DECKS Flashcards
All of the following statements concerning an autogenous free gingival graft are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. It can be placed ot prevent further recession
b. It can be used to effectively widen the attached gingiva
c. It retains its own blood supply and is not dependent on the bed of recipient blood vessels
d. The greatest amount of shrinkage occurs within the first 6 weeks
e. It is also useful for covering nonpathologic dehiscences and fenestrations
c. It retains its own blood supply and is not dependent on the bed of recipient blood vessels❌
It DOES NOT retain its own blood supply and is DEPENDENT on the bed of recipient blood vessels
NOTES:
Autogenous Free Gingival Graft
- It can be placed to prevent further recession
- It can be used to effectively widen the attached gingiva
- The greatest amount of shrinkage occurs within the first 6 weeks
- It is also useful for covering nonpathologic dehiscences and fenestrations
Most root amputations involve the:
a. Mandibular first and second premolars
b. Maxillary first and second molars
c. Maxillary canines
d. Mandibular molars with buccal and lingual class Il or I furcation involvements
b. Maxillary first and second molars
The main goal of osseous recontouring (surgery) is:
a. To cure periodontal disease
b. To eliminate the existing microflora
c. To eliminate periodontal pockets
d. To change the existing microflora
c. Eliminate periodontal pockets - to reshape the marginal bone to resemble that of the alveolar process undamaged by periodontal disease
All of the following statements regarding periodontal flaps are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Full-thickness periodontal flaps involve reflecting all of the soft tissue, including the periosteum, to expose the underlying bone
b. The partial-thickness periodontal flap includes only the epithelium and a layer of the underlying connective tissue
c. Both full-thickness and partial-thickness periodontal flaps can be displaced
d. Flaps from the palate are considered easier to be displaced than those from any other region
e. Flaps should be uniformly thin and pliable
d. Flaps from the palate are considered easier to be displaced than those from any other region❌
NOTES:
Palatal Flaps cannot be displaced. In order to displace a flap, incisions should extend beyond the mucogingival junction.
There are various distal flap approaches used for retromolar reduction. The simplest is the:
a. Gingivectomy
b. Apically positioned flap
c. Distal wedge
d. Laterally positioned flap
c. Distal wedge
Contraindications to gingivectomy include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. The need for bone surgery or examination of the bone shape and morphology
b. Situations in which the bottom of the pocket is apical to the mucogingival junction
c. Esthetic considerations, particularly ni the anterior maxila
d. Elimination of gingival enlargements
d. Elimination of gingival enlargements- INDICATION
The primary objective and advantage of surgical flap procedures in the treatment of periodontal disease is:
a. Reduce or eliminate periodontal pockets
b. To provide access to root surfaces for debridement
c. Regrowth of alveolar bone
d. Maintenance of biological width
e. Establishment of adequate soft tissue contours
b. To provide ACCESS to root surfaces for debridement
The modified Widman flap (MWF) facilitates instrumentation and attempts to reduce pocket depth.
The apically displaced flap improves accessibility and eliminates the pocket, but it does the latter by apically positioning the soft tissue wall of the pocket.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement si true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
The modified Widman flap (MWF) facilitates instrumentation and attempts to reduce pocket depth❌
The modified Widman flap (MWF) facilitates instrumentation and DOES NOT attempt to reduce pocket depth
A soft tissue graft that is rotated or otherwise repositioned to correct an adjacent defect is called a:
a. Free gingival graft
b. Pedicle graft
c. Connective tissue graft
d. Frenectomy
b. Pedicle graft
What is guided tissue regeneration?
a. A soft tissue graft used to correct mucogingival junction involvement
b. Placement of nonresorbable barriers or resorbable membranes and barriers over a bony defect
c. A free gingival graft used to increase the amount of atached gingiva
d. Placement of an autograft to treat a bony defect
b. Placement of nonresorbable barriers or resorbable membranes and barriers over a bony defect
The primary reason for the failure of a free gingival autograft is:
a. Infection
b. Edema
c. Disruption of the vascular supply before engraftment
d. The formation of scar tissue
c. Disruption of the vascular supply before engraftment
NOTES:
Infection- second most common reason
A variation of the laterally positioned flap is called:
a. A coronally positioned flap
b. A modified Widman flap
c. A double papilla flap
d. A free gingival flap
c. A double papilla flap
All corners of a periodontal flap should be:
a. Sharp
b. Rounded
c. It doesn’t matter whether the corners of a periodontal flap are sharp or rounded
b. Rounded
Which of the folowing has a relatively high degree of predictability and is a “workhorse” of periodontal therapy?
a. Coronally displaced (positioned) flap
b. Laterally displaced (positioned) flap
c. Double papilla flap
d. Apically displaced (positioned) flap
d. Apically displaced (positioned) flap
A free mucosal autograft (subepithelial connective tissue graft) differs from a free gingival graft in that the transplant in a free mucosal graft is:
a. Connective tissue with an epithelial covering
b. Connective tissue without an epithelial covering
c. Epithelial tissue with its own blood supply
d. Epithelial tissue without its own blood supply
b. Connective tissue WITHOUT an epithelial covering
NOTES:
Free Mucosal Autograft- Only connective tissue from a keratinized zone is used.
Free Gingival Graft- Involve taking a section of attached gingiva from another area of the mouth (usually the hard palate or an edentulous region) and suturing it to the recipient site.
Which of the following mucogingival surgical techniques is indicated in areas of narrow gingival recession adjacent to a wide band of attached gingiva that can be used as a donor site?
a. Free gingival autograft
b. Double papilla flap
c. Modified Widman flap
d. Laterally displaced (positioned) flap
d. Laterally displaced (positioned) flap
Positive and negative architecture refer to the relative position of interdental bone to radicular bone. The architecture is said to be “positive” if the radicular bone (facial and lingual) is ____ to the interdental bone.
a. apical
b. coronal
c. the same height
d. None of the above
a. apical
NOTES:
Interdental bone is HIGHER than radicular bone
POSITIVE: radicular bone is APICAL to the interdental bone.
NEGATIVE: radicular bone is CORONAL to the interdental bone.
The most common osseous defects are:
a. One-wall intrabony defects
b. Two-wall intrabony defects (osseous craters)
c. Three-wall intrabony defects
d. Through-and-through furcation defects
b. Two-wall intrabony defects (osseous craters)
NOTES:
One Wall – “hemiseptal”
Two Wall – “Osseous Crater”
Three Wall – Through
Four Wall – Circumferential
Wolinella recta was formerly known as:
a. Bacteroides melaninogenicus
b. Campylobacter curvis
c. Campylobacter rectus
d. Bacteroides intermedius
c. Campylobacter rectus
Smokers demonstrate more orange and red microbial complexes.
Smokers have an increase in Tannerella forsythia levels.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement si false, the second si true
a. Both statements are true
Mediators produced as a part of the host response that contribute to tissue destruction include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Free radicals
b. Proteinases
c. Prostaglandins
d. Cytokines
a. Free radicals ❌
Inflammation, bleeding on probing, and pocket depths are the most important diagnostic aids or signs of gingival or periodontal disease.
The presence or absence of stippling is not diagnostic.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement si true, the second si false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
In a clinically healthy periodontium, the microbial flora is largely composed of:
a. Gram-negative obligate microorganisms
b. Gram-negative facultative microorganisms
c. Gram-positive obligate microorganisms
d. Gram-positive facultative microorganisms
d. Gram-positive facultative microorganisms
Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of:
a. Gram-positive bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
c. Both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
d. Neither gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
b. Gram-negative bacteria
Which of the following clinical signs and symptoms is characteristic of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?
a. Minimal bleeding
b. “punched-out” papillae
c. Painless
d. Periodontal pocket formation
b. “punched-out” papillae
In a healthy sulcus, which of the bacteria below are most abundant?
a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans and tannerella forsythus
b. Streptococcus and actinomyces species
c. Treponema and capnocytophaga species
d. Prevotella intermedia and porphyromonas gingivalis
b. Streptococcus and actinomyces species
Early microbiologic studies of localized aggressive periodontitis (LAP) provided clear evidence of a strong association between disease and a unique bacterial microbiota dominated by:
a. Tannerella forsythia
b. Prevotella intermedia
c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
d. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (aa)
d. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans (aa)
NOTES:
Aggressive Periodontitis- AA
- A. Actinomycetemcomitans
- Antibiotics
Diseases that present clinically as desquamative gingivitis include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Lichen planus
b. Pemphigoid
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Leukemia
e. Chronic ulcerative stomatitis
f. Lupus erythematosus
d. Leukemia❌
Which of the following statements regarding periodontitis is incorrect?
a. Periodontitis does not always begin with gingivitis
b. Gingivitis and periodontitis cannot be induced without bacteria
c. There are no radiographic features of gingivitis
d. The presence of pockets cannot be determined from radiographs
e. Chronic gingivitis does not always lead to periodontitis
a. Periodontitis does not always begin with gingivitis❌
A cuplike resorptive area at the crest of the alveolar bone is a radiographic finding of:
a. Gingivitis
b. Occlusal trauma
c. Early periodontitis
d. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
c. Early periodontitis
Which of the following is most significant in regard to the prognosis of a periodontally involved tooth?
a. Pocket depth
b. Attachment loss
c. Anatomical crown length
d. Bleeding on probing
b. Attachment loss
Gingivitis is most often caused by:
a. A hormonal imbalance
b. Inadequate oral hygiene
c. Occlusal trauma
d. A vitamin deficiency
d. Aging
b. Inadequate oral hygiene
____ needs to be evident in making a diagnosis of periodontitis?
a. Bleeding
b. Pocket depths of 5 mm or more
c. Radiographic evidence of bone loss
d. A change ni tissue color and tone
c. Radiographic evidence of bone loss
The degree of gingival enlargement can be scored as follows: Grade 0, Grade I, Grade II, and Grade III. Enlargement that involves the papilla and marginal gingiva would be scored as:
a. Grade 0
b. Grade I
c. Grade II
d. Grade III
c. Grade II
NOTES:
The degree of gingival enlargement can be scored as follows:
• Grade 0: no signs of gingival enlargement
• Grade I: enlargement confined to interdental papillae
• Grade II: enlargement involves papilla and marginal gingiva
• Grade Ill: enlargement covers three-quarters or more of the crown
Using the criteria of location and distribution, gingival enlargement is designated as follows:
• Localized: limited to the gingiva adjacent to a single tooth or group of teeth
• Generalized: involving the gingiva throughout the mouth
• Marginal: confined to the marginal gingiva
• Papillary: confined to the interdental papilla
• Diffuse: involving the marginal and attached gingivae and papillae
• Discrete: an isolated sessile or pedunculated, tumor-like enlargement
The most important plaque retentive factor is:
a. Subgingival and/or overhanging margins of restorations
b. Carious lesions that extend subgingivally
c. Calculus
d. Furcations exposed by loss of attachment and bone
e. Crowded and malaligned teeth
f. Root grooves and concavities
c. Calculus
During pregnancy there is an increase in levels of both progesterone and estrogen.
The so-called pregnancy tumor should be removed as it is a true neoplasm.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
The so-called pregnancy tumor should be removed as it is a true neoplasm❌
NOTES:
The so-called pregnancy tumor is not a neoplasm; it is an inflammatory response to bacterial plaque and is modified by the patient’s condition.
Plasma cells are the predominant immune cells in which stage of gingivitis?
a. I
b. II
c. III
c. III
NOTES:
STAGE I: PMN’s
STAGE II: Lymphocytes
STAGE III: Plasma cells
Medical conditions in which the influences of periodontal infection are documented include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Coronary heart disease
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Stroke
d. Cirrhosis of the liver
e. Diabetes mellitus
f. Low-birth-weight delivery
d. Cirrhosis of the liver❌
The frequency of maintenance visits for a patient who has had previous periodontal treatment should depend on which TWO factors?
a. On whether or not the patient feels that frequent visits wil help maintain his/her periodontium
b. On the appearance and clinical condition of the gingival tissues
c. On the amount of atachment loss prior to the periodontal treatment
d. On the patient’s ability to perform the proper home-care
b. On the appearance and clinical condition of the gingival tissues - this will determine if the patient is maintaining adequate plaque control
d. On the patient’s ability to perform the proper home-care - this will determine the effectiveness of the patient’s oral hygiene
If one of the steps in the fabrication of your implant restoration is attaching an analogue to the impression post and then seating them both into the set impression material, you have made a/an:
a. Open-tray impression
b. Closed-tray impression
c. Either of the above
d. Neither of the above
b. Closed-tray impression
An “implant level impression” means that:
a. The impression coping (or impression post) was attached to the implant
b. The impression coping was attached to the abutment
c. The impression captured or recorded the actual abutment atached to the implant
d. None of the above
a. The impression coping (or impression post) was attached to the implant
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of retaining an implant-supported crown to an abutment with a screw (rather than with cement)?
a. The crown is retrievable
b. The residual cement excess in the sulcus is avoided
c. The occlusal surface of the crown is left intact
d. A shorter abutment may be used
c. The occlusal surface of the crown is left intact
The purpose of the second-stage surgery in the creation of an implant restoration is to:
a. Check on healing progress
b. Remove the implant for cleaning
c. Uncover the implant and place an abutment
d. Determine which components wil fit
e. All of the above
c. Uncover the implant and place an abutment
In implantology, “countersinking” refers to the process of:
a. Flaring or enlarging the coronal end of the osteotomy
b. Reversing the engine to remove the implant
c. Placing the implant ni acounterclockwise rotation
d. Torquing the abutment to place
a. Flaring or enlarging the coronal end of the osteotomy
The “macro design” of implants describes:
a. Screw or cylinder shape
b. Surface texture
c. Alloy composition
d. Surface coatings
e. None of the above
a. Screw or cylinder shape
The soft tissue interface between the oral tissue and titanium can be?
a. Established by keratinized mucosa
b. Established by nonkeratinized mucosa
c. Dependent on hemidesmosomes
d. Comparable with the interface on teeth
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
The advantage of using a screw-shaped implant instead of a straight cylinder implant without threads is:
a. Easier osteotomy preparation
b. Increased initial stability
c. Less force required to insert the implant
d. No antirotational components are necessary
b. Increased initial stability
When considering probing depths around implants and the associated attachment level, what landmark is used to determine the “clinical” attachment level?
a. CEJ
b. Apical end of the implant
c. Ball tip of the probe
d. Implant shoulder or other permanent physical structure
e. Radiograph
d. Implant shoulder or other permanent physical structure
If the implant-to-abutment interface consists of a permanent extension on the top of an implant and a receptacle inside the abutment, the implant connection is categorized as:
a. An internal connection
b. An external connection
c. A cone in a socket connection
d. A nonengaging connection
e. A rotational element
b. An external connection
Which of the following occlusal conditions would exert the lowest amount of biting force under normal conditions?
a. Complete dentures resting on soft tissue
b. Complete dentures supported by implants
c. Fully dentate occlusion
d. Maxillary complete denture opposing natural teeth
a. Complete dentures resting on soft tissue
Osseointegration can fail due to:
a. Occlusal overload
b. Bacterial plaque
c. Micromotion during healing
d. Excessive cantilevering of the prosthesis
e. Failure to achieve primary stability of the implant
f. All of the above
f. All of the above
Which of the following is/are necessary for osseointegration to be successful:
a. Primary stability of the implant
b. Limited micromotion during healing
c. Minimization of surgical trauma
d. Uncontaminated implant surfaces
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
“Site development” for implants includes the following techniques EXCEPT
a. Guided tissue regeneration
b. Socket grafting
c. Bone grafting with cow bone
d. Bisphosphonate supplementation for bone density
e. Orthodontic tooth movement
d. Bisphosphonate supplementation for bone density ❌
“Antirotational” element is added to an implant to:
a. Prevent rotation of multiunit restorations
b. Prevent rotation of the implant
c. Prevent rotation of the abutment in the implant
d. Prevent overtorquing of the abutment screw
e. All of the above
c. Prevent rotation of the abutment in the implant
A radiograph should be exposed and interpreted at which of the following points during implant placement and restoration:
a. At the end of the surgical procedure
b. Following the final torque application to an abutment
c. Anytime the fit or seating of a component must be verified
d. Intraoperatively to verify implant position
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
The hole that is surgically created in the bone to receive the implant body is called the:
a. Osteotomy
b. Bone channel
c. Smokestack
d. Callus core
e. Chimney
a. Osteotomy
Which of the following was/were included in the 1986 Albrektsson et al criteria for functional implant success?
a. Implant is immobile and has no periimplant radiolucency
b. Bone loss is less than 0.02 mm/year after the first year of service
c. Absence of persistent and/or irreversible pain, infection, paresthesia or violation of the mandibular canal
d. Success rates of at least 85% at year 5 and 80% at year 10
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
The most common source of patient dissatisfaction with implants is:
a. Pain
b. Appearance
c. Mobility
d. Loss of osseointegration
b. Appearance
“Direct structural and functional connection between ordered, living bone and the surface of a load-carrying implant” is the definition of:
a. A cold weld
b. Ankylosis
c. Osseointegration
d. Metal callous formation
c. Osseointegration
Implants should not be treatment planned in young individuals until skeletal growth has been completed.
a. True
b. False
a. True
The highest rate of implant failure occurs in:
a. Type 1 bone
b. Type 2 bone
c. Type 3 bone
d. Type 4 bone
d. Type 4 bone
NOTES:
Bone quality is characterized according to cortical plate thickness and cancellous/trabecular density. The thicker the cortical plate and the higher the cancellous density, the higher the quality of the bone in terms of implant stability and support. Type 1 bone is the best quality and most suitable for retention of implants.
In patients with normal bone and normal healing capabilities, one should anticipate dental implant success rates of:
a. 35%
b. 50% to 60%
c. 74%
d. 90% to 95%
e. 100%
d. 90% to 95%
The greatest esthetic challenge for the restorative dentist occurs in the patient having a:
a. High smile line, thick periodontal biotype
b. Low smile line, thin periodontal biotype
c. Low smile line, thick periodontal biotype
d. High smile line, thin periodontal biotype
d. High smile line, thin periodontal biotype
Implants are useful for orthodontic anchorage because implants:
a. Do not move in response to orthodontic forces
b. Do not have a periodontal ligament
c. Can be placed and later removed
d. Can be located to gain force advantage
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Assessment of the potential implant patient should include:
a. Direct palpation of the bony ridges
b. Determination of any limitations of mouth opening
c. Cross-sectional imaging
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The “anterior loop” is descriptive of the:
a. Circular course of the internal maxillary artery
b. Maxillary sinus extension toward the canine tooth
c. Course of the inferior alveolar nerve anterior to the mental foramen
d. Necessity for angled abutments
e. None of the above
c. Course of the inferior alveolar nerve anterior to the mental foramen
At the conclusion of surgical placement of a titanium implant, complete soft tissue coverage of the implant is required for successful osseointegration to occur.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Complete soft tissue coverage of the implant is required for successful osseointegration to occur.❌
It just needs primary closure of the gingival flaps.
Where should the healing abutment be placed at the stage I (uncovering) surgery for a two-piece implant system?
a. Approximately 1 to 2mm “taller” than the height of the tissue
b. Out of occlusion
c. Radiographically confirmed as seated
d. Designed to shape or mold the tissue
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Cross-sectional imaging is produced by all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Cone beam computed tomography
b. Panoramic radiography
c. Conventional linear tomography
d. Computed tomography scans
b. Panoramic radiography
The clinical examination of osseointegrated dental implants should include:
a. Soft tissue observation
b. Radiographic assessment
c. Probing
d. Visual inspection of implant components
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Which of the following dimensions is not part of routinely recommended space requirements for root form implants?
a. A minimum of 3 mm of space between adjacent implants
b. At least 2 mm of bone remaining between the implant and vital structures
c. At least 1 mm of bone surrounding the implant in all dimensions
d. A minimum of 16 mm of implant length for stability
e. Placement of the restorative platform apical to the CEJ’s of adjacent teeth
d. A minimum of 16 mm of implant length for stability
NOTES:
Implant- Implant: =>3mm of space
Implant- Vital structures: => 2mm of bone
Surrounding bone: =>1mm
Of the following factors, which determines the abutment that the restorative dentist should select?
a. Soft tissue (mucosal or gingival) height
b. Interarch space
c. Implant angulation
d. Esthetic requirements
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
A “Morse taper” is one of many designs for:
a. The abutment to implant connection
b. The shape of the abutment’s restorative part
c. Press-fit implants
d. Threads on a screw implant
e. An implant milling machine
a. The abutment to implant connection
A “polished collar,” or the smooth polished exterior surface of the implant closest to or in the oral cavity, is designed to
a. Provide a location for epithelial attachment
b. Make the exposed surface cleansable
c. Keep plaque from gaining access to deeper structures
d. Inhibit biofilm formation
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
If the space available for the abutment and the crown is limited vertically, i.e., a small interarch space, which of the following abutment combinations would be least advantageous:
a. Cemented crown to the abutment
b. Screw-retained crown on the abutment
c. Restoration that fits to the implant with no abutment
d. Abutment with a ball extension for a removable prosthesis
a. Cemented crown to the abutment
Which of the folowing is NOT acceptable for cleaning of titanium surfaces, either by the patient or the dental clinician?
a. Powered toothbrushes
b. End-tufted brushes
c. Plastic curettes
d. Conventional ultrasonic tips
e. Floss, especialy multifilament varieties
d. Conventional ultrasonic tips
Which of the following conditions is NOT a contraindication to dental implant placement?
a. Current chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer
b. History of radiation therapy ot the maxilofacial complex
c. Dysmorphophobia
d. Advanced patient age
d. Advanced patient age
“Platform switching” refers to:
a. Replacing the implant to get abetter abutment selection
b. Changing to a wider abutment for molar contours
c. Changing to a shorter abutment to hide margins
d. Matching a smaller diameter abutment with a wider diameter implant
e. Converting around abutmentot triangular
d. Matching a smaller diameter abutment with a wider diameter implant
If two adjacent implants are surgically placed too close together:
a. The patient will have difficulty cleaning the area
b. Bone loss will probably occur between the implants
c. The presence of a normal papilla is unlikely
d. Optimum esthetic contours will be prevented
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Which cells control all three stages of inflammation?
a. Plasma cells
b. Red blood cells
c. Leukocytes
d. Sertoli cells
c. Leukocytes
Initially, the first group of cells to arrive at the site of injury are neutrophils. Later, ____ become more numerous. In certain parasitic infections, ____ predominate. In viral infection, ____ rather than neutrophils usually predominate.
a. plasma cells, basophils, eosinophils
b. macrophages, eosinophils, lymphocytes
c. macrophages, lymphocytes, basophils
d. lymphocytes, macrophages, eosinophils
b. macrophages, eosinophils, lymphocytes
Which cells of the immune system possess receptors for the complement component (C3a and C5a) as well as receptors for the Fc portion of the antibody molecules IgE and IgG?
a. Peripheral dendritic cells
b. Dermal dendrocytes (histiocytes)
c. Mast cells
d. Natural killer (NK) cells
c. Mast cells
The main cells involved in chronic infection are lymphocytes and:
a. Plasma cells
b. Mast cells
c. Neutrophils
d. Macrophages
d. Macrophages
The ____ has emerged as a unique immune cell that could be activated by many nonimmune processes, including acute stress, and could participate in a variety of inflammatory diseases in the nervous system, skin, joints, sa well sa cardiopulmonary, intestinal, and urinary systems.
a. neutrophil
b. epithelioid cell
c. mast cell
d. eosinophil
c. mast cell
The purposes of periodontal dressings (packs) include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Stop persistent bleeding
b. Maintain the sutured position of the flaps
c. Improve patient comfort
d. Prevent mechanical injury to healing tissues
a. Stop persistent bleeding
NOTES:
All bleeding should be controlled before the periodontal dressing is placed.
Which one of the folowing will increase the abrasive action of a polishing agent? Select 3
a. Using an agent with nice large particles
b. Using an agent containing particles that are dull and round
c. Using a thick, viscous mixture of polishing paste
d. Applying the polishing agent with firm pressure and increasing to heavy constant pressure
e. Polishing at a low speed with light pressure
a. Using an agent with nice large particles
c. Using a thick, viscous mixture of polishing paste
d. Applying the polishing agent with firm pressure and increasing to a heavy constant pressure
Gingival fibers consist of:
a. Type I collagen
b. Type II collagen
e. Type III collagen
f. Type IV collagen
a. Type I collagen
NOTES:
Type I: bONE (connective tissues, tendons, ligaments, bone, teeth, and the dermis of the skin)
Type II: car2lage (hyaline catilage)
Type III: re3cular; iMMune (liver, bone marrow, and lymphoid organs)
Type IV: Floor (basement membranes)
Microorganisms that colonize the periodontal abscess have been reported to be primarily:
a. Gram-positive aerobic cocci
b. Gram-negative aerobic rods
c. Gram-negative anaerobic rods
d. Gram-positive anaerobic cocci
c. Gram-negative anaerobic rods
All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. TMJ symptoms
b. Muscle soreness
c. Periodontal pocket formation
d. Cracked teeth or fillings
e. Wear facets on teeth
f. Widened PDL spaces on radiographs
c. Periodontal pocket formation ❌
All of the following are contraindications to selective grinding in the natural dentition EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. When pulp chambers are small
b. In the presence of tooth sensitivity
c. When major occlusal discrepancies may require orthodontics or full mouth reconstruction
d. In patients who are poor candidates for full mouth reconstruction because of psychologic factors
a. When pulp chambers are small
Which of the following is not correctly matched with regards to a periodontal treatment plan?
a. Preliminary phase : plaque control
b. Phase I: mouth preparation
c. Phase I : periodontal surgery
d. Phase III : restorative
e. Phase IV : maintenance
a. Preliminary phase : plaque control
NOTES:
TREATMENT PLANNING
Phase 0: Preliminary: Extract, Emergency
Phase I: Non-Surgical Therapy
Phase II Surgical Therapy
Phase III: Restorative
Phase IV: Maintenance
Which of the following statements regarding the assessment of tooth mobility is false?
a. Teeth normally have a very slight physiologic mobility
b. Mobility can result from multiple causes
c. Mobility is unacceptable and should be treated
d. Periodontal disease can result in tooth mobility
c. Mobility is unacceptable and should be treated❌
NOTES:
Mobility should be treated if it is progressive (increasing), acting to contribute to progression of periodontal disease, or if it is associated with patient pain. Mobility in the absence of inflammation is not harmful. Not all mobility can be eliminated. Also, some mobility is only transient.
All of the following statements concerning T cells are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Antigens are recognized by T cells in association with either MHC class I or class II molecules on the surface of the antigen-presenting cell
b. They recognize diverse antigens using a low-affinity transmembrane complex, the T- cell antigen receptor (TCR)
c. They are subdivided based on whether they possess the co-receptors CD4 or CD8
d. They are important in humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity
d. They are important in humoral (antibody-mediated) immunity❌
They are important in CELL- MEDIATED immunity
The major proportion of the organic matrix of cementum is composed of:
a. Type I and Type II collagens
b. Type I and Type VI collagens
c. Type I and Type III collagens
d. Type II and Type IV collagens
c. Type I and Type III collagens
NOTES:
CEMENTUM
TYPE I: 90%
TYPE III: 5%
All of the following statements concerning cementum are true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. It is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament
b. The main function is to compensate for tooth wear
c. The deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired
d. The cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs
e. It is lighter in color than dentin, contains 45% to 50% inorganic substance, and its permeability diminishes with age
b. The main function is to compensate for tooth wear ❌
NOTES:
FUNCTIONS OF CEMENTUM
- Attachment of principal fibers of the PDL- MAIN FUNCTION
- Compensates for the loss of tooth surface due to occlusal wear by apical deposition of cementum throughout life.
- Protects the root surface from resorption during vertical eruption and tooth movement.
- Has a reparative function; allows reattachment of connective tissue following periodontal treatment.
When trauma from occlusion is the result of alterations in occlusal forces, it is known as:
a. Primary occlusal trauma
b. Secondary occlusal trauma
c. Tertiary occlusal trauma
d. Quaternary occlusal trauma
a. Primary occlusal trauma
NOTES:
OCCLUSAL TRAUMA
Primary: result of alterations in occlusal forces
Secondary: occurs when the adaptive capacity of the tissues to withstand occlusal forces is impaired by bone loss resulting from marginal inflammation
In combined endodontic-periodontic lesions, it is generally wise to treat:
a. The periodontic component first
b. The endodontic component first
c. Both components at hte same time
d. Them any way you want to
b. The endodontic component first
The most common indication to splint mobile teeth is to:
a. Improve patient comfort and to provide better control of the occlusion if the anterior teeth are mobile
b. Improve oral hygiene
c. Prevent anatural unopposed tooth from migrating
d. Prevent maxilary central incisors from separating after closure of diastema
a. Improve patient comfort and to provide better control of the occlusion if the anterior teeth are mobile
Extrinsic dental stains include:
a. Green to brown stains caused by erythroblastosis fetalis
b. Brown, black, green, or orange stains caused by chromogenic bacteria in plaque
c. Red to brown stains caused by congenital porphyria
d. Gray or brownish stains caused by tetracycline
b. Brown, black, green, or orange stains caused by chromogenic bacteria in plaque
Trauma from occlusion can produce radiographically detectable changes in all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Lamina dura
b. Periodontal pockets
c. Width of the PDL space
d. Morphology of the alveolar crest
e. Density of the surrounding cancellous bone
b. Periodontal pockets❌
Water irrigation devices (oral irrigators) have been shown to:
a. Eliminate plaque
b. Clean non-adherent bacteria and debris from the oral cavity more effectively than toothbrushes and mouth rinses
c. Disinfect pockets for up ot 12 hours
d. Prevent calculus formation
b. Clean non-adherent bacteria and debris from the oral cavity more effectively than toothbrushes and mouth rinses
Abrasives:
a. Compose 5% to 10% of dentifrices
b. Compose 10% to 20% of dentifrices
c. Compose 20% to 40% of dentifrices
d. Compose 50% to 65% of dentifrices
c. Compose 20% to 40% of dentifrices
Which component of Super Floss is most effective in cleaning around appliances and between wide spaces?
a. Stiffened end
b. Spongy floss
c. Regular floss
b. Spongy floss
NOTES:
Stiff-end threader- helps with the insertion of the Super Floss so flossing under appliances becomes possible
Spongy floss- cleans around appliances and between wide spaces
Regular floss- removes interproximal subgingival plaque
The effectiveness of toothbrushing is best measured by:
a. The amount and location of plaque
b. The caries experience
c. The toothbrushing frequency
d. The condition of the toothbrush
a. The amount and location of plaque
To date, the ADA has accepted two agents for the treatment of gingivitis, these are: Select 2.
a. Prescription solutions of chlorhexidine digluconate oral rinse
b. Prescription solutions of tetracycline oral rinse
c. Nonprescription essential oil oral rinse
d. Nonprescription solutions of penicillin oral rinse
a. Prescription solutions of chlorhexidine digluconate oral rinse
c. Nonprescription essential oil oral rinse
Which of the following oral hygiene aids are of primary importance in gingival massage?
a. Stim-u-dent®
b. Interproximal brushes
c. Perio-aid® (aka “tooth pick”)
d. Oral irrigator
a. Stim-u-dent®
Which of the following is the only local delivery system of antibiotics accepted by the ADA and is available in the United States and a number of other countries?
a. 10% doxycycline gel
b. 2% minocycline microspheres
c. 25% metronidazole gel
d. Chlorhexidine® (2.5 mg) in gelatin matrix
a. 10% doxycycline gel
The attachment apparatus is composed of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Periodontal ligament
b. Cementum
c. Alveolar bone
d. Gingiva
d. Gingiva
NOTES:
ATTATCHMENT APPARATUS
- PDL
- Cementum
- Alveolar bone
GINGIVAL APPARATUS
- Gingival fibers
- Epithelial fibers
Of the choices listed below, which one describes the boundaries that define the attached gingiva?
a. From the gingival margin to the interdental groove
b. From the free gingival groove to the gingival margin
c. From the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
d. From the epithelial atachment to the cementoenamel junction
c. From the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
NOTES:
Alveolar Mucosa
➖➖➖➖➖➖ MGJ
Attatched Gingiva
➖➖➖➖➖➖FGG
Unattached Gingiva
➖➖➖➖➖➖GM
The gingival fibers are arranged in three groups. Which of the following is NOT one of those groups?
a. Circular group
b. Gingivodental group
c. Apical group
d. Transseptal group
c. Apical group
NOTES:
GINGIVAL FIBERS: Ci Gi Tra!
(1) Circular group
(2) Gingivodental group
(3) Transseptal group
PERIODONTAL FIBERS:
(1) Interradicular group
(2) Apical group
(3) Oblique group
(4) Horizontal group
(5) Alveolar crest group
(6) Transseptal group (debatable)
Because of the high turnover rate, the connective tissue of the gingiva has a remarkably good healing and regenerative capacity.
The reparative capacity of the gingival connective tissues is better than that of the periodontal ligament or the epithelial tissue.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
The reparative capacity of the gingival connective tissues is better than that of the periodontal ligament or the epithelial tissue❌
The principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are arranged ni six groups.
The molecular configuration of collagen fibers in the periodontal ligament provides them with a tensile strength greater than that of steel.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement si true, the second si false
d. The first statement is false, the second si true
a. Both statements are true
The length of the junctional epithelium ranges from:
a. 0.1 to 0.75 mm
b. 0.25 to 1.35 mm
c. 0.5 to 2.0 mm
d. 1.0 to 2.5 mm
b. 0.25 to 1.35 mm
Cervical line contours are closely related to the attachment of the gingiva at the neck of the tooth. The greatest contour of the cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on:
a. The distal surface of anterior teeth
b. The distal surface of posterior teeth
c. The mesial surface of anterior teeth
d. The mesial surface of posterior teeth
c. The mesial surface of anterior teeth
NOTES:
The mesial surface of the maxillary central has the greatest curvature.
The narrowest band of attached gingiva is found:
a. On the lingual surfaces of maxilary incisors and the facial surfaces of maxilary first molars
b. On the facial surfaces of mandibular second premolars and the lingual surface of canines
c. On the facial surfaces of the mandibular canine and first premolar and the lingual surfaces adjacent to the mandibular incisors and canines
d. None of the above
c. On the facial surfaces of the mandibular canine and first premolar and the lingual surfaces adjacent to the mandibular incisors and canines
Which of the following types of oral mucosa is not keratinized under normal conditions?
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Vermillion border of the lips
c. Hard palate
d. Gingiva
a. Buccal mucosa
Bone consists of:
a. Two-thirds organic mater and one-third inorganic matrix
b. One-third organic mater and two-thirds inorganic matrix
c. One-half organic matter and one-half inorganic matrix
d. Two-thirds inorganic mater and one-third organic matrix
d. Two-thirds inorganic mater and one-third organic matrix
NOTES:
ENAMEL= 96 inorganic: 4 organic
DENTIN= 70 inorganic: 30 organic
CEMENTUM= 55 inorganic: 45 organic
___ are the most common cells in the periodontal ligament and appear as ovoid or elongated cells oriented along the principal fibers, exhibiting pseudopodia-like processes.
a. Cementoblasts
b. Osteoblasts
c. Fibroblasts
d. Macrophages
c. Fibroblasts
The principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are composed mainly of collagen type III.
The amount of collagen in a tissue can be determined by its glycine content.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement si false, the second si true
b. Both statements are false
The principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are composed mainly of collagen type III❌
The amount of collagen in a tissue can be determined by its glycine content❌
NOTES:
The principal fibers of the periodontal ligament are composed mainly of collagen TYPE I.
The amount of collagen in a tissue can be determined by its HYDROXYPROLINE content.
Although the average width of the periodontal ligament space is documented to be about ___, considerable variation exists.
a. 0.002 mm
b. 0.2 mm
c. 2.0 mm
d. 20 mm
b. 0.2 mm
The sulcular epithelium is a:
a. Thick, keratinized stratified squamous epithelium without rete pegs
b. Thick, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium with rete pegs
c. Thin, keratinized nonstratified squamous epithelium with rete pegs
d. Thin, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium without rete pegs
d. Thin, nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium without rete pegs
A/An ___ of the saliva causes precipitation of calcium phosphate salts by lowering the precipitation constants.
a. decrease in the pH
b. increase in the pH
c. decrease in the viscosity
d. increase in the viscosity
b. increase in the pH
The source of mineralization for supragingival calculus is:
a. Desquamated epithelial cells
b. Gingival crevicular fluid
c. Phosphatases formed by bacterial plaque
d. Saliva
d. Saliva
NOTES:
SUPRAGINGIVAL: Saliva
SUBGINGIVAL: GCF
Dental plaque is composed primarily of:
a. Microorganisms
b. Water
c. Minerals
d. Tissue cells
a. Microorganisms
Nearly all human oral bacteria exhibit ___, cell-to-cell regeneration of genetically distinct cell types.
a. adhesion
b. pleomorphism
c. coaggregation
d. organization
c. coaggregation
Specific bacteria are implicated in periodontal disease and are commonly found at the site of infection. The Orange complex of bacteria consists of all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Fusobacterium
b. Prevotella
c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
d. Campylobacter species
c. Porphyromonas gingivalis
As plaque ages:
a. The number of cocci increases and the number of rods, fusiform, filaments, and spirochetes decreases
b. The number of aerobic bacteria increases and the number of anaerobic bacteria decreases
c. The number of gram-positive organisms decreases and the number of gram-negative organisms increases
d. None of the above
c. The number of gram-positive organisms decreases and the number of gram-negative organisms increases
At least two-thirds of the inorganic component of calculus is crystalline in structure. Of the four main crystal forms, which one is more common in the posterior areas?
a. Magnesium whitlockite
b. Brushite
c. Octcalcium phosphate
d. Hydroxyapatite
a. Magnesium whitlockite
Angular defects are classified on the basis of:
a. The number of osseous walls that were destroyed by periodontal disease
b. The number of osseous walls left surrounding the tooth
d. The number of osseous walls that will remain after surgery
e. Periodontal probe readings
b. The number of osseous walls left surrounding the tooth
NOTES:
One Wall – “hemiseptal”
Two Wall – “Osseous Crater”
Three Wall – Through
Four Wall – Circumferential
When evaluating an osseous defect, the only way to determine the number of walls left surrounding the tooth is by:
a. Periodontal probing
b. Radiographs
c. Exploratory surgery
d. Testing for mobility
c. Exploratory surgery
Which type of pocket is formed by gingival enlargement without destruction of the underlying periodontal tissues?
a. Gingival pocket
b. Periodontal pocket
c. Suprabony pocket
d. Intrabony pocket
a. Gingival pocket
NOTES:
PERIODONTAL POCKET/ TRUE POCKET
- There is loss of attachment.
PSEUDOPOCKET/ GINGIVAL POCKET
- Gingiva migrates coronally but there is no clinical attachment loss.
SUPRABONY POCKET/ SUPRACRESTAL/ SUPRA ALVEOLAR
- The base of the pocket is more coronal than crest of alveolar bone (horizontal pattern of bone loss)
INFRABONY POCKET/SUBCRESTAL/ INTRA ALVEOLAR (Vertical bone loss)
- The base of pocket is more apical than base of alveolar bone.
The principal differences between intrabony and suprabony pockets are the relationship of the soft tissue wall of the pocket to the alveolar bone, the pattern of bone destruction, and the direction of the transseptal fibers of the periodontal ligament.
In intrabony pockets, the base of the pocket is coronal to the crest of the alveolar bone, and the pattern of destruction of the underlying bone is horizontal.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
In intrabony pockets, the base of the pocket is coronal to the crest of the alveolar bone, and the pattern of destruction of the underlying bone is horizontal.❌
NOTES:
In intrabony pockets, the base of the pocket is APICAL to the crest of the alveolar bone, and the pattern of destruction of the underlying bone is VERTICAL (ANGULAR).
In SUPRABONY pockets, the base of the pocket is coronal to the crest of the alveolar bone, and the pattern of destruction of the underlying bone is horizontal
In suprabony pockets:
a. The bone loss is vertical ni nature
b. The bone loss is horizontal in nature
c. Transseptal fibers are oblique rather than horizontal
d. Supracrestal fibers folow angular patern of adjacent bone
b. The bone loss is horizontal in nature
Furcation involvements have been classified as grades I, II, III, and IV according ot the amount of tissue destruction. Grade III is:
a. Incipient bone loss
b. Partial bone loss (cul-de-sac)
c. Total bone loss with through-and-through opening of the furcation
d. Similar to the above, but with gingival recession exposing the furcation to view
c. Total bone loss with through-and-through opening of the furcation
Drug-induced gingival enlargement consists of a pronounced hyperplasia of the connective tissue and epithelium.
Drug-induced gingival enlargement may occur in mouths with little or no plaque and may be absent in mouths with abundant deposits.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement si true, the second si false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the:
a. Base of the pocket to the CEJ
b. Free gingival margin ot hte CEJ
c. Junctional epithelium to the margin of the free gingiva
d. Base of the pocket ot the mucogingival junction
c. Junctional epithelium to the margin of the free gingiva
How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?
a. It should be parallel ot the long axis of the tooth at the point angle
b. It should be paralel ot the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
c. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
d. It should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth ni front of the contact area
c. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
How should the periodontal probe be inserted into the sulcus?
a. Perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
b. With a firm pushing motion
c. With a short oblique stroke
d. Parallel to the tooth surface
d. Parallel to the tooth surface
If you should meet resistance after inserting the periodontal probe into the sulcus, you should:
a. Remove the probe and reinsert it in a different spot
b. Lift the probe away from the tooth and atempt to move it apically
c. Force the probe beyond the obstruction
d. Remove the probe and select one with a narrower diameter
e. Record the measurement where the probe stopped
b. Lift the probe away from the tooth and atempt to move it apically
Which of the folowing is the most common error when performing periodontal probing?
a. Using the wrong type of probe
b. Incorrectly reading the periodontal probe
c. Excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximaly beyond the long axis of the tooth
d. Forgetting to also probe the lingual of every tooth
c. Excessively angling the probe when inserting to interproximaly beyond the long axis of the tooth
Toothbrush trauma (abrasion) usually occurs on:
a. Centrals and laterals
b. Canines and premolars
c. Second and third molars
d. First and second molars
b. Canines and premolars
The most accepted theory as to the cause of root sensitivity is the:
a. Bayer’s theory
b. Chemiosmotic theory
c. Hydrodynamic theory
d. Quantum theory
c. Hydrodynamic theory
The most important factor in the control of hypersensitive roots among patients with periodontal disease after gingival recession has exposed the cervical portions of teeth is:
a. Prescription of home fluoride rinses
b. Minimal removal of tooth structure during root planing
c. The application of desensitizing agents that contain fluoride
d. Thorough daily plaque control
d. Thorough daily plaque control
When extensive scaling and root planing must be performed, the best approach would be:
a. A series of appointments set up to scale and root plane a segment or quadrant of teeth at a time (thoroughly and completely)
b. Gross debridement (sub- and supragingival) of the entire mouth, followed by a series of appointments for fine scaling and polishing
c. Perform everything in asingle appointment
d. None of the above
a. A series of appointments set up to scale and root plane a segment or quadrant of teeth at a time (thoroughly and completely)
Which of the following presents the most difficulty in performing a thorough scaling and root planing?
a. Mesial surfaces of maxillary premolars
b. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
c. Trifurcations of maxillary molars
d. Distal surfaces of mandibular molars
c. Trifurcations of maxillary molars
Some degree of curettage is done unintentionally when scaling and root planing are performed; this is called inadvertent curettage.
Curettage accomplishes the removal of the chronically inflamed granulation tissue that forms in the lateral wall of the periodontal pocket.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true
a. Both statements are true
The main objective of root planing is:
a. To remove chronicaly inflamed tissues
b. To change the bacterial microflora
c. To remove etiologic agents from the root surface
d. To eliminate pockets
c. To remove etiologic agents from the root surface
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:
a. Fibrotic
b. Edematous
c. Fibroedematous
d. Formed within an intrabony pocket
b. Edematous
Ultrasonic instrumentation is accomplished with a:
a. Heavy touch and light pressure, keeping the tip perpendicular to the tooth surface and constantly in motion
b. Light touch and heavy pressure, keeping the tip parallel to the tooth surface and stationary
c. Light touch and light pressure, keeping the tip parallel to the tooth surface and constantly in motion
d. Heavy touch and heavy pressure, keeping the tip perpendicular to the tooth surface and stationary
c. Light touch and light pressure, keeping the tip parallel to the tooth surface and constantly in motion
Which of the following is the instrument of choice for removing deep subgingival calculus, for root planing altered cementum, and, for removing the soft tissue lining the periodontal pocket?
a. Curette
b. Sickle scaler
c. Hoe
d. File
a. Curette
In magnetostrictive ultrasonic units the pattern of vibration of the tip is linear.
In piezoelectric ultrasonic units the pattern of vibration of the tip is elliptical.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement si true, the second si false
d. The first statement si false, the second is true
b. Both statements are false
NOTES:
Magnetostrictive- Elliptical
Piezoelectric- Linear
If a patient experiences sensitivity while being scaled with an ultrasonic scaling device, all of the following actions will be appropriate to counter this problem EXCEPT two. Which TWO are inappropriate?
a. Proceeding to another tooth and then returning to the sensitive tooth later in the appointment
b. Moving the instrument slower
c. Making necessary adjustments to the water spray
d. Turning up the power of the device
e. Using less pressure
b. Moving the instrument slower❌
d. Turning up the power of the device❌
Air is used to deflect the free gingival margin to detect:
a. The CEJ
b. Smooth root surfaces
c. Subgingival calculus
d. Inflammation
c. Subgingival calculus
The primary function of which instrument is for scaling of ledges or rings of calculus?
a. Hoe scalers
b. Files
e. Chisel scalers
d. Quetin furcation curettes
a. Hoe scalers
NOTES:
NOTES:
Sickle Scaler
- Used to remove supragingival deposits and deposits in shallow pockets
Chisel
- Remove gross deposits on the surfaces of anterior and premolars
Hoe
- Supragingival only, can cause scratches on root surfaces
- if used subgingivally - for planning and smoothening
- are used for scaling of ledges or rings of calculus
Curettes
- smoothening of root surfaces
- removal of subgingival deposit
While scaling subgingivally, the tip of the curete breaks off. All of the folowing are appropriate actions to take to try and remove this tip EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
a. Use a push stroke to force the tip out of the sulcus
b. Gently examine the gingival sulcus
c. Take a periapical radiograph of the area
d. Place the patient in an upright position
a. Use a push stroke to force the tip out of the sulcus ❌
It is impossible to carry out periodontal procedures efficiently with dull instruments.
A sharp instrument cuts more precisely and quickly than a dull instrument.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement si true, the second is false
d. The first statement si false, hte second si rtue
a. Both statements are true
NOTES:
To do its job at all, a dull instrument must be held more firmly and pressed harder than a sharp instrument. This reduces tactile sensitivity and increases the possibility that the instrument will inadvertently slip.
When sharpening, a wire edge is produced:
a. Only when using acoarse artificial stone
b. When using amounted ruby stone only
c. When no oil is used for lubrication of the stone
d. When the last stroke of the stone is drawn away from the cutting edge
d. When the last stroke of the stone is drawn away from the cutting edge
A curette designed to scale and root plane anterior teeth with deep pockets will have a:
a. Short, straight shank
b. Long, straight shank
c. Short, angled shank
d. Long, angled shank
b. Long, straight shank
Vertical and ___ scaling/root planing/gingival curettage strokes are used most frequently.
a. Push
b. Oblique
c. Horizontal
d. Circular
b. Oblique
