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MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents are pain relieving and anti-inflammatory. They are effective since they act to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis by:

A. Inhibiting fatty acid lipo oxygenase activity.
B. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific cyclo-oxygenase activity.
C. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific hydroperoxidase activity.
D. Inhibiting phospholipase A2
.

A

B. Inhibiting fatty acid-specific cyclo-oxygenase activity.

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2
Q

The synthesis of all steroid hormones involves which of the following compounds?

A. Pregnenolone.
B. Progesterone.
C. Aldosterone.
D. Cortisone.
E. Testosterone

A

A. Pregnenolone.

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3
Q

Lipid micelles are stabilized by which of the following?

A. Hydrophobic interactions.
B. Hydrophilic interactions.
C. Interactions of lipid and water.
D. Interaction of hydrophobic lipid tails with hydrophobic domains of proteins.

A

A. Hydrophobic interactions.

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4
Q

Which one of the following carbohydrates is a ketose sugar?

A. Galactose.
B. Fructose.
C. Glucose.
D. Mannose.
E. Glyceraldehydes.

A

B. Fructose.

ALDOSES
Galactose
Glucose
Mannose
Glyceraldehydes

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5
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses are hereditary disorders that are characterized by the accumulation of glycosaminoglycans in various tissues due to which of the following?

A. Overproduction (synthesis) of proteoglycans.
B. Deficiency of one of the lysosomal, hydrolytic enzymes normally involved in the degradation of one or more of the glycosaminoglycans.
C. The synthesis of abnormal proteoglycans.
D. The synthesis of highly branched glycosaminoglycan chains

A

B. Deficiency of one of the lysosomal, hydrolytic enzymes normally involved in the degradation of one or more of the glycosaminoglycans.

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6
Q

Hydrolysis of which of the following compounds yields urea?

A. Ornithine.
B. Argininosuccinate.
C. Aspartate.
D. Citrulline.
E. Arginine.

A

E. Arginine.

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7
Q

The binding of epinephrine or glucagon to the corresponding membrane receptor has which of the following effects on glycogen metabolism?

A. The net synthesis of glycogen is increased.
B. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated while glycogen synthase is inactivated.
C. Glycogen phosphorylase is inactivated while glycogen synthase is activated.
D. Both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase are activated.
E. Both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase are inactivated.

A

B. Glycogen phosphorylase is activated while glycogen synthase is inactivated.

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8
Q

When an enzyme is competitively inhibited, which of the following changes occur?

A. The apparent Km is unchanged.
B. The apparent Km is decreased.
C. Vmax is decreased.
D. Vmax is unchanged.

A

D. Vmax is unchanged.

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9
Q

Which compound is produced in the hexose monophosphate (pentose phosphate) pathway?

A. ATP.
B. NADH.
C. NADPH.
D. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate.
E. Phosphoenolpyruvate.

A

C. NADPH.

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10
Q

During exercise, which of the following is decreased?

A. Oxidation of fatty acids.
B. Glucagon release.
C. Glycogenolysis.
D. Lipogenesis.

A

D. Lipogenesis.

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11
Q

Increased formation of ketone bodies during fasting is a result of which of the following?

A. Increased oxidation of fatty acids as a source of fuel.
B. Decreased formation of acetyl CoA in the liver.
C. Decreased levels of glucagon.
D. Increased glycogenesis in muscle.

A

A. Increased oxidation of fatty acids as a source of fuel.

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12
Q

Which of the following enzymes found in the liver is involved in gluconeogenesis during the postabsorptive state?

A. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
B. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase.
C. Glucose 6-phosphatase.
D. Glucokinase.

A

B. 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase.

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13
Q

In which one of the following tissues is glucose transport into the cell unaffected by insulin?

A. Skeletal muscle.
B. Liver.
C. Adipose tissue.
D. Smooth muscle.

A

B. Liver.

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14
Q

Which of the following genetic diseases that results from a deficiency in the liver enzyme that converts phenylalanine to tyrosine?

A. Albinism.
B. Homocystinuria.
C. Porphyria.
D. Phenylketonuria.

A

D. Phenylketonuria.

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15
Q

If the molar percentage of guanine in a human DNA is 30%, what is the molar percentage of adenine in that molecule?

A. 10%.
B. 20%.
C. 30%.
D. 40%.
E. 50%.

A

B. 20%

DNA
AT = 20 + 20
GC = 30 + 30

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16
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes restriction enzymes?

A. Site-specific endonucleases.
B. Enzymes that regulate RNA.
C. Nonspecific endonucleases.
D. Topoisomerases.

A

A. Site-specific endonucleases.

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17
Q

The coenzyme that serves as an intermediate carrier of one-carbon units in the synthesis of nucleic acids is which of the following?

A. Ascorbic acid.
B. Tetrahydrofolic acid.
C. Biotin.
D. Pyridoxine.

A

B. Tetrahydrofolic acid.

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18
Q

Following the production of Okazaki fragments, which of the following is required to close the gap between the fragments?

A. DNA ligase.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. RNA polymerase.
D. Reverse transcriptase.

A

A. DNA ligase.

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19
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the process of gene cloning?

A. DNA polymerase.
B. DNA ligase.
C. RNA polymerase.
D. Restriction endonuclease

A

C. RNA polymerase.

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20
Q

Vitamin K serves as a coenzyme for:

A. The enzymatic hydroxylation of proline to 4-hydroxyproline.
B. The carboxylation of inactive prothrombin to form active prothrombin.
C. The synthesis of nucleic acids.
D. Protein synthesis.

A

B. The carboxylation of inactive prothrombin to form active prothrombin.

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21
Q

Chondroitin sulfate is a major component of which of the following?

A. Bacterial cell walls.
B. Mucin.
C. IgA.
D. Cartilage.
E. Hair.

A

D. Cartilage.

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22
Q

Which of the following amino acids is positioned at every third residue in the primary structure of the helical portion of the collagen-a chains?

A. Glycine.
B. Glutamate.
C. Proline.
D. Lysine.
E. Hydroxyproline.

A

A. Glycine.

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23
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the process of mineralization?

A. Matrix vesicles.
B. Amelogenins.
C. Fluoride.
D. Phosphoryns.

A

C. Fluoride.

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24
Q

ATP is utilized directly for each of the following processes except:

A. Accumulation of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. Transport of Na+ from intracellular to extracellular fluid.
C. Transport of K+ from extracellular to intracellular fluid.
D. Transport of H+ from parietal cells into the lumen of the stomach.
E. Transport of glucose into muscle cells.

A

E. Transport of glucose into muscle cells.

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25
Q

Both active transport and facilitated diffusion are characterized by which of the following?

A. Transport in one direction only.
B. Hydrolysis of ATP.
C. Transport against a concentration gradient.
D. Competitive inhibition.

A

D. Competitive inhibition.

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26
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the autonomic nervous system (ANS) is true?

A. The third cranial nerve (the oculomotor nerve) carries sympathetic fibers to the smooth muscles of the eye.
B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.
C. The parasympathetic nervous system innervates primarily striated muscle in the body.
D. The parasympathetic nervous system is organized for diffuse activation and responses.

A

B. The facial and the glossopharyngeal cranial nerves carry the parasympathetic preganglionic fibers for the autonomic innervation to the salivary glands.

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27
Q

Which of the following responses is due to the stimulation of α-adrenergic receptors?

A. Slowing of heart rate.
B. Constriction of blood vessels in skin.
C. Increased gastrointestinal motility.
D. Increased renal blood flow.

A

B. Constriction of blood vessels in skin.

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28
Q

Which of the following is a property of C fibers?

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type.
B. Have the largest diameter of any nerve fiber type.
C. Are afferent nerves from muscle spindles.
D. Are afferent nerves from Golgi tendon organs.
E. Are preganglionic autonomic fibers.

A

A. Have the slowest conduction velocity of any nerve fiber type.

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29
Q

The participation of calcium in the contraction of skeletal muscle is facilitated or associated with which of the following?

A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B. Calcium binding to the myosin heads.
C. Active transport of calcium out of longitudinal tubules.
D. Uptake of calcium by T-tubules.

A

A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

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30
Q

Calcium that enters the cell during smooth muscle excitation binds with which of the following?

A. Calmodulin.
B. Inactive myosin kinase.
C. Troponin.
D. Myosin.
E. Actin

A

A. Calmodulin.

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31
Q

Which of the following does not affect the muscle tension produced during contraction?

A. The extent of motor-unit recruitment.
B. The proportion of each single motor unit that is stimulated to contract.
C. The number of muscle fibers contracting.
D. The frequency of stimulation.

A

B. The proportion of each single motor unit that is stimulated to contract.

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32
Q

The pressure in a capillary in skeletal muscle is 37 mmHg at the arteriolar end and 16 mmHg at the venular end. The interstitial pressure is 0 mmHg. The colloid osmotic pressure is 26 mmHg in the capillary and 1 mmHg in the interstitial fluid. The net force producing fluid movement across the capillary wall is which of the following ?

A. 1 mmHg out of the capillary.
B. 3 mmHg out of the capillary.
C. 12 mmHg out of the capillary.
D. 3 mmHg into the capillary.

A

B. 3 mmHg out of the capillary.

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33
Q

A patient has a heart rate of 70 bpm. Her EDV (end-diastolic volume) is 140 mL. Her ESV (end systolic volume) is 30 mL. Calculate the CO (cardiac output) of this individual.

A. 9800 mL.
B. 2100 mL.
C. 7700 mL.
D. 15,400 mL

A

C. 7700 mL.

CO= (EDV-ESV) X heart rate
= (140-30) X 70
= 110 X 70
= 7700 mL

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34
Q

The velocity of blood flow _____.

A. Is higher in the capillaries than the arterioles
B. Is higher in the veins than in the venules
C. Is higher in the veins than in the arteries
D. Falls to zero in the descending aorta during diastole

A

B. Is higher in the veins than in the venules

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35
Q

Which of the following does not occur to compensate for a fall in blood pressure below normal values?

A. Increased cardiac output.
B. Increased stroke volume.
C. Increased heart rate.
D. Decreased total peripheral resistance.

A

D. Decreased total peripheral resistance.

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36
Q

CO2 generated in the tissues is carried in venous blood primarily in which form?

A. CO2 in the plasma.
B. H2 CO3 in the plasma.
C. HCO3 in the plasma.
D. CO2 in the red blood cells.
E. Carboxyhemoglobin in the red blood cells.

A

D. CO2 in the red blood cells.

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37
Q

Which of the following is the most significant stimulant of the respiratory center?

A. Decreased blood oxygen tension.
B. Increased blood hydrogen ion concentration.
C. Decreased blood hydrogen ion concentration.
D. Increased blood carbon dioxide tension.

A

D. Increased blood carbon dioxide tension.

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38
Q

The primary factor determining the percent of hemoglobin saturation is:

A. Blood PO2
B. Blood PCO2
C. Diphosphoglycerate concentration.
D. The temperature of the blood.
E. The acidity of the blood.

A

A. Blood PO2

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39
Q

For which of the following substances would you expect the renal clearance to be the lowest, under normal conditions?

A. Urea.
B. Creatinine.
C. Sodium.
D. Water.
E. Glucose.

A

E. Glucose.

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40
Q

The process of active sodium transport in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is absolutely essential for which of the following processes?

A. Regulation of chloride excretion.
B. Regulation of pH in extracellular fluid.
C. Regulation of aldosterone excretion.
D. Regulation of water excretion.

A

D. Regulation of water excretion.

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41
Q

Hypertension (long-term) will be compensated by which of the following renal mechanisms?

A. Increased circulating ADH (vasopressin).
B. Increased sympathetic activity.
C. Decreased circulating aldosterone.
D. Increased circulating angiotensin II.

A

C. Decreased circulating aldosterone.

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42
Q

Which of the following statements regarding tubular secretion in the kidney is true?

A. The secretion of K+ increases when a person is in acidosis.
B. The secretion of H+ increases when a person is in alkalosis.
C. It is a process that transports substances from the filtrate to the capillary blood.
D. It accounts for most of the K+ in the urine.

A

D. It accounts for most of the K+ in the urine.

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43
Q

Which of the following statements regarding salivary secretion is true?

A. In general, saliva is more hypertonic than plasma.
B. As salivary flow increases, bicarbonate concentration decreases.
C. As salivary flow increases, ionic concentration increases.
D. Salivary secretion is regulated primarily by hormonal stimulation.

A

C. As salivary flow increases, ionic concentration increases.

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44
Q

Which of the following is the predominant immunoglobulin in whole saliva?

A. Secretory IgA.
B. Secretory IgG.
C. Secretory IgM.
D. Secretory IgB.

A

A. Secretory IgA.

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45
Q

The pancreas produces enzymes that are responsible for the digestion of dietary compounds. Which of the following foods would not be digested by enzymes synthesized and secreted by the pancreas?

A. Carbohydrates.
B. Lipids.
C. Vitamins.
D. Protein.

A

C. Vitamins.

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46
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the hormone secretin is true?

A. It is responsible for activating chymotrypsinogen.
B. It stimulates the release of pancreatic secretion rich in bicarbonate.
C. It stimulates the release of pancreatic enzymes.
D. It stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder to release bile.

A

B. It stimulates the release of pancreatic secretion rich in bicarbonate.

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47
Q

Phospholipase C is an enzyme that plays an important role in the production of second messengers, which produce intracellular responses. Which two second messengers are produced through the action of this enzyme?

A. cAMP and tyrosine kinase.
B. Acetylcholine and histidine.
C. Adenylate cyclase and protein kinase.
D. 1,2-diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4, 5 trisphosphate.

A

D. 1,2-diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4, 5 trisphosphate.

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48
Q

Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland include which of the following?

A. Prolactin.
B. Follicle-stimulating hormone.
C. Luteinizing hormone.
D. Vasopressin.

A

D. Vasopressin.

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49
Q

The effects of which one of the following hormones are not mediated through cAMP?

A. Estrogen.
B. Glucagon.
C. Epinephrine.
D. Norepinephrine.

A

A. Estrogen.

50
Q

A scientist has discovered a new peptide hormone. He thinks it acts through the second messenger system, which utilizes cAMP. If this is true, which of the following substances should decrease the response of this new peptide hormone in cells?

A. Adenylate cyclase.
B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors.
C. Phosphodiesterase.
D. Aspirin.

A

C. Phosphodiesterase.

51
Q

Which of the following proteoglycans is present in extracellular space?

A. Hyaluronic acid.
B. Keratan sulfate.
C. Chondroitin sulfate.
D. Dermatan sulfate.
E. Heparin.

A

E. Heparin.

52
Q

Porphyrins use which amino acid in their synthesis?

A. Alanine.
B. Phenylalanine.
C. Cysteine.
D. Glycine.

A

D. Glycine.

53
Q

Which of the following is an essential amino acid?

A. Tyrosine.
B. Tryptophan.
C. Proline.
D. Serine.
E. Alanine.

A

B. Tryptophan.

54
Q

Aspartame contains aspartic acid and which of the following amino acids?

A. Phenylalanine.
B. Leucine.
C. Isoleucine.
D. Lysine.
E. Proline.

A

A. Phenylalanine.

55
Q

Which of the following is the end product of purine degradation in humans?

A. Urea.
B. Uric acid.
C. Adenosine.
D. Xanthine.

A

B. Uric acid.

56
Q

Which of the following participates in both fatty acid biosynthesis and b-oxidation of fatty acids?

A. Malonyl CoA.
B. FAD.
C. Acetyl CoA.
D. NAD+.

A

C. Acetyl CoA.

57
Q

The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is which of the following?

A. Fructose bisphosphatase.
B. Phosphofructokinase.
C. Phosphoglucose isomerase.
D. Glucokinase.

A

B. Phosphofructokinase.

58
Q

The coenzyme essential for normal amino acid metabolism is _____.

A. Biotin
B. Tetrahydrofolate
C. Pyridoxal phosphate
D. Niacin

A

C. Pyridoxal phosphate

59
Q

Which of the following metabolic activities is increased 1 hour after a meal (during the absorptive state)?

A. Glycogenolysis.
B. Oxidation of free fatty acids.
C. Glucagon release.
D. Glycolysis.

A

D. Glycolysis.

60
Q

Which of the following coenzymes are involved in the metabolism of pyruvate to acetyl CoA?

A. Thiamin pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A.
B. NAD, tetrahydrofolate, lipoic acid, FAD, and vitamin B12.
C. Mg2+, FAD, nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide, and biotin.
D. Coenzyme A, niacin, FAD, and ascorbic acid.

A

A. Thiamin pyrophosphate, lipoic acid, FAD, NAD, and coenzyme A.

61
Q

Relative or absolute lack of insulin in humans would result in which one of the following reactions in the liver?

A. Increased glycogen synthesis.
B. Increased gluconeogenesis.
C. Decreased glycogen breakdown.
D. Increased amino acid uptake.

A

B. Increased gluconeogenesis.

62
Q

Which one of the following is elevated in plasma during the absorptive period (compared to the postabsorptive state)?

A. Chylomicrons.
B. Acetoacetate.
C. Lactate.
D. Glucagon.

A

A. Chylomicrons.

63
Q

Insulin produces which of the following changes in mammalian cells?

A. Increase in liver glycogen production.
B. Increase in blood glucose concentration.
C. Decrease in the transport of glucose into muscle.
D. Increase in the transport of glucose into the brain .

A

A. Increase in liver glycogen production.

64
Q

Which of the following describes the function of RNA polymerase?

A. Translates DNA into protein.
B. Terminates transcription.
C. Removes introns during transcription.
D. Synthesizes RNA 5′→3′.

A

D. Synthesizes RNA 5′→3′.

65
Q

Analysis of DNA fragments (probing) is possibly due to which of the following properties of DNA?

A. Phosphodiester bonds.
B. Complimentary strands.
C. Protein binding.
D. Western blotting.

A

B. Complimentary strands.

66
Q

The amount of cytosine will be equal to the amount of guanine in which of the following molecules?

A. DNA.
B. RNA.
C. DNA and RNA.
D. mRNA.

A

A. DNA.

67
Q

What is the correct general structure of the backbone of DNA and RNA?

A. Sugar-base–sugar.
B. Bases linked through phosphodiester linkages.
C. Bases linked through hydrogen bonds.
D. Sugars linked through phosphodiester linkages.

A

D. Sugars linked through phosphodiester linkages.

68
Q

The conversion of information from DNA into mRNA is called which of the following?

A. Translation.
B. Transcription.
C. Transduction.
D. Transformation.

A

B. Transcription.

DNA → mRNA → PROTEIN
Transcription→ Translation

Transduction= Virus → Bacteria

69
Q

Which of the following mineralized tissues have the greatest percentage of inorganic material?

A. Enamel.
B. Dentin.
C. Bone.
D. Calculus.

A

A. Enamel.

70
Q

Each of the following describes collagen except one. Which is the exception?

A. Most abundant protein in the body.
B. Modifications to procollagen occur in the extracellular matrix.
C. Incorporates hydroxyproline into the molecule by tRNA.
D. Hydroxylation of proline requires vitamin C and molecular oxygen.

A

C. Incorporates hydroxyproline into the molecule by tRNA.

71
Q

Hydroxyapatite _____.

A. Is weakened if fluoride is substituted for some of the hydroxyl ions
B. Is a noncrystalline structure
C. If containing carbonate ion becomes more soluble
D. Is composed of calcium and phosphate in a 1:1 ratio

A

C. If containing carbonate ion becomes more soluble

72
Q

The type of collagen characteristically found in cartilage is which of the following?

A. Type I.
B. Type II.
C. Type III.
D. Type IV.

A

B. Type II.

73
Q

Which process transports amino acids across the luminal surface of the epithelia that lines the small intestine?

A. Simple diffusion.
B. Primary active transport.
C. Cotransport with sodium ion.
D. Cotransport with chloride ion.

A

C. Cotransport with sodium ion.

74
Q

Cell membranes typically contain the following compounds except:

A. Phospholipids
B. Proteins
C. Cholesterols
D. Triacylglycerols
E. Sphingolipids

A

D. Triacylglycerols- FOR STORAGE AND TRANSPORT

75
Q

Monoamine oxidase (MAO) _____.

A. Inactivates reduced steroid derivatives
B. Is not associated with nerves
C. Inactivates catecholamines by oxidative deamination
D. Is located in the synapse where it inactivates the neurotransmitter acetylcholine

A

C. Inactivates catecholamines by oxidative deamination

76
Q

Which one of the following does not release acetylcholine?

A. Sympathetic preganglionic fibers.
B. Sympathetic postganglionic fibers that innervate the heart.
C. Parasympathetic postganglionic fibers to effector organs.
D. Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers.

A

B. Sympathetic postganglionic fibers that innervate the heart.

77
Q

Where are the temperature control centers located?

A. Cerebellum.
B. Hypothalamus.
C. Medulla.
D. Cerebral cortex

A

B. Hypothalamus.

78
Q

The energy for skeletal muscle contraction is derived from which of the following processes?

A. Calcium release from sarcoplasmic membranes and binding to troponin.
B. Cleavage of ATP by the myosin head.
C. Membrane sodium-potassium ATPase pump.
D. Sodium influx during the action potential.

A

B. Cleavage of ATP by the myosin head.

79
Q

Muscle spindle stretching when the patellar tendon is tapped produces which of the following responses?

A. Muscle contraction within muscle where the spindles are located.
B. Increased sympathetic stimulation of the spindles.
C. A reduction in the number of afferent impulses entering the spinal cord.
D. An inhibition of the stretch reflex.

A

A. Muscle contraction within muscle where the spindles are located.

80
Q

The gamma motor neurons control which of the following?

A. Muscle spindles.
B. Iris of the eye.
C. Voluntary muscle fibers.
D. Pyloric sphincter.

A

A. Muscle spindles.

81
Q

Which of the following would be expected to raise blood pressure?

A. A drug that inhibits the angiotensin II converting enzyme and thus the production of angiotensin II (ACE inhibitors).
B. A drug that inhibits the synthesis of nitric oxide.
C. A drug that blocks vasopressin receptors.
D. Increased stimulation of the carotid baroreceptor.

A

B. A drug that inhibits the synthesis of nitric oxide.

82
Q

Which of the following ions has a higher intracellular concentration compared to the extracellular fluid?

A. Na+.
B. K+.
C. Cl−.
D. HCO3−
E. Ca2+.

A

B. K+.

83
Q

All of the following local chemical factors will cause vasodilatation of the arterioles, except:

A. Decreased K+
B. Increased CO2
C. Nitric oxide
D. Decreased O2
E. Histamine release

A

A. Decreased K+

84
Q

Increasing the radius of arterioles will increase which of the following?

A. Systolic blood pressure.
B. Diastolic blood pressure.
C. Viscosity of the blood.
D. Capillary blood flow.

A

D. Capillary blood flow.

85
Q

In which of the following might arterial blood pressure be abnormally high?

A. Ventricular fibrillation.
B. Acute heart failure.
C. Anaphylactic shock.
D. Increased intracranial pressure.

A

D. Increased intracranial pressure.

86
Q

A major function of surfactant is to increase which of the following?

A. Pulmonary compliance.
B. Alveolar surface tension.
C. The work of breathing.
D. The tendency of the lungs to collapse.

A

A. Pulmonary compliance.

87
Q

The minimum volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration is termed the _____.

A. Tidal volume
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Residual volume
D. Vital capacity

A

C. Residual volume

88
Q

The center that provides output to the respiratory muscles is located in the _____.

A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Cerebellum
E. Hypothalamus

A

B. Medulla

89
Q

Aldosterone _____.

A. Stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts
B. Is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus
C. Stimulates K+ absorption in the distal tubule
D. Stimulates bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule

A

A. Stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting ducts

90
Q

What happens to net fluid filtration in the glomerulus when plasma protein concentration is decreased?

A. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) increases.
B. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) decreases.
C. Net filtration remains unchanged.
D. Net filtration ceases.

A

A. Net filtration (ultrafiltration) increases.

91
Q

Which of the following factors would result in decreased glomerular filtration rate?

A. A fall in plasma protein concentration.
B. An obstruction of the tubular system which would increase capsular hydrostatic pressure.
C. Vasodilation of the afferent arterioles.
D. Inulin administration.

A

B. An obstruction of the tubular system which would increase capsular hydrostatic pressure.

92
Q

Which of the following statements regarding tubular reabsorption is true?

A. Most calcium filtered is passively reabsorbed and not regulated under any conditions.
B. Most urea is reabsorbed passively and is unaffected by regulatory mechanisms.
C. Glucose is reabsorbed by secondary active transport and facilitated diffusion.
D. Most filtered phosphate is reabsorbed in the collecting ducts and is unaffected by regulatory mechanisms.

A

C. Glucose is reabsorbed by secondary active transport and facilitated diffusion.

93
Q

Which of the following processes is not a true component of swallowing?

A. Closure of the glottis.
B. Involuntary relaxation of the upper esophageal sphincter.
C. Movements of the tongue against the palate.
D. Esophageal peristalsis.

A

C. Movements of the tongue against the palate.

94
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastrointestinal motility is true?

A. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
B. Parasympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.
C. Gastrointestinal motility is not influenced by the central nervous system (CNS).
D. Gastrointestinal motility is not influenced by hormones.

A

A. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits motility.

95
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastrointestinal function is true?

A. The main sympathetic nerve supply to the digestive tract is the vagus.
B. In general, sympathetic stimulation is excitatory to digestive activity.
C. Salivary secretion is stimulated by both branches of the autonomic nervous system, although not to the same degree.
D. Parasympathetic stimulation of the salivary glands produces a saliva rich in mucus.

A

C. Salivary secretion is stimulated by both branches of the autonomic nervous system, although not to the same degree.

96
Q

Which of the following factors will not influence the rate at which a meal will leave the stomach?

A. Acidification of the duodenum.
B. Increasing the tonicity of the intestine.
C. Saline in the duodenum.
D. Lipid in the intestine.

A

C. Saline in the duodenum.

97
Q

Which of the following forms of thyroid hormone is most readily found in the circulation?

A. Tri-iodothyronine (T3).
B. Thyroxine (T4).
C. Thyroglobulin.
D. TSH.

A

B. Thyroxine (T4).

98
Q

A hormone acts to stimulate its neighboring cell to divide. This hormone would best be described as belonging to which category of hormones?

A. Paracrine.
B. Autocrine.
C. Endocrine

A

A. Paracrine.

Paracrine- target tissue as the cell in close proximity to the secreting tissue.
Autocrine-a cell that releases a factor (hormone) that stimulates the cell from which it was released
Endocrine- hormones that have an effect at a distal site in the body

99
Q

Blood levels of progesterone are highest during _____.

A. The follicular phase of the ovarian cycle
B. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle
C. Ovulation
D. Menstruation

A

B. The luteal phase of the ovarian cycle

100
Q

Glucagon will decrease which of the following?

A. Glycogenolysis.
B. Gluconeogenesis.
C. Glycogenesis.
D. Blood glucose

A

C. Glycogenesis.

101
Q

Place the citric acid cycle enzymes in the order in which they participate in the cycle by writing the appropriate number in the blank. All enzymes may not be listed.

A. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Citrate synthase
D. Succinate dehydrogenase
E. Fumerase
F. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

C. Citrate synthase
F. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
A. a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
D. Succinate dehydrogenase
E. Fumerase
B. Malate dehydrogenase

102
Q

From the following list, select the defects associated with a vitamin
B, deficiency.

A. Night blindness
B. Rickets
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Scurvy
E. Neurologic degeneration

A

C. Pernicious anemia
E. Neurologic degeneration

103
Q

From the following list, select the secretions produced by the pancreas.

A. HCI
В. НСО
C. Pepsinogen
D. Lipase
E. Amylase
F. Chymotrypsinogen
G. Enterokinase

A

В. НСО
D. Lipase
E. Amylase
F. Chymotrypsinogen

104
Q

From the following list, which actions are not attributed to CCK?

A. Stimulates contraction of the gallbladder
B. Stimulates pancreatic HCO2 production
C. Inhibits gastric acid secretion
D. Inhibits pancreatic HCO3 production

A

C. Inhibits gastric acid secretion
D. Inhibits pancreatic HCO3 production

105
Q

Which one of the following is not a polysaccharide?

A. Amylose
B. Amylopectin
C. Acetylglucosamine
D. Glycogen
E. Glycosaminoglycan

A

C. Acetylglucosamine

106
Q

During skeletal muscle contraction, depolarization of the T-tubules produces a conformational change in the dihydropyridine receptor that causes the ryanodine receptors to release Ca2 from the terminal cisternae of the SR. What is this excitation-contraction coupling?

A. Electromechanical coupling
B. Electrochemical coupling
C. Pharmacomechanical coupling
D. Pharmacochemical coupling

A

A. Electromechanical coupling

107
Q

From the following categories of taste flavors, which have been identified as acting via G protein coupled receptors?

A. Bitter
B. Sweet
C. Sour
D. Salty
E. Umami

A

A. Bitter
B. Sweet
E. Umami

108
Q

During stimulated saliva secretion, the concentration of Na more closely resembles the concentration of Na in the plasma because there is less time for ductal modification of the saliva concentration. Which of the following is true regarding this statement?

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not correct
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is correct
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct

A

A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related

109
Q

Which one of the following lipoprotein particles is responsible for transporting dietary triacyglycerols to the liver and adipose cells?

A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. Chylomicron

A

D. Chylomicron

110
Q

The term cytosol refers to which one of the following?

A. All of the cell outside of the nucleus
B. The aqueous area between the plasma membrane and the membrane-bound organelles
C. The contents of the nucleus
D. The contents of all the organelles

A

B. The aqueous area between the plasma membrane and the membrane-bound organelles

111
Q

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

A. Site of lipid synthesis
B. Site of calcium storage
C. Site of protein synthesis
D. Site of drug detoxification

A

C. Site of protein synthesis

112
Q

Which organelle is considered the “powerhouse” and generates ATP via oxidative phosphorylation?

A. Mitochondrium
B. Lysosome
C. Nucleus
D. Ribosome
E. Golgi apparatus

A

A. Mitochondrium

113
Q

What carrier molecule transfers acyl groups between molecules?

A. ATP
B. Biotin
C. NADPH
D. CoA
E. Tetrahydrofolate

A

D. CoA

114
Q

In which cell structure is RNA transcribed and assembled?

A. Cytoplasm
B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Nucleus
D. Nucleolus
E. Golgi apparatus

A

D. Nucleolus

115
Q

Blood and bone marrow are specialized forms of which one of the four primary tissue types?

A. Epithelial tissue
B. Connective tissue
C. Nervous tissue
D. Muscle tissue

A

B. Connective tissue

116
Q

What is considered the universal currency of biochemical energy?

A. CAMP
B. GTP
C. АТР
D. dNTP
E. TNT

A

C. АТР

117
Q

A sarcomere spans which of the following lengths?

A. From I-band to I-band
B. From A-band to A-band
C. From H-band to H-band
D. From Z-disc to Z-disc

A

D. From Z-disc to Z-disc

118
Q

All of the following statements regarding cardiac muscle fibers are correct except one. Which one is the exception?

A. They may contain more than one nucleus.
B. Terminal cisternae are at the A-band to I-band junctions.
C. They are connected to one another by intercalated discs.
D. Cardiac muscle fibers may branch.

A

B. Terminal cisternae are at the A-band to I-band junctions.

119
Q

Fibrous proteins are usually which one of the following?

A. Enzymes
B. Globular proteins
C. Structural proteins
D. Hormones
E. Antibodies

A

C. Structural proteins

120
Q

Which one of the following is the net result of one molecule of glucose proceeding through the glycolytic pathway?

A. Four ATP, four NADH, four pyruvate
B. Two ATP, two NADH, two pyruvate
C. One ATP, one NADH, one pyruvate
D. Four ATP, two NADPH, two pyruvate
E. Two ATP, two NADPH, two pyruvate

A

B. Two ATP, two NADH, two pyruvate

Gen Physio (2 decks)

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