Low residue
High residue
Low fat
High fat
A

low residue

213
Q 
A surgical opening in the small bowel.
Colostomy
Ileostomy
Laparotomy
gastrectomy
A

ileostomy

214
Q 
A mastectomy patient should:
Avoid blood pressure and needle sticks in affected arm
Keep arm immobile
Not lift heavy objects
a and c
A

a and c

215
Q 
What does the scattering foil do?
Shape the x-ray beam
Filter the x-ray beam
Spread the electron beam
Remove low energy electrons
A

spread the electron beam

216
Q 
Linear accelerators have what type of target?
Rotating anode
Reflexion 
Thick transmission
Thin transmission
A

thick transmission

217
Q 
In an isocentric treatment, the machine field size is set:
At the isocenter
At the collimator
At the central axis
On the skin surface
A

at the isocenter

218
Q 
Highest skin dose is with:
Grenz rays
Orthovoltage x-rays
9 MeV electrons
4 MV x-rays
A

grenz rays

219
Q 
Surgical clips may be used to help define the treatment area for all but:
Breast
Prostate
Lung
Multiple myeloma
A

multiple myeloma

220
Q

what is multiple myeloma?

A

Multiple myeloma is a cancer that forms in a type of white blood cell called a plasma cell. Plasma cells help you fight infections by making antibodies that recognize and attack germs. Multiple myeloma causes cancer cells to accumulate in the bone marrow, where they crowd out healthy blood cells.

221
Q

What is the myeloma prefix?

A

spinal cord or bone marrow

222
Q

What is the prefix “dys”?

A

difficulty

223
Q

what is the suffix “pnea” mean?

A

breathing

224
Q

medical term: anemia

A

“without blood” - Low Red Blood Count

225
Q

medical term: excise

A

to cut out

226
Q

medical term: uria

A

presence of a substance in the urine

227
Q

medical term: poly

A

many

228
Q

medical term: ectomy

A

excision/ to cut out

229
Q

medical term: incision

A

to cut into

230
Q

medical term: excision

A

to remove or take out

231
Q

medical term: cholecyst/o

A

gallbladder

232
Q

medical term: chondr/o

A

cartilage

233
Q

medical term: col/o

A

colon

234
Q

medical term: colp/o

A

vagina

235
Q

medical term: cost/o

A

rib

236
Q

medical term: cyst/o

A

bladder

237
Q

medical term: encephala/o

A

brain

238
Q

medical term: hepa or hepat/o

A

liver

239
Q

medical term: hyster/o

A

uterus

240
Q

medical term: mast/o

A

breast

241
Q

medical term: nephr/o

A

kidney

242
Q

medical term: proct/o

A

rectum, anus

243
Q

medical term: pyel/o

A

pelvis of kidney

244
Q

medical term: spondyl/o

A

vertebrae

245
Q

medical term: ostomy

A

new permanent opening

246
Q

medical term: otomy

A

incision into

247
Q

medical term: gyne

A

woman

248
Q

medical term: ile/o

A

ilium (small intestine)

249
Q

medical term: laryng/o

A

larynx (voice box)

250
Q

medical term: metr/o

A

uterus

251
Q

medical term: oophor/o

A

ovary

252
Q

medical term: phleb/o

A

vein

253
Q

medical term: -ectasis or ectasia

A

stretching/dilating

254
Q

medical term: -osis, iasis

A

condition of

255
Q

medical term: -algia or dynia

A

pain

256
Q

medical term: -cele

A

hernia, swelling

257
Q

medical term: -orrhagia

A

excessive bleeding

258
Q

medical term: a-, an-, ar- (ie, anemic)

A

without or not

259
Q

medical term: ad- (ie, adduction)

A

near, toward

260
Q

medical term: ab- (ie, abnormal)

A

away from

261
Q

medical term: dis- (i.e. disease)

A

from

262
Q

medical term: hemi- (i.e. hemiplegia)

A

half

263
Q

medical term: -plegia

A

paralysis

264
Q

medical term: inter- (i.e. intercostal)

A

in between

265
Q

What are the pelvis lymph nodes?

A

iliac, inguinal, femoral

266
Q

What are the abdominal lymph nodes?

A

mesenteric, paraaortic, spleen

267
Q

medical term: oma

A

tumor or growth

268
Q

What is foramen?

A

holes in the bone for large vessels and nerves to pass through

269
Q

Where are the mesenteric lymph nodes?

A

lower right abdomen

270
Q

What is fossa?

A

depressions or hollows

271
Q

What is fossa?

A

depressions or hollows

272
Q

What is a film’s tumor?

A

kidney

273
Q

What are the thoracic lymph nodes?

A

mediastinal, hilar, axillary, pectoral, more?

274
Q 
If blocks for shielding the eyes during radiation treatment are incorrectly placed, what would be a serious complication?
Retinitis
Cataract
Erythema
Otitis
A

cataract

275
Q

Why does a therapist wear gloves when tattooing a patient?
To prevent infecting the patient
Instead of washing hands
To protect self against body fluids
One should always wear gloves when touching a patient

A

To protect self against body fluids

276
Q 
What is an hypophysectomy?
Surgery of hypopharynx
Thyroid disease
Removal of ovaries
Removal of pituitary
A

removal of pituitary

277
Q 
The most radiosensitive part of a child’s bone is the:
Epiphysis
Diaphysis
Periosteum
Endosteum
A

epiphysis

278
Q 
TD5/5  for the liver is \_\_\_\_\_ cGY.
1500
2500
3500
4500
A

2500

279
Q 
Where is the corpus luteum located?
Uterus
Ovary
Heart
Testes
A

ovary

280
Q

Are benign tumors cancerous or non-cancerous?

A

non-cancerous

281
Q

Teo tumor classifications?

A

Malignant and benign

282
Q

5 characteristics of benign tumors:

A
  • normal to slightly increased growth
  • encapsulated
  • well differentiated
  • not usually life threatening
  • non-cancerous
283
Q

5 characteristics of malignant tumors:

A
  • cancerous
  • normal to increased mitotic rate
  • can metastasize
  • well differentiated to anaplastic
  • life threatening
284
Q

What percent of tumors are carcinomas?

A

75-85%

285
Q

What percent of tumors are sarcomas?

A

10-15%

286
Q

5 characteristics of carcinomas:

A
  • 75-85% of tumors
  • originate from the epithelium
  • squamous cell carcinomas
  • glandular cells (adenocarcinomas)
  • generally spread by lymphatics
287
Q

4 characteristics of sarcomas:

A
  • 10-15% of tumors
  • originate from bone, connective tissue, or soft tissue
  • generally spread through the blood
  • most common metastatic site is the lungs
288
Q

What is a screening test for the prostate?

A

blood PSA (prostate specific antigen)

289
Q

Define neoplasm

A

a new and abnormal growth of tissue in some part of the body, especially as a characteristic of cancer

290
Q

Measurements of absorbed dose:

A

Rad (Radiation absorbed dose)

291
Q

1 Gy = ____ rads

A

100

292
Q

1 cGy = ____ rad

A

1

293
Q

What does KERMA stand for?

A

kinetic energy released in a medium

294
Q

Measure of exposure:

A

roentgen

295
Q

What does Rem stand for?

A

Roentgen equivalent man

296
Q

1 sievert = ___ rem

A

100

297
Q

0.1 rem = ___ mrem

A

100

298
Q

1msv = ___rem

A

0.1

299
Q

matter in its smallest form is composed of:

A

atoms

300
Q

Define ionization:

A

any interaction that would cause an electron to be totally removed from the atom

301
Q

once an atom is ionized, it is no longer _____

A

stable

302
Q

what is the least number of electron volts needed for ionization? and wavelength?

A

124 eV and wavelength shorter than 10^-6 cm

303
Q

What are the common energy ranges for radiation therapy?

A

200KeV - 50 MeV

304
Q

What does KeV stand for?

A

kilo electron volt

1 KeV is 10^3 or 1000 electron volts

305
Q

What does MeV stand for?

A

Mega electron volts

10^6 or 1,000,000 electron volts

306
Q

all radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum are:

A

photons

307
Q

Electromagnetic Spectrum Radiation includes:

A
  • visible light
  • heat
  • radio
  • microwaves
  • ultraviolet rays
  • gamma rays
  • x-rays
308
Q

What is frequency measured in?

A

cycles using hertz

309
Q

What is wavelength measured in?

A

meters using angstrom

310
Q

What is energy measured in?

A

joules/expressed in electron volts

311
Q

What are some characteristics of x-rays and gamma rays?

A

found at the upper end of the spectrum, short wavelengths, high frequency and high energies

312
Q

____ are a result of natural nuclear radiation

A

gamma rays

313
Q

Name some heavy charged particles:

A

protons, neutrons, alpha particles, or deutrons

314
Q

Energy deposit increases to a max and produces a more dense near the end of its path is:

A

Bragg Peak

315
Q

What are the two types of electron interactions?

A
  • collision - excitation and ionization

- radiative

316
Q

X-ray production requires:

A

high voltage source, cathode, anode, glass envelope, vacuum

317
Q

What are the two main types of x-ray production?

A

characteristic and bremsstrahlung

318
Q

5 major type of photon interactions:

A
  • photodisintegration
  • coherent scattering
  • photoelectric effect
  • compton effect
  • pair production
319
Q

Define beam intensity:

A

the amount of energy per unit of time per unit of area perpendicular to the beam direction

320
Q

beam qulaity:

A

energy of the beam expressed in electron volts or the absorbing potential/ penetrating power of the beam expressed in half value layers (HVL) of material

321
Q

What two things effect intensity of the beam?

A

attenuation and bam divergence

322
Q

Define beam attenuation:

A

removal of energy from the beam

323
Q

Define beam divergence:

A

expression of the scattering of photons away from the original point source

324
Q

Define beam hardening:

A

when the effective energy of the beam increases as it passes through the filter

325
Q

Isotopes:

A

same # of protons but diff # of neutrons

326
Q

Isotones:

A

same # of neutrons, diff ## protons

327
Q

Isobars:

A

same # nucleons, diff # protons and neutrons

328
Q

isomers:

A

same # protons and neutrons but in a diff nuclear state

329
Q

What is HVL?

A

half value layer

the thickness of the material at which the intensity of radiation entering it is reduced by one half.

330
Q

Define half-life:

A

the time taken for the radioactivity of a specified isotope to fall to half its original value.
the time required for any specified property (e.g., the concentration of a substance in the body) to decrease by half.

331
Q

somatic cells

A

nonreproductive cells

332
Q

cellular differentiation

A

occurs when a cell undergoes mitosis and divides into daughter cells. the cells continue to divide and differentiate until a mature cell with a specific function results

333
Q

protooncogenes

A

normal genes that play a part in controlling normal growth and differentiation

334
Q

oncogenes

A

gene that regulate and develope growth of cancerous tissues (cancer gene)

335
Q

anti-oncogenes

A

tumor suppressor gene

336
Q

mitosis

A

cellular division

337
Q

cell cycle phases (in order)

A

G0, G1, S, G2, and M

338
Q

G1

A

first growth phase, characterized by rapid growth and active metabolism

339
Q

S

A

synthesis phase, period in which DNA is replicated to ensure that the resulting daughter cell will have identical genetic material

340
Q

G2

A

second growth phase, the period where cells prepare for actual division

341
Q

tumors are classified by what

A

anatomic site, cell of origin, biologic behavior

342
Q

tumors that arise from the mesenchymal cells

A

sarcomas (include connective tissue and bone)

343
Q

tumors that originate in the epithelium

A

carcinoma (include cancers that cover a surface or line a cavity)

344
Q

epithelial cells that are glandular are called

A

adenocarcinoma

345
Q

the american cancer society estimates that ____new cases of cancer will be diagnosed each year, with ______deaths.

A

665,000 new cases, 585,700 deaths

346
Q

most common types of invasive cancer in the Unites States

A

prostate, lung, colorectal in men and breast lung and colorectal in women

347
Q

etiology

A

study of the cause of the disease

348
Q

epidemiology

A

study of the disease incidence

349
Q

interferons

A

naturally occurring body proteins capable of killing or slowing down the growth of cancer cells

350
Q

what type of tumors have a better prognosis

A

exophytic (grow outward)

351
Q

what is tumor dissemination

A

spread (can be accomplished through blood, lymphatics, and seeding)

352
Q

prostate cancer commonly metastasized to

A

bone

353
Q

branch of medicine devoted to the study of disease

A

pathology

354
Q

extravasation

A

accidental leakage of IV drugs into the tissue surrounding the venipuncture

355
Q

six important causes of cell damage

A

radiation, hypoxia, chemicals, microorganisms, immunological reactions, neosplasms

356
Q

cancer cells that exhibit no differentiation

A

anaplastic

357
Q

great variability in size and shape of undifferentiated tumor cells

A

pleomorphic

358
Q

Where is the perineal area?

A

The perineum is generally defined as the surface region in both males and females between the pubic symphysis and the coccyx. The perineum is below the pelvic diaphragm and between the legs. It is a diamond-shaped area that includes the anus and, in females, the vagina.

359
Q

What are some side effects of city-toxic drugs?

A

nausea, myelosuppression, cardiac toxicity

360
Q

Define parenteral:

A

Administered by some means other than oral or rectal intake, particularly intravenously or by injection.

361
Q

Define lithotomy position:

A

a supine position of the body with the legs separated, flexed, and supported in raised stirrups, originally used for lithotomy and later also for childbirth.

362
Q

Define trendelenberg position

A

In the Trendelenburg position, the body is laid supine, or flat on the back with the feet higher than the head by 15-30 degrees.

The reverse Trendelenburg position similarly has the body flat, but the head is 15-30 degrees higher than the feet.

363
Q

define postural hypotension:

A

dizzy feeling associated with sitting or standing after a prolonged period of rest. caused by a drop in blood pressure and then a sudden increase

364
Q

High blood pressure is also know as:

A

hypertension

365
Q

What is a normal blood pressure range?

A

120/80 - 140/90

366
Q

Normal heart rate:

A

60-100 beats per minute

367
Q

normal respiration:

A

12-20 breaths per minute

368
Q

normal platelet count:

A

150,000-450,000 platelets per microliter of blood

369
Q

systolic pressure represents:

A

the highest point reached during contraction of the ventricles

370
Q

What are the 6 tissue response factors?

A
  1. total dose
  2. radiation type
  3. cellular sensitivity to radiation
  4. volume of tissue irradiated
  5. protraction (period of time over which total dose is absorbed)
  6. fractionation (fraction of total dose given per unit of time)
371
Q

Define acute response:

A

rad exposure response after short period of time

372
Q

Define latent response:

A

rad exposure response after a long period of time

373
Q

what’s the most major molecule in body?

A

H2O

374
Q

How are molecules formed?

A

Atoms in living tissue come together to form them

375
Q

What percent of the body is water?

A

60-80%

it is believed that because of this encounters between water molecules and radiation are what lead to manifested responses in living tissue

376
Q

What does irradiation of water do?

A

causes the breaking of the chemical bond between hydrogen and oxygen atoms - leading to production of free radicals

377
Q

______ is an unchanged molecule that contains a single unpaired electron in its outer shell, making it unstable and carry excess energy.

A

Free Radical

378
Q

What are the largest organic molecules?

A

Nuclic Acids: DNA and RNA

379
Q

What are DNA and RNA responsible for?

A
  • cellular structure and function

- provide the map for developing cells

380
Q

What are some other molecules (besides water) that are demonstrated in the effects of radiation exposure?

A

proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acids

381
Q

Where is DNA located in the cell?

A

Nucleus

382
Q

______ is a direct encounter w/ DNA as the target and creates the greatest image in the cell.

A

Direct Effect

383
Q

_____ is DNA damage that may be repaired leaving the cells to recover and resume normal function

A

Lethal Damage

384
Q

What does the functional integrity of the cell depend on?

A

parenchymal and stroll cells within it

385
Q

Do all cells differ in their sensitivity to radiation?

A

Yes

386
Q

What does the law of Bergonie and Tribondeau state?

A

cells that are rapidly dividing have a long mitotic future and are undifferentiated - these are the most responsive to radiation

387
Q

What is cell division in germ cells termed?

A

meiosis

388
Q

What is cell division called? (other cells, not germ cells)

A

mitosis

389
Q

What are the 4 phases of cell division in the correct order of sequence?

A

G1, S, G2, M

390
Q

What phase of cell division is most sensitive to radiation?

A

M phase

391
Q

Which cell division phase is most resistant to radiation?`

A

S phase

392
Q

What is the average energy deposited per unit of path length to a medium by ionizing radiation as it passes through a medium called?

A

LET - Linear Energy Transfer

393
Q

What is RBE? Describe. What is the formula?

A

Relative Biologic Effectiveness

provides a relative comparison of the effectiveness of a test radiation to the dose of 250 kv x-ray. Relates the ability of radiation with different LETs delivered under the same conditions to provide the same biologic effect.

                250 kv dose for a given effect RBE =        -----------------------------------------------
           Dose for test radiation for same effect
394
Q

What are the main tissue types in the body?

A

Epithelial, connective, muscle, nerve, and membranes

395
Q

What are the 4 cardinal signs for injury?

A
  1. redness
  2. swelling
  3. heat
  4. pain
396
Q

Define non stochastic Effects:

A

Changes seen within days/weeks

397
Q

Deine stochastic effects:

A

changes seen after months/ years

398
Q

Are immediate (nonstochastic) effects more likely seen in radiation therapy or nuclear accidents?

A

Nuclear accidents

399
Q

What are some tissue responses following significant doses?

A

vascular dilation, cellular inflammation, tissue necrosis (high doses)

400
Q

Tissue response when absorbed dose exceeds 50 Gy:

A
  1. Epilation
  2. Erythema
  3. Dry desquamation
  4. Wet desquamation
401
Q

What is the onset dose of erythema to the skin? (acute effects)

A

20 Gy

402
Q

Onset dose of dry, then wet, desquamation to the skin? (acute effects)

A

dry - 30 Gy

wet - 40 Gy

403
Q

Onset dose of mild, patchy mucositis to the oral mucosa?
Confluent mucositis?
(acute effects)

A

30 Gy

40 Gy

404
Q

Onset dose of esophagitis to the esophagus? (acute effects)

A

25 Gy

405
Q

Onset dose of xerostomia to the salivary glands? (acute effects)

A

20 Gy

406
Q

What is xerostomia?

A

also known as dry mouth and dry mouth syndrome, is dryness in the mouth

407
Q

Onset dose proctitis after treatment to the rectum? (acute effects)

A

30 Gy

408
Q

Onset dose decreased sperm from treatment of the testis? (acute effects)

A

0.25 Gy

409
Q

Onset does leading to lowered blood count after treatment of the bone marrow?
Extensive hypoplasia?
(acute effects)

A

4 Gy

50 Gy

410
Q

Onset dose of gastritis after treatment to the stomach? (acute effects)

A

20 Gy

411
Q

TD 5/5 skin:

Injury?

A

55 Gy

ulceration/fibrosis

412
Q

TD 5/5 intestine:

Injury?

A

45 Gy

stricture

413
Q

TD 5/5 salivary glands:

Injury?

A

40 Gy

permanent xerostomia

414
Q

TD 5/5 kidneys:

Injury?

A

23 Gy

kidney failure

415
Q

TD 5/5 testis/ovary:

Injury?

A

5-15

sterility

416
Q

TD 5/5 bone:
(child)
(adult)
Injury?

A

child - 20 Gy arrested growth

adult - 60 Gy necrosis

417
Q

TD 5/5 bone marrow:

Injury?

A

20 Gy

reduced cellularity

418
Q

TD 5/5 spinal cord:

Injury?

A

45 Gy

necrosis

419
Q

Define necrosis:

A

the death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply

420
Q

TD 5/5 lens:

Injury?

A

5 Gy

cataract

421
Q

TD 5/5 brain:

Injury?

A

50 Gy

necrosis

422
Q

What is TD 5/5?

A

5% of n exposed population to realize an adverse latent (late) effect in 5 years following exposure

423
Q

What is TD 50/5?

A

Dose that would likely cause 50% of n exposed population to realize an adverse late effect after 5 years following exposure

424
Q

T/F: Any deviation from the standard fractionation scheme results in a different biologic response in both normal and cancerous tissue.

A

True

425
Q

What is BED? Describe.

What’s the formula?

A

Biologic Effective Dose
Formula used when standard fractionation is interrupted or varied

BED = (nd) relative effectiveness

nd - total dose
relative effectiveness - lt d/d (????)

426
Q

What are Isoeffect Lines?

A

they show the relationship between total dose and overall treatment time for a specific tissue response or late tissue responses

427
Q

What are dose response curves?

A

Another visual representation of tissue response to radiation exposure. May be linear or nonlinear, have a threshold or not have a threshold.

428
Q

What are the two types of dose response curves? What’s the difference?

A
  • Deterministic dose response curves - no threshold and linear
  • Stochastic Dose Response curves - have a threshold and may be linear/nonlinear
429
Q

What is the response progression to whole body radiation?

A

Prodromal, manifest syndromes, and latent

430
Q

What is prodromal?

A

relating to or denoting the period between the appearance of initial symptoms and the full development of a rash or fever.

any symptom that signals the impending onset of a disease.

an early sign or symptom

431
Q

T/F: A one time dose of 300-500 cGy could lead to death within 30-60 days w/out medical intervention

A

True

432
Q

what is LD 50/30?

A

Lethal death of 50% of the population within 30 days

433
Q

what is LD 50/60?

A

Lethal death of 50% of the population within 60 days

434
Q

What is the whole body syndrome for doses between 300-800 cGy? time until death?

ARS - Acute Radiation Syndrome

A 
Hematopoietic Syndrome (bone marrow syndrome)
10-15 days
435
Q

What is the whole body syndrome for doses between 1000-5000 cGy? time until death?

ARS - Acute Radiation Syndrome

A

Gastrointestinal syndrome

3-10 days

436
Q

What is the whole body syndrome for doses between > 5000 cGy? time until death?

ARS - Acute Radiation Syndrome

A

cerebrovascular syndrome

hours - 3 days

437
Q

What is Hematopoietic Syndrome?

A

aka bone marrow syndrome

Destruction of blood-forming tissue, especially bone marrow, due to radiation exposure, usually a dose from 10 to 1000 rads.

438
Q

What is ARS?

A

Acute Radiation syndrome
Radiation sickness

a term used to describe a constellation of signs and symptoms that occurs after whole-body or significant partial-body irradiation of certain amount of radiation

439
Q

What is. cerebrovascular syndrome?

A

is an extremely severe in-jury of Central Nervous System (CNS) and Peripheral Nervous System (PNS). CvARS can be induced by the high doses of neutron, heavy ions, or gamma radiation

440
Q

What is gastrointestinal syndrome?

A

occurs at doses of between 6 and 15 Gy. Clinical signs and symptoms are due to the lack of replacement of cells in the surface of the villi because stem and proliferating cells located in the crypts are damaged by radiation and die in mitosis.

441
Q

1 Gy = ___ rad

A

100

442
Q

what does rad stand for?

A

radiation absorbed dose

443
Q

What SI unit replaced the curie?

A

becquerel

444
Q

What does the becquerel measure?

A

activity

445
Q

What SI unit replaced the roentgen?

A

coulomb

446
Q

What does the coulomb measure?

A

exposure

447
Q

What SI unit replaced the rem? (roentgen equivalent man)

A

sievert - Sv

448
Q

What does the sievert measure?

A

dose equivalent

449
Q

What SI unit replaced the rad?

A

gray - Gy

450
Q

What does gray measure?

A

dose

451
Q

What are the four R’s of radiobiology?

A

Repair, Reoxygenation, Repopulation, Redistribution (reassortment)

452
Q

What are radioprotectors?

A

chemicals that may scavenge free radicals/facilitate direct chemical repair at sites of DNA damage in normal tissue. Founded on principles of repair and reoxygenation

453
Q

What is protraction?

A

the period over which radiation is delivered

454
Q

Define hematologic malignancy:

A

cancers that affect the blood and lymph system

455
Q

Define genetic effects:

A

cell damages that pass on to succeeding cell generations.

456
Q

Define Deterministic (Non-Stochastic) Effects

A

Deterministic effects have a threshold below which the effect does not occur. The threshold may be very low and may vary from person to person. However, once the threshold has been exceeded, the severity of an effect increases with dose

457
Q

Define fistula

A

an abnormal or surgically made passage between a hollow or tubular organ and the body surface, or between two hollow or tubular organs.

458
Q

define somatic effects:

A

effects limited to the exposed individual - not future generations

459
Q

Radiation exposure to the fetus should not exceed what for the entire gestation period?

A

0.5 rem

460
Q

The term Quality Factor (Q):

A

varies w Dif types of radiation

461
Q

organization in the us responsible for recommending rad dose limits

A

NRC

462
Q

Annual dose limit for the occupational workers lens:

A

150 mSv/15 rem

463
Q

Annual dose limit for the occupational workers skin:

A

500 mSv

464
Q

Define use factor:

A

fraction of time that a rad beam is directed at a specific area

465
Q

annual radiation dose to the lung from radon gas is _____

A

200 mrem

466
Q

Dose equivalent is measured in:

A

sievert

467
Q

example of deterministic effect:

A

cataracts

468
Q

What are the two groups of radiation sources?

A
  • natural background radiation

- man-made radiation

469
Q

What are the 3 key terms for keeping radiation exposure low?

A

time, distance, shielding

470
Q

What does ALARA stand for?

A

As Low As Reasonably Achievable

471
Q

What does inverse square law directly relate to?

What is the formula?

A

Distance from the source

I1(D1)^2 = I2(D2)^2

472
Q

What are the different types of natural background radiation?

A
  • Cosmic rays from nuclear reactions in space
  • terrestrial from natural, radioactive earth elements
  • Internal - from radiation always present in the human body: carbon-14, hydrogen-3, strontium-90, potassium-40
473
Q

What are the different types of man-made radiation?

A
  • x-ray equipment,
  • radioactive sources produced for nuclear medicine and brachytherapy
  • TV
  • Nuclear reactors
474
Q

What is the ICRP? What do they do?

A

International Commission on Radiologic protection

develop standards of protection for users of x-rays and other ionizing radiation

475
Q

What is the NCRP? What d they do?

A

National Council on Radiation Protection

national group of experts who make recommendations for protection against exposure

476
Q

What is the NRC? What do they do?

A

Nuclear Regulatory Commission

national group that collaborates with states to establish regulations that are incorporated into federal and state law.

477
Q

What is the ARRT?

A

The American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) is the world’s largest organization offering credentials in medical imaging, interventional procedures, and radiation therapy. We certify and register technologists in a range of disciplines by overseeing and administering education, ethics, and examination requirements

478
Q

What is the ASRT?

A

The American Society of Radiologic Technologists, located in Albuquerque, New Mexico, is a professional membership association for medical imaging technologists, radiation therapists and radiologic science students

479
Q

What are some other agencies involved in radiation protection?

A

DOT- Department of Transportation
FDA - Federal Drug Administration
OSHA - Occupational Safety and Health Administration
EPA - Environmental Protection Agency

480
Q

What was the original term for radiation dose limits?

A

Erythema Doses

481
Q

Who was the roentgen named after?

A

Wilhelm Roentgen

482
Q

What are the most common personnel exposure monitors?

A
  1. film badge
  2. thermoluminescent dosimeters TLD
  3. OSL - optimal stimulated luminescence
  4. pocket ionization chambers
483
Q

at what point should personnel be monitored?

A

when they receive 1/10 the recommended dose

484
Q

What are some characteristics of the film badge?

A
  • measures kv, mv photons, electrons, gamma rays
  • can detect approx. energy
  • inexpensive
  • can be damaged by: light, heat and humidity
  • has to be sent out of facility for reading
  • error margin+-20%
485
Q

What are some characteristics of the TLD lithium fluoride?

A
  • measures photons, electrons, and other particles
  • very accurate
  • small; can fit in a ring badge
  • humidity won’t damage
  • can be processed and read on site
  • cannot establish energy of radiation exposure
486
Q

What are some characteristics of the pocket dosimeter?

A
  • immediate reading
  • high cost at first, but save in the end
  • small
  • very accurate, +- 2%
  • humidity can damage it
487
Q

What are some characteristics of the OSL aluminum oxide?

A
  • can be reanalyzed
  • wide range of accuracy, very sensitive
  • more sensitive than TLD
  • more expensive
  • not well understood - new technology
488
Q

What is the effective equivalent dose?

A

E = Wt(Wr) x absorbed dose

489
Q

What kind of dose limits are students under 18 subject to?

A

Dose limits same as those recommended to the public

490
Q

T/F: pregnant workers dose limits for the unborn take precedence

A

true

491
Q

How much radiation can a restricted are receive per week?

A

less than 1 mSv/week

492
Q

How much radiation can an unrestricted are receive per week?

A

less than 1 mSv/year

493
Q

What are common barriers used for barriers? What is the most common and why?

A

concrete, lead, iron

concrete because it is the cheapest

494
Q

What are some radiation detectors and applications?

A

ion chamber - cutie pie, Geiger counter

Registry Study (4 decks)

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