Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IPT: Hem/Onc/Transplant > More More Block 1 > Flashcards

More More Block 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Process of formation and development of new blood cells that begins with hematopoietic stem cells and requires an adequate supply of minerals (e.g., iron) and vitamins

Erythropoiesis
Hematopoiesis

A

Hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Process which produces new red blood cells that is controlled by a feedback system involving the kidneys and bone marrow

Erythropoiesis
Hematopoiesis

A

Erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a hemoglobin?

A

Protein in RBC that carry oxygen and made up of 4 globulin hains and an associated heme group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which is absorbed better, heme or non heme iron?

A

Heme iron by 3x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which one is affected by food via absorption, heme or non heme iron?

A

Non heme iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How is excess iron excreted in the body

A

No physiologic mechanism other than blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AE of iron?

A

Heartburn, nausea, UPPER ab pain, diarrhea + constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How much ferrous salt is considered toxic?

A

1-2g is capable of death, esp in young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bioavailability of iron in fasting patients?

A

With food, it is about 1/3-1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Newest non-salt iron replacement drug name? Benefits?

A

Ferric maltol (Accrufer)

Option for pt intolerant of iron salts + prevents IV iron therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which parenteral iron therapy has BBW of anaphylaxis?

A

Iron dextran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Erythropoietin receptors are a member of which family of proteins? How do they exist?

A

Cytokine receptor family as dimers at the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In EPO therapy, what can develop? (AE)

A

Iron deficiency, may stimulate some types of tumor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epoetin alfa vs darbepoetin alfa, plasma half life?

A

Epoetin alfa = 4-8hrs

Aranesp = 21 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Epoetin alfa vs darbepoetin alfa, which one is nearly identical to endogenous hormone?

A

Epoetin alfa, it is a recombinant human EPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is darbepoetin alfa modified?

A

4 AA mutations for additional carb side chains, it prolongs the circulatory survival of drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is chelate?

A

Chemical complex of metal ion and a multidentate ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Iron overload can cause damage to what? What is an example of an chelator?

A

Many organs such as liver and heart

DFO (Deferoxamine) a hexadentate iron chelator

DFP (Deferiprone) BIDENTATE chelator

DFX (Deferasirox) TRIDENTATE chelator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Deferoxamine half life and dosing?

A

Half life = 20-30min

IV or SQ over 8-12 hrs, 5-7 days/week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Deferoxamine AE?

A

Growth retardation, bone abnormalities, ophthalmological and auditory disorders

Negative impact on life, compliance is an issue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Deferiprone half life and dosing?

A

Half life = 3-4hrs

Oral dosing (TID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Deferiprone AE?

A

Agranulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Deferasirox half life and dosing?

A

Half life = 8-16hrs

Oral dosing (QD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Deferasirox admin issues?

A

Poorly soluble in water, so mixed as suspension in fruit juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vincristine
Vinblastine
Vinorelbine

Which one causes myelosuppression?

A

Vinblastine

Vinorelbine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vincristine
Vinblastine
Vinorelbine

Which one causes peripheral neuropathy?

A

Vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Paclitaxel
Docetaxel
Cabazitaxel

Which one causes hypersensitivity?

A

All of them, Pacilitaxel and Cabazitaxel are pretreated w/ H1 and 2 antagonist and glucocorticoid

Docetaxel should be pretreated with dexamethasone only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Paclitaxel
Docetaxel
Cabazitaxel

Which one causes progressive fluid retention ?

A

Docetaxel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mercaptopurine MOA and AE

A

ATase inhibitor, blocks synthesis of AMP and GMP

Poor TPMT metabolizers are at risk for myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones belong to a class of pyrimidine antimetabolites?

A

5-FU

Capecitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones are DNA polymerase inhibitors?

A

Cytarabine

Gemcitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones are thymidylate synthase inhibitors?

A

5-FU

Capecitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones belong to a class of cytidine antimetabolites?

A

Cytarabine

Gemcitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones have AE of toxicity due to DPD deficiency?

A

5-FU

Capecitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones have AE of hand-foot syndrome?

A

Capecitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

5-FU
Capecitabine
Cytarabine
Gemcitabine

Which ones should not be used with radiotherapy unless in closely monitored clinical trials?

A

Gemcitabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which one binds to topoisomerase II?

A

Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which ones are considered the anthracycline topoisomerase inhibitors?

A

Doxorubicin

Mitoxantrone

39
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which ones are camptothecin topoisomerase inhibitors?

A

Irinotecan

40
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which ones causes blue-green feces and urine?

A

Mitoxantrone

41
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which ones will cause AML after 2 years of therapy (in 2-12% of children)

A

Etoposide

42
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which ones uses dexrazoxane as a protective agent?

A

Doxorubicin

43
Q

Irinotecan
Etoposide
Doxorubicin
Mitoxantrone

Which ones are epipodophyllotoxin topoisomerase inhibitors?

A

Etoposide

44
Q

Which target in anticancer immunotherapy was the first target?

A

IL-2

45
Q

MOA of IL-2?

A

Stimulates T cells and NK cells to attack cancer cells

46
Q
  • ximab
  • momab
  • mumab
  • zumab

Chimeric
Human
Humanized
Mouse

A

Mouse - momab
Humanized - zumab
Chimeric - ximab
Human - mumab

47
Q

How does targeting PD-1 achieve anticancer effects?

A

Elevates production of autocrine paracrine cytokines

Enhances production of CD8 cells and cytotoxicity

48
Q

Therapeutic cancer vaccine pearl?

A

Does not prevent cancer occurence

49
Q

T-VEC pearls?

A

Injected directly into melanoma tumors and attacks cells regardless of cancer genotype

Tumor needs to be large enough to be accurately located

50
Q

Cisplatin
Carboplatin
Oxaliplatin

Which one is treated with amifostine?

A

Cisplatin; for kidney toxicity

51
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one causes women to clear less and has a higher chance of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia?

A

Temozolomide

52
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one alkylates O6 of guanine?

A

Carmustine

Lomustine

53
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one alkylates N7 of guanine?

A

Cyclophosphamide

Ifosfamide

54
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one causes CNS toxicity cause it can easily cross BBB?

A

Carmustine

Lomustine

55
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one is considered the most neurotoxic DNA alkylating agent?

A

Ifosfamide

56
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one methylates O6 of guanine?

A

Dacarbazine

Temozolomide

57
Q 
Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide
Carmustine
Lomustine
Dacarbazine
Temozolomide

Which one causes kidney and bladder toxicity?

A

Cyclophosphamide
Ifosfamide

Mesna is used to prevent the bladder toxicity

58
Q

Which kinase inhibitors inhibit MEK?

A

traMEtinib (Mekinist)

cobiMEtinib (Cotellic)

59
Q

What disease do the MEK inhibitors target?

A

V600E melanoma

BRAF drugs do this too

60
Q

What drugs are used in combo with the MEK inhibitors?

A

traMEtinib (Mekinist) + dabrafenib (BRAF drug)

cobiMEtinib (Cotellic) + vemurafenib (BRAF drug)

61
Q

What are the mTOR inhibitors?

A

Temsirolimus + Everolimus

62
Q

mTOR inhibitor AE?

A

Increased infection % and delayed wound healing

63
Q

Thalidomide, pomalidomide, and lenalidomide AE?

A

Birth defects and thromboembolism

Only lenalidomide has myelosuppression

64
Q

Cobimetinib vs Trametinib, which one is taken on an empty stomach?

A

Trametinib

65
Q

Cobimetinib vs Trametinib

Hepatotoxicity

A

Cobimetinib

66
Q

Cobimetinib vs Trametinib

Vascular disorders

A

Trametinib

67
Q

Cobimetinib vs Trametinib

Rhabdomyolysis

A

Cobimetinib

68
Q

What is the only HER2 drug?

A

Lapatinib (tykERb)

Liver issues

Diarrhea, acneiform rash

Take on an empty stomach

69
Q

What are the EML4-ALK drugs?

A

crizotinib (xALKori) + ALectinib (ALecensa)

70
Q

What disease do the EML4-ALK target?

A

NSCLC

71
Q

EML4-ALK AE?

A

Lung disease + QT prolongation

Only crizotinib (xALKori) has an addition of liver toxicity

72
Q

Which Rx target EGFR?

A

ERlotinib + osimERtinib

73
Q

What disease do EGFR drugs target?

A

NSCLC w/ EGFR mutation

74
Q

ERlotinib vs osimERtinib, which one must be taken on an empty stomach?

A

ERlotinib

75
Q

ERlotinib vs osimERtinib, which one is effective against T790M gatekeeper mutant?

A

osimERtinib

76
Q

EGFR AE?

A

Both have interstitial lung disease

ERlotinib = diarrhea, acneiform rash

osimERtinib = QT-prolongation

77
Q

What are the CDK4/CDK6 drugs?

A

palboCICLib, riboCICLib, abemaCICLib

78
Q

What disease do the CDK4/CDK6 drugs cover?

A

HR+, HER2- breast cancer

79
Q

CDK4/CDK6 drugs AE?

A

All = neutropenia

riboCICLib = QT prolongation, liver toxicity

abemaCICLib = diarrhea

80
Q

Which drug targets BTK (Brutons tyrosine kinase)?

A

iBRUtinib

81
Q

BTK AE?

A

Myelosuppression, anemia

82
Q

BTK disease target?

A

B cell lymphoma and leukemia

83
Q

What do the BRAF drugs target?

A

V600E melanoma

MEK drugs target this too

84
Q

What are the drugs that target 26S proteasome?

A

“…zomib”

bortezomib and ixazomib

85
Q

bortezomib and ixazomib, which one is the prodrug?

A

Ixazomib, dosed as PO

Bortezomib is dosed as IV

86
Q

bortezomib and ixazomib, which one has boronic acid functional group?

A

Bof

87
Q

Which rx is effective against T315l mutant?

A

Ponatinib

88
Q

What are the PARP drugs used for?

A

BRCA-mutated breast or ovarian cancer

89
Q

PARP drug AE?

A

MDS or AML

90
Q

What are the drugs that target Pl3K-delta?

A

iDELalisib

91
Q

What disease does Pl3K-delta cover?

A

CLL and NHL

92
Q

Pl3K-delta drug AE?

A

Liver toxicity, pneumonitis, GI issues

93
Q

What drug targets FLT3?

A

Midostaurin

94
Q

What drug targets HDAC?

A

Panobinostat

IPT: Hem/Onc/Transplant (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions