Morphogenesis + Stem Cells (lec 6/7/8) Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F) Ribosomes have the same proteins on all tissues.

A

False!

Ribosomes have slightly different proteins depending on the tissue in which they reside in!

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2
Q

Ribosomal protein _______ is concentrated in those ribosomes found in the _______ that give rise to the vertebrae.

A wild-type embryo has normal vertebrae and normal Hox gene translation. Mice deficient in the protein have _______ hox gene translation and ______ ______ of vertebrae.

A

Rpl38 (protein 38 of the large ribosomal subunit); Somites

reduced; extra pair

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3
Q

(T/F) dsRNA and miRNAs are used for RNA interference. dsRNA are added to a cell and miRNAs are produced through transcription.

A

True!

miRNAs are small transcripts that do not encode for proteins, and parts of it can form hairpin, secondary structures on itself, yielding a dsRNA.

miRNAs target mRNA, leading to its degradation and not being translated - less protein made!

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4
Q

miRNAs are processed by the _____ _____ in the cell and then exported into the _________ where it will interact with the ____-_____ ________ _______, made up primarily of _________ and __________, that prepares the RNA to be used as a guide for targeted mechanisms of interference.

A

Drosha RNAase; Cytoplasm; RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC); Dicer; Argonaute

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5
Q

What is the role of miR430 during the maternal-to-zygotic transition in zebrafish?

A

Numerous mRNAs derived from maternal contributions fuel development during the cleavage stages, but transitioning into the gastrula requires active transcription of the zygotic genome.

miRNAs play a major role in CLEARING THESE MATERNALLY DERIVED TRANSCRIPTS during this transition.

miR430 plays a major role in the interference of a majority of maternal transcripts in the zebrafish blastula as it transitions to zygotic control during gastrulation.

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6
Q

Match the different types of localization of mRNAs in the oocyte to their definitions:

1) Diffusion and local anchoring
2) Localized protection
3) Active transport along cytoskeleton

A) bicoid mRNA is TRANSPORTED ALONG MICROTUBULES by the motor protein DYNEIN to the anterior of the oocyte. Oskar mRNA is brought to the posterior by the motor protein KINESIN along microtubules.

B) nanos mRNA DIFFUSES through the egg and is BOUND (in part by the Oskar protein) at the POSTERIOR end of the oocyte. This anchoring allows the mRNA to be translated.

C) the mRNA for heat shock protein (Hsp83) will be DEGRADED UNLESS IT BINDS to a PROTECTOR PROTEIN (also at the POSTERIOR end)

A

Diffusion and local anchoring: nanos mRNA DIFFUSES through the egg and is BOUND (in part by the Oskar protein) at the POSTERIOR end of the oocyte. This anchoring allows the mRNA to be translated.

Localized protection: the mRNA for heat shock protein (Hsp83) will be DEGRADED UNLESS IT BINDS to a PROTECTOR PROTEIN (also at the POSTERIOR end)

Active transport along cytoskeleton: bicoid mRNA is TRANSPORTED ALONG MICROTUBULES by the motor protein DYNEIN to the anterior of the oocyte. Oskar mRNA is brought to the posterior by the motor protein KINESIN along microtubules.

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7
Q

In _____ __________ is a very important method to visualize where mRNAs are located.

For whole mount in situ hybridization for ODD-SKIPPED mRNA in a stage-9 drosophila embryo, antisense RNA probe with _______ _______ is conjugated to ___________.

The probe with complementarity to the odd-skipped gene becomes __________ to any cell expressing oddskipped transcripts.

Then samples are treated with ______ antibodies conjugated to the enzyme ________ __________.

This enzyme converts _______ and ________ to a blue precipitate. Thus , cells expressing the ODD-SKIPPED turn blue!

A

Situ hybridization

uridine triphosphate; digoxigenin (DIG)

hybridized

Anti-DIG; Alkaline phosphatase

NBT (Nitroblue tetrazolium chloride) and BICIP (5-bromo-4-chloro-3-indolyl-phosphate).

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8
Q

Briefly describe chromatin immunoprecipitation sequencing (ChIP-Seq) and how it works.

A

ChIP-Seq is another way to visualize the genome in development context.

Chromatin is isolated from the cell nuclei.

The chromatin proteins are crosslinked to their DNA-binding sites and the DNA is fragmented into small pieces.

Antibodies bind to specific chromatin proteins and the antibodies (and whatever bound to them) are precipitated out of the solution.

The DNA fragments associated with the precipitated complexes are purified from the proteins and sequenced.

These sequences can be compared with the genome maps to discover the precise locations of the genes these proteins may be regulating.

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9
Q

(T/F) Using RNA sequencing, you can sequence the entire genome or isolate tissues at different times and see which genes are being activated.

A

True!

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10
Q

Briefly describe how RNA sequencing works in 4 steps.

A

1) RNA is isolated to obtain only those genes that are actively expressed

2) These transcripts are then fragmented into smaller stretches and used to create cDNA with reverse transcriptase

3) Specialized adaptors are ligated to the cDNA ends to enable PCR amplification and immobilization for:

4) Subsequent sequencing

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11
Q

What is the CRISPR/Cas9 system used for?

A

It is used to cause targeted indel formation or insertional mutagenesis within a gene of interest.

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12
Q

Briefly fill in the blanks regarding the CRISPR/Cas 9 system:

A _____ ______ ____ RNA is designed and introduced into cells together with the nuclease _____, for instance by co-injection into a newly fertilized zygote.

That RNA will bind to the genome with _______ and will recruit the nuclease to induce a _____-______ break, which is fixed by NHEJ.

A

Gene-specific guide RNA (gRNA); Cas9

Complementarity; Double-stranded

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13
Q

What is NHEJ?

A

Non-homologous end joining is the cell’s DNA repair mechanism that often results in small INSERTIONS or DELETIONS (~2-30 base pairs), which can cause the establishment of a premature stop codon and potential loss of the protein’s function.

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14
Q

(T/F) Plasmids carrying insertions with homology to regions surrounding the gRNA target sites are used to insert known sequences at the double stranded break induced by Cas9. Such methods are being explored as a way to repair mutations.

A

True!

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15
Q

Briefly describe the targeted expression of the Pax6 gene in the mouth using the GAL4 system in drosophila.

A

The gene for the GAL4 transcription factor was placed downstream from an enhancer sequence that normally stimulates gene expression for imaginal discs for mouthparts.

If crosses to a strain that has a transgene that places GAL4-binding sites upstream of the Pax6 gene, IN THE PROGENY, the Pax6 gene will be expressed in whichever the imaginal disc the GAL4 protein is made.

In this case, Pax6 gene was expressed in the mouth part discs.

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16
Q

Briefly describe the Cre-lox technique for conditional mutagenesis.

A

The Cre-lox induces gene mutations in SPECIFIC CELLS ONLY!

For example, mice wild-type alleles (for any gene) were REPLACED BY ALLELES in which the second exon was FLANKED BY loxP sequences.

Then, they were MATED with mice having the gene for CRE-RECOMBINASE fused to a PROMOTER ACTIVE ONLY IN PARTICULAR CELLS (example: promoter is of albumin gene that functions only in liver).

In mice with BOTH of the altered alleles (gene flanked by loxP and gene for Cre-recombinase with a promoter), Cre-recombinase is made only in cells where the promoter is activated (liver cells that synthesize albumin).

The Cre-recombinase binds to the loxP sequences flanking exon 2 and REMOVES THE EXON. Then, only the liver cells lack the functional gene!

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17
Q

Match the different types of signaling to their definitions:

1) Juxtracrine signaling
2) Paracrine signaling
3) Endocrine signaling
4) Autocrine signaling

A) Signaling ACROSS MULTIPLE CELL DISTANCES, whereby one cell secretes a signaling protein (LIGAND) into the environment and across the distance of many cells. Only those cells expressing this ligand’s RECEPTOR can response, EITHER RAPIDLY through chemical reactions in the cytosol OR MORE SLOWLY through the process of gene expression.

B) Long range glandular/inter organ signaling of hormones.

C) A cell signaling to itself.

D) LOCAL CELL SIGNALING is carried out VIA MEMBRANE RECEPTORS that bind to proteins in the extracellular matrix (ECM) or directly to receptors from a neighbouring cell.

A

Juxtracrine signaling: LOCAL CELL SIGNALING is carried out VIA MEMBRANE RECEPTORS that bind to proteins in the extracellular matrix (ECM) or directly to receptors from a neighbouring cell.

Paracrine signaling: Signaling across MULTIPLE CELL DISTANCES, whereby one cell secretes a signaling protein (LIGAND) into the environment and across the distance of many cells. Only those cells expressing this ligand’s RECEPTOR can response, EITHER RAPIDLY through chemical reactions in the cytosol OR MORE SLOWLY through the process of gene expression.

Endocrine signaling: Long range glandular/inter organ signaling of hormones.

Autocrine signaling: A cell signaling to itself.

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18
Q

What would happen if presumptive epidermal cells and neural plate cells were dissociated and mixed together?

Why?

A

The cells REAGGREGATE so one type (presumptive epidermis) covers the other.

The cells with a GREATER cell COHESION segregate inside the cells with LESS COHESION.

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19
Q

(T/F) Because limb buds have a greater surface tension than epithelium, they re-organize themselves inside the epithelium.

A

True!

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20
Q

Aggregate surface tension correlates with the number of _________ molecules on the cell membranes.

A

cadherin

*if red cells have more cadherin than green cells, then red cells sort to the center with green cells at periphery.

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21
Q

(T/F) There are three different types of cadherin molecules (N-cadherin, P-cadherin, and E-cadherin). Sorting of cells can occur based on cadherin number even if the two cells express different cadherin proteins.

A

True!

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22
Q

E-cadherin is required for ______ in zebrafish.

During normal gastrulation, cells merge into a ______ but more expansive ________ layer that envelopes the entire _______.

E-cadherin mutants fail to complete ________, which is most severely impaired in the _________ mutant.

A

epiboly

thinner; epiblast; yolk

epiboly; homozygous

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23
Q

(T/F) During the formation of epiboly in zebrafish, cells move toward the superficial enveloping layer in relationship to decreasing expression of E-cadherin.

A

False!

During the formation of epiboly in zebrafish, cells move toward the superficial enveloping layer in relationship to INCREASING expression of E-cadherin.

E-cadherin is expressed at higher levels in the more superficial layers of the epiblast, including the envelope layer, and it is this differential expression (/adhesion) that POWERS the RADICAL MOVEMENT of deep cells to the PERIPHERY!

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24
Q

The ________ orients the movements of the mesodermal cells.

A

fibronectin

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25
Q

What are integrins?

How do they achieve their function?

A

Integrins function as TRANSMEMBRANE LINKERS (or “integrators”), mediating the interactions between the CYTOSKELETON and the EXTRACELLULAR MATRIX that are required for the cells to grip the matrix.

They form HETERODIMERIZED membrane-spanning receptor proteins that bind FIBRONECTIN on the outside of the cell while interacting with actin cytoskeleton-associated proteins on the INSIDE OF THE CELL.

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26
Q

Give examples of cytoskeleton associated proteins found in the inside of cells.

A

α-Actinin, Vinculin, and Talin

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27
Q

(T/F) Integrin is composed of three different types do subunits (α, β, and γ).

A

False! It is composed of TWO different types do subunits (α and β).

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28
Q

Normal epithelial cells are attached to one another through adherens junctions containing _______, _____, and _____ rings.

They are attached to the _______ lamina (? matrix) through ________.

_________ factors can repress the expression of genes that encode these cellular components, causing the cell to lose ______, lose _______ to the basal lamina, and lose ______ with other epithelial cells.

A

Cadherin; catenins; and actin

Basal (extracellular matrix); integrins

Paracrine; polarity; attachement; cohesion

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29
Q

Describe the epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT).

A

After epithelial cells lose polarity, attachment to basal lamina and cohesion to each other due to paracrine factors.

CYTOSKELETAL REMODELLING occurs, as well as the SECRETION OF PROTEASES that degrade the basal lamina and other extracellular matrix components of the basement membrane, ENABLING THE MIGRATION OF THE NEWLY FORMED MESENCHYMAL CELL.

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30
Q

EMT is seen is vertebrate embryos during the normal formation of:

And during the formation of the:

A

Neural crest from the dorsal region of the neural tube

Mesoderm by mesenchymal cells delaminating from the epiblast.

31
Q

Briefly answer the following questions regarding ectodermal competence and the ability to respond to the optic vesicle inducer in Xenopus:

1) Where is the optic vesicle able to induce lens formation?

2) Where is the optic vesicle NOT ABLE to induce lens formation?

3) What happens if the optic vesicle is removed?

4) What happens if tissue other than optic vesicle is implanted?

A

1) The optic vesicle is able to induce lens formation in the ANTERIOR portion of the ECTODERM.

2) It can not induce ectoderm that is not competent (trunk/abdomen).

3) If the optic vesicle is removed, the surface ectoderm forms either ABNORMAL LENS or NO LENS at all.

4) Most other tissues are not able to substitute for the optic vesicle! No induction occurs!

32
Q

Fill in the blanks regarding amphibian lens induction:

Unidentified inducers cause the synthesis of the _____ transcription factor in the head ectoderm during the late _____ stage.

As the neural folds rise, inducers from the ______ ______ _______ (including the region that forms the retina) induce _______ expression in the anterior ectoderm that can from lens tissue.

Expression of this protein may constitute the _________ of the surface ectoderm to respond to the optic vesicle during the late _______ stage.

The optic vesicle secretes _____ and ______ family paracrine factors that induce the synthesis of the _____ transcription factors and initiate lens formation!

A

Oxt2; gastrula

anterior neural plate; Pax6

competence; neurula

BMP; FGF; Sox

*competence meaning formation of receptors to the lens cells so the morphogens (bmp4 and fgf8) secreted from the optic nerve tell them to be lens!

33
Q

Match the following scenarios to their outcomes:

1) Optic vesicles: wild-type, Surface ectoderm: wild-type

2) Optic vesicles: loss of Pax6 mutation, Surface ectoderm: wild-type

3) Optic vesicles: wild-type, Surface ectoderm: loss of Pax6 mutation

4) Optic vesicles: loss of Pax6 mutation, Surface ectoderm: loss of Pax6 mutation

A) No lens induction
B) Lens induction (development of the eyes)

A

Optic vesicles: wild-type, Surface ectoderm: wild-type - LENS INDUCTION

Optic vesicles: loss of Pax6 mutation, Surface ectoderm: wild-type - LENS INDUCTION! PAX6 IS ONLY REQUIRED IN SURFACE ECTODERM FOR PROPER LENS INDUCTION.

34
Q

(T/F) Loss of Pax6 in rats results in the failure to form eyes as well as significant reductions in nasal structures.

A

True!

35
Q

Mutations in the Pax6 gene in xenopus and humans results in similar reductions in the ____ of the eye, which is a characteristic of ______.

A

Iris; Aniridia

35
Q

Define morphogens!

A

Morphogens are signaling molecules (proteins otherwise) that act over long distances (PARACRINE) to induce responses in cells based on the concentration of morphogen that the cells interact with!

Cell exposed to the highest morphogen concentrations activate certain genes, cells exposed to intermediate concentrations activate a set or genes and also inhibit the genes induced at the higher concentrations.

Cells encountering low concentrations of morphogens activate a third set of genes!

36
Q

What is Activin?

A

Activin is a morphogen (paracrine factor) that elicits expression of Xbra gene at LOWER concentrations and of Goosecoid gene at HIGHER concentrations.

No Activin: No expression of either gene

Low [Activin]: Expression of Xbra gene in nearby cells

High [Activin]: Expression of Xbra gene but only at a distance of several cells. Expression of Goosecoid gene near the source!

37
Q

(T/F) A threshold value of Activin appears to exist that determines whether a cell will express goosecoid, Xbra, or neither gene.

A

True!

38
Q

Xbra _____ the expression of goosecoid, creating a distinct boundary. This pattern correlates with the number of _______ ______ occupied on individual cells.

A

Inhibits; Activin receptors

39
Q

What happens when a ligand/paracrine factor (e.g., Fgf8/FGF) binds to the extracellular portion of receptor tyrosine kinase?

A

The binding of a paracrine factor by the extracellular portion of the receptor protein causes two receptors to dimerize (homo/hetero) and activates the DORMANT tyrosine kinase through autophosphorylation, followed by phosphorylation of specific tyrosine residues of certain intracellular proteins.

Through a series of proteins being activated, finally ERK is activated, which alters gene expression in the nucleus by PHOSPHORYLATION certain Transcription Factors or Translation Factors!

40
Q

Where is Fgf8 seen in a developing chick?

Hint: There are 6 regions!

A

1) Distal-most limb bud ectoderm

2) Somitic mesoderm (segmented blocks of cells along the posterior-anterior axis)

3) Pharyngeal arches of the neck

4) Boundary between midbrain and hindbrain

5) Optic vesicle of the developing eye

6) Tail

41
Q

The widely used RTK signal transduction pathway can be activated by _______ growth factor.

When this GF binds to a RTK, along with it bind _______ ______ _______.

A

Fibroblast

Heparan Sulfate Proteoglycans (HSPG)

*HSPG are associated with the extracellular matrix and they stabilize the RTKs and the pathway, enabling the response.

42
Q

The gene for CASEIN is activated during the _____ (________) phase of the mammary gland development, and its activation signal is the secretion of the hormone ______ from the _______ _______ ______.

This hormone causes the dimerization of the receptors in the _________ ______ _______ cells.

A

Final (lactogenic); prolactin; anterior pituitary gland

Mammary duct epithelial

43
Q

For prolactin receptors, which protein is hitched to their cytoplasmic domain?

What happens to this protein when receptors bind to prolactin?

A

JAK protein (Jak2)

When receptors bind to prolactin and dimerize, the JAK proteins phosphorylate each other and the dimerized receptors, activating the dormant kinase activity of the receptors.

44
Q

The activated prolactin receptors add a phosphate group to a _______ residue of a particular _____ protein (_______).

This addition allows the protein to
________, be _______ into the nucleus and bind to a particular regions of DNA.

In combination with other TFs, this protein activates _______ of the _____ gene!

A

tyrosine; STAT (stat8)

dimerize; translocated

transcription; casein

45
Q

Match the following factors involved in the activation of the casein gene to their definitions:

1) GR
2) OCT1
3) TBP

A) major promoter binding protein that anchors RNA pol II + is responsible for binding RNA pol II.

B) glucocorticoid receptor

C) general transcription factor

A

1) GR: glucocorticoid receptor

2) OCT1: general transcription factor

3) TBP: major promoter binding protein that anchors RNA pol II and is responsible for binding RNA pol II.

46
Q

Briefly answer the following questions regarding STAT 1:

1) What does a mutation in the gene for FGF receptor 3 (FgfR3) cause?

2) What kinds of genes are activated by Stat1?

3) What happens when Stat 1 is phosphorylated and active all the time?

A

1) A mutation in the gene for FgfR3 causes the premature constitutive activation of the STAT pathway and the production of phosphorylated Stat 1 protein (even w/out a ligand).

2) Stat1 (a TF) activates genes that cause PREMATURE TERMINATION of CHONDROCYTE cell division in GROWTH PLATES.

3) Results in cartilage growth stopping before birth. A condition called THANATOPHORIC DYSPLASIA, which has failed bone growth resulting in the death of the new born because thoracic cage cannot expand to breathe. NARROW CHEST + EXTREMELY SHORT LIMBS.

47
Q

_________ and _____-_______ are essential for Hedgehog secretion.

A

Cleavage; lipid-modifications

48
Q

(T/F) After being transported to the cell membrane, hedgehog can be secreted in four ways: as monomers, as multimer, or lipoprotein assembly and exovesicle. Membrane-associated glycoproteins (HSPG) are essential in the formation of exovesicle.

A

False!

Though after being transported to the cell membrane, hedgehog can be secreted in four ways: as monomers, as multimer, or lipoprotein assembly and exovesicle.

Membrane-associated glycoproteins (HSPG) ENABLE COMPLEX ASSEMBLY and transport (for #3).

49
Q

Why did the lamb have a cyclopic head?

A

Mother ate Veratrum californicum early in pregnancy and ingested alkaloid cyclopamine.

Sonic hedgehog mutations induce cyclopia and alkaloids (cyclopamine/jervine) from the Veratrum plant inhibits Shh signalling!

50
Q

_______ is necessary for kidney development and for female sex determination.

If knocked out, kidneys develop to fail and the ovary start synthesizing _______ and becomes surrounded by a modified ____ ____ system.

A

Wnt4

Testosterone; male duct

51
Q

Briefly answer the following questions regarding Notum antagonism of Wnt:

1) What is essential for Wnt signaling?

2) What does Notum do to Wnt signaling?

3) What would a mutated Notum lead to?

A

1) Lipidation and HSPG (glypican)

2) Wnt3A is bound to palmitoleic acid. Notum possesses the enzymatic HYDROLASE activity to cleave the lipid off Wnt3A, rendering it unable to interact with the Frizzled receptor. Therefore, Notum creates a NEGATIVE FEEDBACK MECHANISM (when Wnt binds to receptor, transcription of Notum occurs).

3) If notum was mutated and lacked the enzymatic activity, it would be unable to remove the lipid group from Wnt3A.

52
Q

_________ and ________ are critical for the regulation of Wnt signaling.

A

Phosphorylation; Ubiquitination

*If there is No wnt: b-catenin is degraded through ubiquitination and TFs are not active for the notum gene!

*if there is wnt bound to the receptor, b-catenin is not degraded and goes to the nucleus and turns on transcription of the notum gene!

53
Q

(T/F) One TGF-beta ligand can lead to phosphorylation of all Smads to regulate transcription!

A

False!

Different TGF-beta ligands lead to phosphorylation of different Smads to regulate transcription.

54
Q

(T/F) Wnt diffusion is affected by other proteins.

A

True!

55
Q

1) What is Swim?

2) What happen when Swim is not present?

3) What is Distal-less gene?

4) What happens to the Distal-less gene when Swim is not present?

A

1) Diffusion of Wingless (Wg, a Wnt paracrine factor) throughout the developing wing is enhanced by Swim, a protein that stabilizes Wg and is made by some wing cells.

2) When Swim is not present, Wg DOES NOT DISPERSE and is CONFINED to the narrow band of Wg-expressing cells.

3) Distal-less gene is present in Drosophila limb formation. It is activated by Wingless.

4) When Swim is not present, the range of Distal-less expression is CONFINED to those areas near the Wg-expressing cells.

56
Q

Fgf8 gets internalized in receiving cells. What happens to the Fgf8 gradient with an inhibition of endocytosis (caused by Dynamin LOF) or with an increased endocytosis (caused by RaB5C GOF)?

A

Inhibition of endocytosis: Shallower Fgf8 gradient over a longer distance (more morphogen travels far).

Increased endocytosis: Steeper and shorter Fgf8 gradient.

57
Q

What are the five mechanisms for shaping a morphogen (particularly Fgf8) gradient?

A

1) The difference in the rate of fgf8 transcription and fgf8 mRNA decay can influence the amount of Fgf8 protein secreted from a producing cell.

2) Fgf8 can freely diffuse

3) Fgf8 can travel rapidly along HSPG fibers for directed diffusion

4) Dense areas of HSPGs can confine and restrict Fgf8 diffusion

5) The Fgf8-FGFR complex can also be internalized by endocytosis and targeted for lysosomal degradation.

Together, these different mechanisms result in the displayed gradient of Fgf8 in cells that experience different concentrations of Fgf8 signaling.

58
Q

_______ from the ____ ____ ______ extend toward the epithelium of the wing imaginal disc in Drosophila to shuttle the ___ and ____ morphogens produced in the wing disc back to the cell bodies of the ASP.

A

CYTONEMES (cellular highway); Air Sac Primordium (ASP); FGF and Dpp.

Morphogens are not transported from cell to cell. They can be transported from tissues to tissues!

59
Q

In the chick limb bud, long and thin ________ protrusions have been documented extending down from the Sonic Hedgehog producing cells in the _______ region and from the Shh target cells in the ______ limb bud.

These opposing ______ directly interact and when they do, the Shh and its receptor (on the target cell) _____ can bind!

A

Filopodial; posterior; anterior

Filopodia; Patch

*in this case morphogens are being handed over and not just something that spread over

60
Q

Briefly answer the questions regarding the mechanism of Notch activity:

1) Prior to Notch signaling, what is bound to the enhancer of Notch-regulated genes?

2) What kinds of ligands bind to the Notch protein and where?

3) What does binding of the ligand cause?

A

1) A CSL (CBF1, Suppressor of Hairless, Lag-1) transcription factor is on the enhancer of Notch-regulated genes. The CSL binds the REPRESSORS of transcription.

2) Ligands such as Delta, Jagged, or Serrate protein binds to the EXTRACEULLULAR DOMAIN of the Notch protein on an adjacent cell.

3) Binding causes a SHAPE CHANGE in the INTRACELLULAR DOMAIN of Notch, activating a PROTEASE. This protease cleaves Notch protein to enter the nucleus and bind the CSL TF. Then, it displaces the repressor proteins and binds to the activators of transcription, activating transcription.

61
Q

On C. elegans, lin-12 is the ______ and lin-3 is the _____ growth factor.

A

Notch; Epidermal growth factor (EGF)

62
Q

The LIN-3 signal from the anchor cell causes the determination of the ____ cell to generate the _______ vulval lineage.

Lower concentration of LIN-3 cause the ____ and ____ cells to form the _______ vulval lineages.

The P6.p cells also secrete a short-range ________ signal that induces the neighboring cells to activate the ______ protein. This signal prevents the ____ and ____ cells from generating the primary ______ vulval cell lineage.

A

P6.p cell; Central

P5.p; P7.p; Lateral

Juxtacrine; LIN-12 (Notch)

P5.p; P7.p; Central

63
Q

What is the fundamental notion of a stem cell?

A

The fundamental notion of a stem cell is that it can make more stem cells while also producing cells committed to undergoing differentiation. This process is called ASYMMETRIC cell division!

64
Q

Which one of the statements is false?

1) A population of stem cells can also be maintained through population asymmetry (not just single cell asymmetry). A stem cell can divide symmetrically to produce either two stem cells or two committed cells. This is aka symmetrical renewing or symmetrical differentiating.

2) In many organs, stem cell lineages pass from a multipotent stem cell to a committed stem cell that makes one or very few types of cells to a progenitor cell that can proliferate for multiple rounds of divisions but is transient in its life and is committed to a particular cell.

3) Symmetrical renewing decreases the stem pool by one, while symmetrical differentiating increases the stem pool by one.

A

3!

Symmetrical renewing INCREASES the stem pool by one, while symmetrical differentiating DECREASES the stem pool by one.

65
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) can divide to produce more HSCs. HSC daughter cells are capable of becoming ________ progenitor cells or _______ progenitor cells. The lineage path each cell takes is regulated by the HSC’s microenvironment.

A

lymphoid; myeloid

lymphoid progenitor cells divide to form cells of the adaptive immune system, while myeloid progenitor cells divide to become other blood cell precursors.

66
Q

What are some of the external and internal molecular mechanisms that can influence the quiescent, proliferative, or differentiative behaviours of a stem cell?

A

External:
- paracrine signaling
- extracellular matrix (ECM) adhesion
- mechanical force
- cell adhesion
- juxtacrine signaling
- endocrine signaling
- neurotransmitter release

Internal:
- asymmetric localization of cytoplasmic determinant
- epigenetic regulation
- transcriptional regulation

67
Q

What are the three principal cell types from a morula to a blastocyst of a mouse?

A

1) Trophectoderm
2) Epiblast
3) Primitive Endoderm

68
Q

Depending on the axis of cell division in the trophectoderm, the trophectoderm layer can be expanded or the inner cell mass (ICMO) can be seeded.

What allows for each?

A

Expansion of Trophectoderm:
Symmetrical division PARALLEL to apicobasal axis

ICM cell created:
Asymmetrical division PERPENDICULAR to apicobasal axis

69
Q

1) What is Parabiosis?

2) What happened when an old mouse was parabiosed to a young mouse?

3) What happens when you administer GDF11 into the circulatory system in an old mouse?

A

1) Parabiosis: fusion of the circulatory system of two individuals

2) When an old mouse was parabiosed to a young mouse, the result was an INCREASE in the amount of VASCULATURE as well as the amount of PROLIFERATIVE NEURAL PROGENY in the old mouse.

3) Administering GDF11 (typically higher in young mice) into the circulatory system of an old mouse was sufficient to increase vasculature and the population of neural progenitors.

70
Q

Embryonic stem cells and embryonic germ cells are the two major sources of pluripotent stem cells from the early embryo.

Where are each acquired from?

A

Embryonic stem cells (ESCs) arise from culturing the INNER CELL MASS of the early embryo.

Embryonic germ cells are derived from PRIMORDIAL germ cells that have NOT REACHED the gonads.

71
Q

Embryonic stem cells (ESCs) can be coaxed with the same development factors (paracrine and TFs) to differentiate into the cell types of each germ layer.

With the inhibition of several growth factors, ESCs can make _______ lineages.

For ________ and ________ lineages, ESCs are first induced to become ________ ______ cells (PS) with paracrine factors such as Wnt, Bmp4, or activin, depending on the desired differentiated cell type.

A

Ectoderm

Mesoderm; Endoderm; Primitive streak-like

72
Q

Briefly describe the protocol for curing a “human” disease (sickle-cell anemia) in a mouse using iPS cells plus recombinant genetics.

A

1) TAIL-TIP FIBROBLASTS are taken from a mouse whose genome contains the human alleles for sickle-cell anemia (HbS) and no mouse genes for this protein.

2) The cells are cultured + infected with viruses containing the TFs to INDUCE PLURIPOTENCY.

3) The iPS cells are identified by their distinctive shapes and are given DNA containing the wild-type allele of human globin (HbA).

4) The embryos are allowed to differentiate in culture. They form “embryoid bodies” that contain blood-forming stem cells.

5) Hematopoietic progenitor and stem cells from these embryoid bodies are injected into the original mouse, which has been irradiated to clear out its original hematopoeitic cells. This cures sickle-cell anemia.