Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Parasitology > More Exam II Questions > Flashcards

More Exam II Questions Flashcards

0
Q

Which parasite is yellow in color with wide mandible mouthpart?

A

Trichodectes canis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Which parasite has long palps and an anal groove anterior to the anus?

A

Ixodes spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

“Bee-like” with vestigial mouthparts and black spines?

A

Cuterebra spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Narrow, pointed nose, slow-moving, and has piercing mouthparts.

A

Linognathus setosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Rectangular basis capituli, short palps, ornate scutum with festoons.

A

Dermacentor spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Hexagonal basis capituli, short palps, inornate scutum with festoons.

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

500 micrometers, round body, short legs with anterior 2 pairs extending beyond body.

A

Sarcoptes scabiei.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

“Cigar-shaped” and entirely in follicles.

A

Demodex canis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

“Walking dandruff”

A

Cheyletiella yasguri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Spindle/leaf-shaped Trypomastigotes.

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

2 sporocysts with 4 sporozoites with small intestine SOI.

A

Cystoisospora canis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tachyzoite/bradyzoit development in extraintestinal tissues and organs.

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SOI = monocytes and neutrophils

A

Hepatozoon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SOI = RBC

A

Babesia canis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What species discussed belongs to the class mastigophora?

A

Giardia intestinalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This species has a third stage larvae that is red with course spines.

A

Gasterophilus intestinalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This species has a third stage larvae that is yellow and has 1 row of spines/segment.

A

Gasterophilus nasalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This species has sticky hairs on pad-like structures at the end of clawed legs.

A

Musca autumnalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This species has a rigid, forward projecting, piercing mouthpart.

A

Stomoxys calcitrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This species lays eggs in rotting organic material.

A

Musca autumnalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This species lays eggs in decaying vegetable matter.

A

Stomoxys calcitrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

This species lays eggs in marshy ground.

A

Culicoides spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This species can be found on the distal part of the limb of its host.

A

Chorioptes bovis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dx method for Alaria spp?

A

Sedimentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dx method for Cheyletiella yasguiri

A

Adhesive tape measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Dx method for trypanosoma cruzi?

A

Blood smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Dx method for Hepatozoon spp?

A

Biopsy of muscle tissue for schizonts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Dx method for Dirophilaria immitis?

A

ELISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Dx method for Toxoplasma gondii?

A

ELISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Dx method for Demodex canis?

A

Skin scrape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dx methods for Sarcoptes scabiei?

A

Skin scrape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dx methods for Spirometra spp?

A

Fecal flotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dx method for Taenia pisiformis?

A

Fecal flotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dx method for Cystoisospora canis?

A

Fecal flotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Dx method for Stongyloides westeri?

A

Baermann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dx method for Oxyuris equi?

A

Adhesive tape measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Dx method for Dictyocaulus arnfieldi?

A

Baermann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Dx method for Parascaris equorum?

A

Fecal flotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Treat these final host with Praziquantel / cestocides.

A

Alaria spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would the treatment be for Sarcocystis neurona?

A

Triazine-derivative drugs (Ponazuril)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Best treatment for these species is sanitation and reduce breeding sites.

A

Musca and Stomoxys spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How would you treat a Cuterebra infestation?

A

MCLs, Imidacloprid (Advantage) and Fipronil (Frontline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How would a Diphyllobothrium latum infection be prevented?

A

Don’t feed uncooked fish.

Treat with cestocidal drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How can a Toxoplasma gondii infection be prevented?

A

Avoid contact with feces and uncooked meat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How can Hepatozoon spp infection be prevented?

A

Through tick control (R. sanguineus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What can treat a Dirofilaria immitis infection?

A

MCLs and DEC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Sarcoptes scabiei?

A

Selamectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Giardia intestinalis can be treated with?

A

Fenbendazole or albendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Effective treatment requires breaking the life cycle of this insect species.

A

Ctenocephalides spp.

49
Q

Trichodectes canis can be treated with these.

A

Carbaryl-containing shampoo, sprays and dips

50
Q

What is the life cycle and infective stage for:

1) Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
2) Dirofilaria immitis
3) Acanthocheilonema (Dipetalonema) reconditum
4) Draschia megastoma
5) Habronema musca/majus

A

1) Indirect L3
2) Indirect L3 by insect
3) Indirect L3 by insect
4) Indirect L3
5) Indirect L3

51
Q

What are the life cycles and infective stages of:

1) Parascaris equorum
2) Stongyloides westeri
3) Strongylus vulgaris
4) Strongylus equinus
5) Strongylus edentatus

A

1) Indirect L2 in egg
2) Direct L3
3) Direct L3
4) Direct L3
5) Direct L3

52
Q

What are the life cycles and infective stages of:

1) Small strongyles
2) Oxyuris equi
3) Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
4) Setaria equina
5) Onchocerca cervicalis
6) Oslerus osleri

A

1) Direct L3
2) Direct L3
3) Direct L3
4) Indirect L3 by insect
5) Indirect L3 by insect
6) Direct L1

53
Q 
Parascaris equorum may cause which of the following
A. "Summer sores"
B. Lyme disease
C. Sparganosis 
D. "Summer Colds"
E. Chaga's disease
A

D. “Summer colds”

54
Q

Culicoides spp. may cause which TWO of the following:
A. “Queensland itch”
B. Lyme disease
C. Flea bite allergy
D. Bluetongue virus/African Horse Sickness
E. Blindness

A

A. and D.

55
Q 
Trypanosoma cruzi may cause which of the following:
A. Lyme disease
B. RMSF
C. Chaga's disease
D. Blindness
E. Macrocytic anemia
A

C. Chaga’s disease

56
Q 
Diphyllobothrium latum may cause which of the following:
A. Feline Ischemia Encephalopathy
B. Macrocytic anemia
C. Vector for D. caninum
D. Sparganosis
E. Blindness
A

B.

57
Q 
Ixodes spp. may cause which of the following:
A. Lyme disease
B. Macrocytic anemia
C. Vector for D. caninum
D. Sparganosis
A

A.

58
Q 
Draschia megastoma may cause which of the following:
A. "Summer colds"
B. "Summer sores"
C. "Queensland itch"
D. Vector for D. caninum
A

B.

59
Q 
Small Strongyles may cause which of the following:
A. "Summer sores"
B. "Summer colds"
C. Nodular Cyathostomiasis
D. Macrocytic anemia
A

C.

60
Q 
Dermacenter spp. may cause which of the following:
A. Lyme disease
B. Blindness
C. RMSF
D. Macrocytic anemia
A

C.

61
Q 
Cuterebra spp may cause which of the following:
A. Chaga's disease
B. RMSF
C. Feline Ischemia Encephalopathy 
D. Lyme disease
A

C.

62
Q 
Trichodectes canis may cause which of the following:
A. Vector for D. caninum
B. RMSF
C. Sparganosis
D. Blindness
A

A.

63
Q 
Ctenocephalides felis may cause which of the following:
A. Flea bite allergy/dermatitis 
B. Macrocytic anemia
C. "Summer sores"
D. Vector for D. caninum
A

A.

64
Q 
You remove a hard tick from a dog at your clinic. Under the microscope you see an anal groove and long palps. This is:
A. Dermacentor spp
B. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
C. Ixodes spp
D. Cheyletiella yasguri
A

C.

65
Q

Match the parasite with the infective stage:

1) Stongyloidea A. Direct L3
2) Trichostrogylidae B. Direct L2 in egg
3) Habronematoidea. C. Direct L2
4) Oxyuroidea. D. Indirect L3
5) Ascaridoidea. E. Indirect Oncosphere

A 
A. 
A.
D.
A.
B.
66
Q

Match infective stage:

1) Parascaris equorum. A. Direct L3
2) Draschia megastoma. B. Indirect L2
3) Strongyloides westeri C. L2 in egg
4) Large Strongyles. D. Indirect L3

A

C. D. A. A.

67
Q

Match parasite with final host:

1) Ostertagia ostertagi A. Humans
2) Trichuris vulpis. B. Feline
3) Oxyuris equi C. Cattle
4) Taenia saginata. D. Horse
5) Platynosomum fastosum E. Canine

A 
C. 
E.
D.
A.
B.
68
Q

Match site of infection with parasite:

  1. Small intestine A. Gasterophilus intestinalis
  2. Large intestine B. Anoplocephala magna
  3. Margo plicatus. C. Oxyuris equi
  4. Lungs. D. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi
  5. Abomasum. E. Haemonchus placei
A 
B.
C.
A.
D.
E.
69
Q

Match clinical signs in cattle:

  1. Fasciola hepatica. A. Minimal to none
  2. Fascioloides magna. B. Impaired production
  3. Hypoderma lineatum. C. Butchers jelly
  4. Haematobia irritans. D. Anemia
A

D.
A.
C.
B.

70
Q

Match the Diptera with the correct site of egg deposition:

  1. Culicoides spp. A. Urine soaked hay
  2. Tabanus spp. B. Fresh feces
  3. Haematobia irritans. C. Marshy areas
  4. Musca autumnalis. D. Fresh wounds
  5. Stomoxys calcitrans. E. Decaying organic material
A 
C.
C.
B.
B.
E.
71
Q

Matching-clinical signs in horses:

  1. Habronema muscae. A. Catarrhal colitis
  2. Parascaris equorum. B. Arteritis in cranial mesenteric artery
  3. Strongylus vulgaris. C. Summer cold
  4. Small Strongyles. D. Summer sores
A

D.
C.
B.
A.

72
Q

Match the parasite with the correct IH(s)

  1. Echinococcus multiocularis. A. Cattle
  2. Taenia saginata. B. A louse
  3. Dipylidium caninum. C. Orbatid mite
  4. Anoplocephala magna. D. Copepod, freshwater fish
  5. Diphyllobothrium latum. E. Humans
A 
A.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73
Q

Match the parasite with the correct lesion

  1. Dicturocaulus viviparous A. Moroccan leather
  2. Ostertagia ostertagi. B. Perianal irritation
  3. Oxyuris equi. C. Exogenous hydatid cyst
  4. E. multiocularis. D. Pipe stem liver
  5. Fasciola hepatica. E. Air hunger
A 
E.
A.
B.
C.
D.
74
Q

T or F

Cheyletiella yasguri is a burrowing mite.

A

False

75
Q

How do cats become infected with Otodectes cynotis?
A. They are picked up from the environment
B. They are picked up for the first few days of nursing from the mother
C. Direct contact
D. Cats are not a final host for Otodectes cynotis

A

C.

76
Q

All of the following are true of Rhipicephalus sanguineus, except:
A. Scutum is inornate and festoons are present
B. They can survive indoors for an extended period of time
C. They are commonly found between toes and on ears
D. They have a rectangular basis capituli

A

D.

77
Q 
A colt is infected with Parascaris equorum. What is the most likely way he was infected?
A. Transplacental
B. Direct ingestion of infective stage
C. Transmammary
D. PH
A

B.

78
Q

Which is the correctly matched group?
A. Sheep-Fascioloides magna-Accidental host
B. Sheep-Fascioloides magna-Aberrant host
C. Cattle-Fasciola hepatica-IH
D. Cattle-Fascioloides magna-FH

A

B.

79
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning Gasterophilus nasalis?
A. Eggs are deposited on the forelegs and shoulders
B. Site of infection is the duodenum ampulla and pylorus
C. The 3rd instar has 1 row of spines/segment and is yellow
D. It can infect all equids

A

A.

80
Q 
If you see a horse with urticaria, what would be a potential diagnosis?
A. Parascaris equorum 
B. Stongyloides westeri
C. Draschia megastoma
D. Small strongyles
A

B.

81
Q

Which statement is false concerning Dictyocaulus arnfieldi?
A. It is in the family Trichostrogylidae
B. it’s site of infection is the bronchi of the lungs
C. A Baermann test is used for diagnosis
D. It is common in all species of equids
E. Typically clinical signs are not observed in light infections

A

D.

82
Q 
Which Large Strongyle is responsible for fever?
A. Strongylus vulgaris
B. Strongylus edentus 
C. Strongylus equinus
D. Strongylus megastoma
A

B.

83
Q 
What is the site of infection for Strongyloides westeri?
A. Lungs
B. Subcutaneous 
C. Stomach
D. Small intestine
A

D.

84
Q 
Upon fecal examination you find a 1-2 cm nematode with ear-shaped teeth. What is you diagnosis?
A. Strongylus vulgaris
B. Strongylus edentatus 
C. Parascaris equorum
D. Draschia megastoma
A

A.

85
Q 
What is the SOI for small strongyles?
A. Lungs
B. Small intestine
C. Stomach 
D. Cecum and colon
A

D.

86
Q

T or F

Pruritus is a clinical sign for Sarcoptes scabiei and Demodex canis.

A

False

87
Q 
You discover a bluish green fly with orange eyes. Which of the following is not true about this fly?
A. They only mate once
B. they are reportable
C. They love infected wounds
D. They cause Blowfly Strike
A

C.

They like fresh, uninfected wounds

88
Q

How do cattle get the condition of “Pearly Beef”?

What cestode causes this?

A 
By ingesting the Oncosphere that humans have shed in their feces.
Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm; pearly beef)
89
Q 
Your horse is showing signs of neural damage: stumbling, paresis, constipation, and urinary incontinence. What stage of the parasite is responsible for the neural damage?
And, what parasite is responsible?
A. Tachyzoite
B. Trypomastigote
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Sporocysts
E. Bradyzoites
A

E.

Sarcocystis neurona

90
Q

What is the best way to treat/prevent Haematobia irritans?
A. Remove all urine soaked hay
B. Remove all decaying material
C. Make backrubbers with insecticides available in pasture
D. Treat water where they lay their eggs

A

C.

91
Q

Which is not a clinical sign of Ostertagia ostertagi?
A. Bottle jaw
B. Increased pH of abomasum
C. Moroccan leather of the abomasum
D. Persistent green diarrhea in the winter months

A

D.

92
Q

Which description is correct of a typical Trichostrogyloid egg?
A. Oval
B. Oval, thin-shelled
C. Oval, thin-shelled, rough outer surface
D. Oval, thin-shelled, rough outer surface, 85 micrometers

A

B.

93
Q 
What is the infective stage for horse stomach worms?
A. L1 in fly
B. L2 in larvae
C. L3 in pupae
D. L3 in fly
A

D.

94
Q

If your mare’s tail is roughed up what is the best way to diagnose the cause?
A. Baermann
B. Peri-anal scraping with a staple blade
C. Fecal float
D. Sedimentation
E. Peri-anal scraping with a tongue depressor

A

E.

95
Q

T or F

Parascaris equorum does not partake in hepatic-tracheal migration.

A

False

96
Q 
All are modes of infection for Strongyloides westeri, except:
A. Transplacental
B. Transmammary
C. Direct ingestion of infective egg
D. Subcutaneous penetration
A

A.

97
Q

Match the parasite to its diagnosis:

  1. Sarcoptes scabiei. A. Skin biopsies
  2. Cheyletiella yasguri B. Fecal flotation
  3. Oxyuris equi. C. Skin scraping
  4. Onchocerca cervicalis. D. Bronchial washing
  5. Chorioptes bovis. E. Adhesive tape swab
A 
C.
E.
E.
A.
C.
98
Q

Match the parasite to the infective stage to the FH:

  1. Giardia intestinalis. A. Cysts
  2. Eimeria leukarti B. Bradyzoite cyst in ms. of IH
  3. Cystoisospora canis. C. Ingestion of tick (A. maculatum)
  4. Sarcocystis neurona. D. Sporulated oocyst
  5. Hepatozoon americanum E. Trophozoite
A 
A.
D.
D.
B.
C.
99
Q

Match the parasite with its SOI:

  1. Babesia spp. A. Abomasum
  2. Trypanosoma cruzi. B. Erythrocytes
  3. Ostertagi ostertagi. C. Cecum
  4. Gasterophilus intestinalis. D. Margo plicatus
  5. Oesophagostomum. E. Cardiac and sm ms
A 
B.
E.
A.
D.
C.
100
Q 
This parasite causes cattle to adopt the classic "air hunger" position of open mouth breathing when infection is severe.
A. Haemonchus placei
B. Faschioloides magna
C. Cooperia
D. Dictyocaulus viviparous 
E. Parascaris equorum
A

D.

101
Q

All of the following are true regarding the New World Screwworm, except:
A. Adult female flies lay their eggs on fresh, uninfected wounds on the host
B. Sterilized males have been used to mate with the females
C. Females mate several times during their lifetime
D. The common condition caused by the family Calliphoridae is termed “Blowfly Strike”
E. The adult females like to lay their eggs in castration wounds, wire cuts, and the navels of newborn animals.

A

C.

102
Q

These lice are gregarious and form dense isolated clusters on cattle:
A. Linognathus vituli and Damalinia bovis
B. Linognathus vituli and Haematopinus eurysternus
C. Damalinia bovis and Trichodectes canis
D. Linognathus bovis and Chorioptes bovis
E. Haematopinus eurysternus and Damalinia bovis

A

B.

103
Q 
This parasite of cattle, sheep and goats has a "watch spring" posture on the mucosa of the small intestine and together with Ostertagi are the most common Nematodes of weanling age cattle in North America.
A. Cooperia
B. Oesophagostomum
C. Haemonchus placei
D. Taenia saginata 
E. Strongyloides westeri
A

A.

104
Q

All of the following are pathogenesis and lesions due to the larvae of Strongylus vulgaris except:
A. Aberrant migration through the coronary, carotid, external iliac, and spermatic arteries
B. Necrosis of the tissues as a result of obstruction of circulation to the area, which is also known as infarction
C. Arteritis of the ileocolic arteries
D. Plugs of mucosa are removed from the large intestine
E. Thrombus formation

A

D.

105
Q

How at Cyathostomins treated and prevented?

A

The evidenced-based approach in which fecal egg counts are performed and the deworming regimen is customized for the individual horses based on their contaminative status within the herd is the best practice to avoid anthelmintic resistance.

106
Q

All of the following are correct pairings of parasite and their IH except:
A. Habronema majus and Stomoxys calcitrans
B. Onchocerca cervicalis and Mosquitoes
C. Anoplocephala perfoliata and Oribatid mite
D. Sarcocystis neurona and Cats
E. Taenia saginata and Cattle

A

B.

107
Q

T or F

Amblyomma variegatum have very long palps and hypostome, an ornate scutum and are one host ticks.

A

False.

They are a three host tick. Everything else is true.

108
Q

Rhipicephalus spp are the only ticks in cattle that do not have to be reported/submitted to state veterinarians for positive ID.
True or false.

A

False.

They do need to be reported.

109
Q

T or F.
The Spinose ear tick (Otobius spp) lay eggs in crevices in walls and feeding troughs and the adults are parasitic feeding on the ears of cattle and dogs.

A

False.

The adults are not parasitic, the nymphs and larvae are.

110
Q

Haematobia irritans prefer to feed on the horns of cattle.

True or false.

A

False

They cluster around the horns when not feeding. Their feeding sites re the back, sides, and abdomen.

111
Q

T or F

If the larvae of Hypoderma lineatum die in the esophageal wall they may cause bloat in cattle.

A

True

112
Q

T or F
Type II disease, or winter ostertagiosis, occurs in yearlings following their first grazing season,results from the maturation of arrested L4, and commonly occurs in feedlots.

A

True

113
Q

T or F

The diarrhea of calves with Type II ostertagiosis is persistent and bright green in color.

A

False.

This describes Type I.

114
Q

T or F

In Type II ostertagiosis the morbidity is usually high, but the mortality rate is usually very low.

A

False.

Morbidity is low and mortality is high.

115
Q

T or F
Type II ostertagiosis responds very well to anthelmintics and following treatment animals should be moved to pasture that has been grazed by cattle the same year.

A

False.

Field where outbreak originated should be rested or grazed but sheep

116
Q

All of the following are true regarding Protozoa of canines and felines, except:
A. Water filters with pores 10 micrometers or smaller can be used to prevent infections with Giardia intestinalis
B. Trypomastigotes of Trypanosoma cruzi are found in the blood and the amastigotes are found in the cardiac and smooth muscle cells
C. The developing schizonts of Cytauxzoon spp infecting cats can cause enlargement of the infected leukocytes, erythroblasts, and MO to 75 micrometers.
D. Pregnant women who have been previously exposed to Toxoplasma gondii have circulating Ab, however cars do not develop immunity and continue to she’d the protozoan for life.

A

D.

117
Q 
This Trematoda causes fibrosis of the liver and a "pipe-stem" appearance. It also liberates a toxin that causes anemia and hyperplasia of the bile ducts.
A. Taenia saginata
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Anoplocephala magna
D. Fascioloides magna
E. Draschia megastoma
A

B.

118
Q 
Humans become infected with Taenia saginata by ingesting
A. Cysticercus
B. Oncosphere 
C. Sporulated oocyst
D. Cysticercoid
E. Unsporulated oocyst
A

A.

119
Q

The following describes which species of flies:
Known as the gadfly
Large fly
Mouthparts are adapted for bloodsucking
Lay eggs in muddy areas on vegetation and stones

A

Tabanus spp

120
Q

Which if the following pairs (parasite:diagnosis) is correct:
A. Dictyocaulus arnfieldi : Fecal sedimentation
B. Parascaris equorum : Adhesive tape
C. Oxyuris equi : Baermann test
D. Eimeria leukarti : Western Blot Test
E. Anoplocephala magna : ELISA

A

E.

Parasitology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions