Block 3 More Flashcards

1
Q

Ovarian cancer and when it’s discovered, whats the issue?

A

Once it’s found, its usually stage 3/4 so survival rate is kinda doodoo

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2
Q

RF for ovarian cancer?

A

Age ≥70

Menopause

Late pregnancy ≥35yo

2+ more 1st degree relatives w/ this cancer

Breast cancer FH

Estrogen w/o progesterone for ≥10yrs

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3
Q

Poor prognostic factors for ovarian cancer?

A

Clinical stage (most important, usually stage III)

FH

Grade of tumor

BRCA1/2 (higher chance of cancer, but survival is higher, hmmm)

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4
Q

Prevention + screening for ovarian cancer?

A

Prevent via:

oral contraceptives ≥5yrs
Surgery RRSO
Have given birth
Breastfeeding >1yr

Screening: nothing really, but high risk can do surgery RRSO between age 35-40 after child is born

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5
Q

Surgery goals + ovarian cancer?

A

Microscopic = no residual disease

Optimal <1cm

Suboptimal >1cm

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6
Q

Surgery for ovarian cancer, fertility and no fertility requirements?

A

Fertility wanted = 1A or 1C, one ovary is removed, 1B = both ovaries removed

No fertility needed = I - IV; total removal of uterus + ovaries or just both ovaries alone

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7
Q

Generic chemo for ovarian cancer includes..?

A

Taxane + Platinum agent

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8
Q

Carboplatin AE?

A

Hypersensitivity, N/V

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9
Q

Bevacizumab dosing and surgery considerations and AE?

A

1st dose = 90min
2nd = 60
3rd = 30

Hold for 6 weeks from debulking post op

AE = bleed, decreased wound healing, GI issues

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10
Q

Intraperitoneal chemo requirements for ovarian cancer?

A

Stage 3 (<1cm)

Overall, pretty good standing

≤65yrs old

No prior surgery

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11
Q

Intraperitoneal toxicity management?

A

Warm IP to body temp

Hydration

Anti-emetics

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12
Q

Rucaparib
Olaparib
Niraparib

AE?

A

Rucaparib = cholesterol, liver

Olaparib = pneumonitis

Niraparib = HTN, palpitations

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13
Q

RF for cervical cancer?

A

HPV 16 + 18 (most important factor*)

Early sexual h/o (<18)

Multiple partners

Oral contraceptives >5yrs

Smoking

Immunosuppression

≥3 full term pregnancies

Low socioeconomic status

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14
Q

What is the gardasil vaccine?

A

HPV vaccine for ages 9-45 for both men and women

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15
Q

Gardasil scheduling?

A

Age 9-14; 2 dose series at months 0 and 6-12

15-45; 3 dose series at months 0,2,6

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16
Q

What makes up most of the cervical cancer cases (what cell type)?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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17
Q

Whats given in cervical cancer w/ radiation?

A

Radiation + cisplatin or carbo or cisplatin + 5-FU

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18
Q

Chemo regimen for advanced/recurrent cervical cancer

A

Cis/carboplatin + paclitaxel + bevacizumab

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19
Q

What drug/classes are used for induction immunosuppression?

A

ATG (rabbit + equine)

Basiliximab

Methylprednisolone

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20
Q

ATG class MOA?

A

Polyclonal AB that deplete T cells

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21
Q

ATG class AE?

A

Cytokine release syndrome; fever, chills, rigors, pulmonary edema, hypotension

^pre-treat with APAP, benadryl, steroids. If rigors keeps existing, use meperidine/cyclobenzaprine

Cytopenia

Infection

PTLD

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22
Q

Basiliximab MOA?

A

Chimeric monoclonal AB that targets CD-25/IL-2. It does NOT deplete T cells, but rather makes them inactive for 4-6 wks

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23
Q

Basiliximab AE?

A

Virtually none, no premedication required

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24
Q

Who needs ATG drug?

A

Young, black, blood group incompatibility issues, DGF/DSA or PRA>20%, cold ischemia time >24hrs, and those who need to avoid steroids

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25
What drugs are used for maintenance immunosuppression?
Calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, tacrolimus) Anti Proliferatives (Aza, MMF, MPS, mTORi) Steroids Co-stimulation inhibitor (belatacept)
26
How is cyclosporine monitored via peak/trough?
Use 2 hr peak and 12 hr trough; C2 is better for cyclosporine due to differences in formulations
27
Cyclosporine AE?
Gingival hyperplasia, HTN, hyperlipidemia, kidney damage, hirsutism
28
What kind of substrate is cyclosporine?
P-gp + CYP3A4 Inducers ~ carbamazepine, rifampin, phenobarbital, phenytoin, st. johns wart = so less cyclosporine levels
29
What should be avoided when taking cyclosporine?
NSAIDs, aminoglycosides, amphoteracin
30
Tacrolimus vs Cyclosporine monitoring peak/trough differences?
Tacrolimus correlates well with the 12hr trough
31
Tacrolimus AE?
Tremors, diabetes, alopecia
32
Azathioprine MOA?
Prodrug converted to 6-MP that is a purine (A/G) analog that inhibits both T + B cells
33
Azathioprine AE?
Liver issues, consider lowering dose/dc if they have infection
34
Azathioprine DDI?
Allopurinol
35
Mycophenolate MOA?
Inhibits IMPHD and depletes guanosine stores and also blocks T + B cells More effective vs Azathioprine
36
Conversion of MMF to MPS?
1000mg MMF = 720mg MPS
37
MMF/MPS AE?
N/V/D; consider lowering dose/dc if they have infection MPS has better GI effects
38
MMF/MPI DDI?
PPI only affect MMF
39
Sirolimus MOA?
mTOR inhibitor Prevents G1 to S phase of cell cycle Blocks IL-2 mediated T cell proliferation
40
How is sirolimus monitored via peak/trough?
Only checks 24hr trough 12hr trough for everolimus though
41
Sirolimus AE?
Hypertriglyceridemia, thrombosis, proteinuria, delayed wound healing BBW: give med after a month with liver transplant and 3 months for lung transplant due to artery thrombosis
42
Belatacept MOA?
Co-stimulates CD28 to CD80/86
43
How to you treat acute (cellular) rejection?
Mild/Moderate = methylprednisolone 500mg IV 3-5days + augment therapy Moderate/Severe = methylprednisolone 500mg IV 3-5days + augment therapy + anti-thymocyte agent
44
What are the sources of stem cells?
Peripheral blood stem cells thru leukapheresis Umbilical cords Bone marrow from iliac crest
45
G-CSF drugs? MOA?
Filgrastim Makes more neutrophils
46
G-CSF AE? PK?
Bone pain Onset = 1-2 days
47
GM-CSF drugs? MOA?
Sargramostim Makes more neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, macrophages
48
GM-CSF AE? PK?
Capillary leak syndrome, infusion related issues, SVTs, plus a lot of AE CI = yeast allergy Onset = 7-14 days
49
Plerixafor AE? PK? Monitoring?
Onset = 6-9hrs Will cause fetal harm (use back up method for 1wk after) Must be given w/ or after filgrastim
50
Donors of peripheral blood stem cell, what do they have to do?
~5 days prior to donating, they must be on daily mobilizing agents
51
Autologous vs allogeneic Which one is donor ≠ host?
Allogenic Autologous donor is host
52
Autologous vs allogeneic Which one REQUIRES MAC?
Autologous requires just that one Allogeneic can use MAC or RIS
53
Autologous vs allogeneic Which one is cure the final objective?
Allogeneic
54
Autologous vs allogeneic Which one requires immunosuppression?
Allogeneic
55
Autologous vs allogeneic Which one has a lower risk of graft failure?
Autologous
56
Purpose of Ursidiol?
Prevent SOS (sinusoidal obstructive syndrome)
57
Acute GVHD clinical presentation? Chronic
Skin, Liver, GI issue (usually <100 days) Chronic hits all organs
58
How is chronic GVHD categorized?
Mild = 1-2 organs affected insignificantly (except lungs) Moderate = 1 significant organ affected or 3+ organs not significantly affect or mild lung impairment Severe = moderate lung impairment or 1 major organ disability
59
What are the high risk patients for infection?
Allogeneic Alemtuzumab users Acute leukemia High dose steroids (>20mg prednisone) Anticipated neutropenia >10days
60
Physiologic response of infection in NON neutropenic pt vs neutropenic pt?
NON = chills, fever, increased WBC, microbiology results Neutropenic = just fever
61
Definition of fever?
Oral temp ≥38.3 C or 101 F ≥38 C or 100.4 F for ≥1hr
62
Bugs found in neutropenia?
G+ = S. aureus G- = Pseudo + Entero
63
Low vs High MASCC and whats included in the high category?
≥21 = low <21 = high; duration 7-10 days, allogeneic, alemtuzumab
64
What do give during neutropenic prophylaxis? Bacterial? Fungal? HSV/VSV?
Bacterial = FQ Fungal = Triazole or echinocandin HSV/VSV = acyclovir or valacyclovir All duration is during neutropenia
65
Outpatient + oral TREATMENT of neutropenic fever
Cipro AND Augmentin | Levo
66
Inpatient + TREATMENT of neutropenic fever? Complications?
Cefepime is DOC Can do ceftazidime, carbapenem, or zosyn Infected line? Add vanco Pneumonia during flu season? Add oseltamivir