Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Periodontics > MOSBY > Flashcards

MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

Dental wear caused by tooth-to-tooth contact is _____.

A. Abrasion
B. Attrition
C. Erosion
D. Abfraction

A

B. Attrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Occlusal loading resulting in tooth flexure, mechanical microfractures, and loss of tooth substance in the cervical area is _____.

A. Abrasion
B. Attrition
C. Erosion
D. Abfraction

A

D. Abfraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The distance from the CEJ to the base of the
pocket is a measure of _____.
A. Clinical attachment level
B. Gingival recession
C. Probing pocket depth
D. Alveolar bone loss

A

A. Clinical attachment level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Your examination reveals a probing pocket depth of 6 mm on the facial of tooth 30. The free gingival margin is 2 mm apical to the CEJ (there is 2-mm recession on the facial). How much attachment loss has there been on the facial of this tooth?

A. 6 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 8 mm
D. 4 mm

A

C. 8 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In general, what species are predominant in
supragingival tooth-associated attached plaque?

A. Gram-negative rods and cocci
B. Gram-negative filaments
C. Gram-positive filaments
D. Gram-positive rods and cocci

A

D. Gram-positive rods and cocci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The inorganic component of subgingival plaque
is derived from _____.

A. Bacteria
B. Saliva
C. Gingival crevicular fluid
D. Neutrophils

A

C. Gingival crevicular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the characteristics of the primary
(initial) bacterial colonizers of the tooth in
dental plaque formation?

A. Gram-negative facultative
B. Gram-positive facultative
C. Gram-negative anaerobic
D. Gram-positive anaerobic

A

B. Gram-positive facultative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is an important
constituent of gram-negative microorganisms
that contributes to initiation of the host
inflammatory response?

A. Exotoxin
B. Lipoteichoic acid
C. Endotoxin
D. Peptidoglycan

A

C. Endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Calculus is detrimental to the gingival tissues
because it is _____.

A. A mechanical irritant
B. Covered with bacterial plaque
C. Composed of calcium and phosphorous
D. Locked into surface irregularities

A

B. Covered with bacterial plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Restoration margins are plaque-retentive and
produce the most inflammation when they are
located _____.

A. Supragingival
B. Subgingival
C. At the level of the gingival margin
D. On buccal surfaces of teeth

A

B. Subgingival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following are cells of the innate immune system?

a. Neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages
b. T cells and B cells
c. Mast cells and dendritic cells
d. Plasma cells

A. a and b
B. a and c
C. b and d
D. b and c

A

B. a and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following are antigen-presenting
cells?

A. Neutrophils
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells

A

C. Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following are the most important
proteinases involved in destruction of the
periodontal tissues?

A. Hylauronidase
B. Matrix metalloproteinases
C. Glucuronidase
D. Serine proteinases

A

B. Matrix metalloproteinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The predominant inflammatory cells in the
periodontal pocket are _____.

A. Lymphocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Neutrophils
D. Macrophages

A

C. Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following are part of Preliminary
Phase therapy?

a. Treatment of emergencies
b. Extraction of hopeless teeth
c. Plaque control
d. Removal of calculus

A. a, b, and c
B. b, c, and d
C. a and b only
D. b and d only

A

C. a and b only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Polymorphisms in which of the following genes
have been associated with severe chronic
periodontitis?

A. IL-6
B. IL-1
C. TNF
D. PGE2

A

B. IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Given the same amount of attachment loss and
same pocket depth, a single-rooted tooth and a
multirooted tooth have the same prognosis. The
closer the base of the pocket is to the apex of the
tooth, the worse the prognosis.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. First statement is true. Second statement is false.
D. First statement is false. Second statement is true.

A

D. First statement is false. Second statement is true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is most important in
determining the prognosis for a tooth?

A. Probing pocket depth
B. Bleeding on probing
C. Clinical attachment level
D. Level of alveolar bone

A

C. Clinical attachment level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Offset angulation is a characteristic feature of
_____.

A. Sickle scalers
B. Universal curettes
C. Area-specific curettes
D. Chisels

A

C. Area-specific curettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Patients with which of the following should not
be treated with ultrasonic instruments?

A. Deep periodontal pockets
B. Edematous tissue
C. Infectious diseases
D. Controlled diabetes

A

C. Infectious diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most important procedure to perform
during the initial postoperative visits following
periodontal surgery?

A. Plaque removal
B. Visual assessment of the soft tissue
C. Periodontal probing
D. Bleeding index

A

A. Plaque removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When performing a laterally repositioned flap,
which of the following must be considered
relative to the donor site?

A. Presence of bone on the facial
B. Width of attached gingiva
C. Thickness of attached gingiva
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which class of bony defect responds best to
regenerative therapy?

A. One-walled
B. Two-walled
C. Three-walled
D. Shallow crater

A

C. Three-walled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The most common clinical sign of occlusal
trauma is _____.

A. Tooth migration
B. Tooth abrasion
C. Tooth mobility
D. Tooth attrition

A

C. Tooth mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For most periodontitis-affected patients, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments?

A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 1 year

A

B. 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Loss of tooth substance by mechanical wear is
_____.

A. Abrasion
B. Attrition
C. Erosion
D. Abfraction

A

A. Abrasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The width of keratinized gingiva is measured
as the distance from the _____.

A. Free gingival margin to the mucogingival
junction
B. Cementoenamel junction to the mucogingival
junction
C. Free gingival groove to the mucogingival
junction
D. Free gingival margin to the base of the pocket

A

A. Free gingival margin to the mucogingival
junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following best distinguishes peri-
odontitis from gingivitis?

A. Probing pocket depth
B. Bleeding on probing
C. Clinical attachment loss
D. Presence of suppuration

A

C. Clinical attachment loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A 22-year-old college student presents with oral pain, erythematous gingival tissues with blunt papillae covered with a pseudomembrane, spontaneous gingival bleeding, and halitosis. There is no evidence of clinical attachment loss. What form of periodontal disease does this patient most likely have?

A. Gingivitis associated with dental plaque
B. Localized aggressive periodontitis
C. Generalized chronic periodontitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

A

D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

30
Q

Which of the following methods of radi-
ographic assessment are best for identifying
small volumetric changes in alveolar bone
density?

A. Bitewing
B. Periapical
C. Subtraction
D. Panoramic

A

C. Subtraction

31
Q

What tooth surfaces should be evaluated for
furcation involvement on maxillary molars?

A. Palatal, facial, and distal
B. Mesial, distal, and palatal
C. Facial, palatal, and mesial
D. Facial, mesial, and distal

A

D. Facial, mesial, and distal

32
Q

What bacterial species are found in increased
numbers in the apical portion of tooth-
associated attached plaque?

A. Gram-negative rods
B. Gram-positive rods
C. Gram-positive cocci
D. Gram-negative cocci

A

A. Gram-negative rods

33
Q

What are the major organic constituents of
bacterial plaque?

  1. Calcium and phosphorous
  2. Sodium and potassium
  3. Polysaccharides and proteins
  4. Glycoproteins and lipids

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4

A

C. 3 and 4

34
Q

Although many plaque bacteria coaggregate,
which of the following bacteria is believed to
be an important bridge between “early colonizers” and “late colonizers” as plaque matures and becomes more microbiologically complex?

A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Streptococcus gordonii
C. Hemophilus parainfluenzae
D. Fusobacterium nucleatum

A

D. Fusobacterium nucleatum

35
Q

What features best characterize the predomi-
nant microflora associated with periodontal
health?

A. Gram-positive, anaerobic cocci and rods
B. Gram-negative, anaerobic cocci and rods
C. Gram-positive, facultative cocci and rods
D. Gram-negative, facultative cocci and rods

A

C. Gram-positive, facultative cocci and rods

36
Q

Which of the following microorganisms is fre-
quently associated with localized aggressive
periodontitis?

A. Porphyromonas gingivalis
B. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
C. Actinomyces viscosus
D. Streptococcus mutans

A

B. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

37
Q

Which of the following is the primary etiologic
factor associated with periodontal disease?

A. Age
B. Gender
C. Nutrition
D. Bacterial plaque

A

D. Bacterial plaque

38
Q

Inadequate margins of restorations should be
corrected primarily because they _____.

A. Cause occlusal disharmony
B. Interfere with plaque removal
C. Create mechanical irritation
D. Release toxic substances

A

B. Interfere with plaque removal

39
Q

Light smokers are likely to have less severe
periodontitis than heavy smokers.
Former smokers are likely to have more severe periodontitis than current smokers.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second
statement is true.

A

C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.

40
Q

Well-controlled diabetics have more periodontal disease than nondiabetics.
Well-controlled diabetics can generally be treated successfully with conventional periodontal therapy.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second
statement is true.

A

D. The first statement is false, the second
statement is true.

41
Q

Oral contraceptives can cause gingivitis.
Oral contraceptives can accentuate the gingival response to bacterial plaque.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second
statement is true.

A

D. The first statement is false, the second
statement is true.

42
Q

Which of the following cells produce anti-bodies?

A. Neutrophils
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. Plasma cells

A

D. Plasma cells

43
Q

Defects in which inflammatory cell have most
frequently been associated with periodontal
disease?

A. The T-lymphocyte
B. The mast cell
C. The plasma cell
D. The neutrophil

A

D. The neutrophil

44
Q

What is the major clinical difference between
the established lesion of gingivitis and the
advanced lesion of periodontitis?

A. Gingival color, contour, and consistency
B. Bleeding on probing
C. Loss of crestal lamina dura
D. Attachment and bone loss
E. Suppuration

A

D. Attachment and bone loss

45
Q

Which interleukin (IL) is important in the acti-
vation of osteoclasts and the stimulation of
bone loss seen in periodontal disease?

A. IL-1
B. IL-2
C. IL-8
D. IL-10

A

A. IL-1

46
Q

Scaling and root planing are used in which
phases of periodontal therapy?

  1. Initial (hygienic)
  2. Surgical (corrective)
  3. Supportive (maintenance)

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
E. 1, 2, and 3

A

E. 1, 2, and 3

47
Q

What is the most objective clinical indicator of
inflammation?

A. Gingival color
B. Gingival consistency
C. Gingival bleeding
D. Gingival stippling

A

C. Gingival bleeding

48
Q

A 25-year-old patient presenting with generalized marginal gingivitis without any systemic problems or medications should be classified with which periodontal prognosis?

A. Good
B. Fair
C. Poor
D. Questionable

A

A. Good

49
Q

Instrumentation of the teeth to remove plaque, calculus and stains is defined as _____.

A. Coronal polishing
B. Scaling
C. Gingival curettage
D. Root planing

A

B. Scaling

50
Q

Scalers are used to remove supragingival
deposits.
Curettes are used to remove either
supragingival or subgingival deposits.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. First statement is true. Second statement is
false.
D. First statement is false. Second statement is
true.

A

A. Both statements are true.

51
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of
sickle scalers?

A. Two cutting edges.
B. Rounded back.
C. Cutting edges meet in a point.
D. Triangular in cross section.
E. Used for removal of supragingival deposits.

A

B. Rounded back.

52
Q

The modified Widman flap uses three separate incisions. It is reflected beyond the mucogingival junction.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. First statement is true. Second statement is
false.
D. First statement is false. Second statement is
true.

A

C. First statement is true. Second statement is
false.

53
Q

The free gingival graft technique can be used to increase the width of attached gingival tissue.
Apically displaced full-thickness or partial-
thickness flaps can also be used to increase the width of attached gingiva.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. First statement is true. Second statement is
false.
D. First statement is false. Second statement is
true.

A

A. Both statements are true.

54
Q

Miller Class I recession defects can be distin-
guished from Class II defects by assessing the
_____.

A. Location of interproximal alveolar bone
B. Width of keratinized gingiva
C. Involvement of the mucogingival junction
D. Involvement of the free gingival margin

A

C. Involvement of the mucogingival junction

55
Q

The reshaping or recontouring of nonsupportive alveolar bone is called _____.

A. Ostectomy
B. Osteoplasty
C. Osteography
D. All of the above

A

B. Osteoplasty

56
Q

An interdental crater has how many walls?

A. One wall
B. Two walls
C. Three walls
D. Four walls

A

B. Two walls

57
Q

During the healing of a surgically treated intra-
bony (infrabony) pocket, regeneration of a new periodontal ligament, cementum, and alveolar bone will only occur when cells repopulate the wound from which of the following sources?

A. Gingival epithelium
B. Connective tissue
C. Alveolar bone
D. Periodontal ligament

A

D. Periodontal ligament

58
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be successfully treated with a bone graft procedure?

A. One-walled defect
B. Two-walled defect
C. Three-walled defect
D. Class III furcation defect

A

D. Class III furcation defect

59
Q

When osseointegration occurs, which of the following best describes the implant–bone interface at the level of light microscopy following osseointegration?

A. Epithelial attachment
B. Direct contact
C. Connective tissue insertion
D. Cellular attachment

A

B. Direct contact

60
Q

The most effective topical antimicrobial agent
currently available is _____.

A. Chlorhexidine
B. Stannous fluoride
C. Phenolic compounds
D. Sanguinarine

A

A. Chlorhexidine

61
Q

What is the active ingredient in PerioChip™?

A. Doxycycline
B. Tetracycline
C. Metronidazole
D. Chlorhexidine

A

D. Chlorhexidine

62
Q

How many days does it usually take for surface epithelialization to be complete following a gingivectomy?

A. 3–7
B. 5–14
C. 14–18
D. 20–27

A

B. 5–14

63
Q

The most obvious clinical sign of trauma from
occlusion is increased tooth mobility. The most obvious radiographic sign of trauma from occlusion is an increase in the width of the periodontal ligament space.

A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second
statement is true.

A

A. Both statements are true.

64
Q

Trauma from occlusion refers to _____.

A. The occlusal force
B. The damage to the tooth
C. The injury to the tissues of the periodontium
D. The widened periodontal ligament

A

C. The injury to the tissues of the periodontium

65
Q

Which of the following is the primary reason
for splinting teeth?

A. For esthetics
B. To improve hygiene
C. For patient comfort
D. As a preventive measure

A

C. For patient comfort

66
Q

In the treatment of an acute periodontal
abscess, the most important first step is to _____.

A. Prescribe systemic antibiotics
B. Reflect a periodontal flap surgery
C. Obtain drainage
D. Prescribe hot salt mouth washes

A

C. Obtain drainage

67
Q

Which of the following medications often result in overgrowth of gingival tissues?

A. Penicillin, calcium channel blockers, phenytoin
B. Calcium channel blockers, phenytoin, and
cyclosporin
C. Cyclosporin, penicillin, and cephalosporins
D. Ampicillin, tetracycline, and erythromycin

A

B. Calcium channel blockers, phenytoin, and
cyclosporin

68
Q

Which of the following is the most important
preventive and therapeutic procedure in periodontal therapy?

A. Professional instrumentation
B. Subgingival irrigation with chlorhexidine
C. Patient-administered plaque control
D. Surgical intervention

A

C. Patient-administered plaque contro

69
Q

How many hours after brushing does it usually
take for a mature dental plaque to reform?

A. 1–2
B. 5–10
C. 12–24
D. 24–48

A

D. 24–48

70
Q

Placing the toothbrush bristles at a 45-degree
angle on the tooth and pointing apically so the
bristles enter the gingival sulcus describes
which brushing technique?

A. Charter
B. Stillman
C. Bass
D. Roll

A

C. Bass

Periodontics (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions