Molecular Biology Exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

The structure in a prokaryotic cell that contains the genome. The DNA is bound to proteins and is not enclosed by a membrane.

A

Nucleoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The state of nuclear DNA and its associated proteins

A

Chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A discrete unit of the genome carrying many genes. Each consists of a very long molecule of duplex DNA and an approximately equal mass of proteins. It is visible as a morphological entity only during cell division.

A

Chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or False: DNA primarily exists as condensed units rather than loose, double helices.

A

True.

The actual state of DNA is highly compacted genetic material via proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Active process in which DNA is driven into the head of a virus by an adenosine triphosphate (ATP) dependent mechanism.

A

Translocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

An enzyme that cleaves multimers of a viral genome and then uses hydrolysis of ATP to provide the energy to translocate the DNA into an empty viral capsid with the cleaved end,

A

Terminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or False: The bacterial genome is a supercoiled nucleoid

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In reference to a chromosome, this refers either to a discrete structural entity defined at a region within which supercoiling is independent of other regions, or to an extensive region including an expressed gene that has a heightened sensitivity to degradation by the enzyme DNase.

In a protein, it is a discrete continuous part of
the amino acid sequence that
can be equated with a particular
function

A

Domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most domains in terms of of a chromosome are __ kb (kilobases) in length.

A
  1. Recent research suggests they may be 10kb in length, however.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

NAPs stands for

A

Nucleoid-associated proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Interphase chromatin consists of a tangled mass with topologically isolated domains which average around ________ kb (kilobases)

A

85kb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

DNA attached to proteinaceous structures in interphase nuclei are called ____ _____ ______.

A

Matrix attachment regions (MARs) or Scaffold attachment regions (SARs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MARs sequences are usually ___ rich.

A

A-T rich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The form of chromatin that comprises most of the genome in the interphase nucleus, which is less tightly coiled than heterochromatin and contains most of the active or potentially active single-copy genes.

A

Euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Regions of the genome that are highly condensed, less transcribed, and late replicating. It is divided into two types, constitutive and facultative.

A

Heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The common form of heterochromatin that always remains heterochromatic is called _____ _____.

A

Constitutive chromatin

It is near permanently condensed, replicated late in S phase and has a reduced frequency of genetic recombinations.

Consists of multiple repeats.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Type of chromatin in which regions of euchromatin are converted to a heterochromatic state.

A

Heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bands generated on eukaryotic chromosomes by staining techniques that appear as a series of lateral striations.
They are used for karyotyping (identifying chromosomes and chromosomal regions by the banding pattern)

Stained with Giemsa dye.

A

G-bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Densely staining granules visible in chromosomes under certain conditions, especially in meiosis.

A

Chromomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

True or False: Telomeres do not have simple repeating sequences.

A

False. Telomeres DO have simple repeating sequences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

We know that telomeres must be a special structure because chromosome ends generated by breakage are “sticky”, and tend to react with other chromosomes, whereas natural ends are stable.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The single stranded ___ rich tail of the telomere can form a G-quadruplex because ______ bases have the ability to associate with one another.

A

G-rich

Guanine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The human centromere consists of _____ satellites or ____ satellite repeats.

A

Alpha, alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do eukaryotes resolve the telomere shortening problem?

A

With telomerase, which is an enzyme that adds repeating units to the 3’ end of the telomere. Primarily active only in germ cells and stem cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Telomerase is a special ______ _____, or reverse transcriptase.

A

DNA polymerase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Unusually large chromosomes in diptera in certain tissues. Dark bands represent ______ while lighter bands represent _______.

A

Dark bands = chromomeres, inactive

Light Bands = interbands, active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Polytene chromosomes undergo ______, which arises from multiple rounds of replication, but sister chromatids remain synapsed (adhered) to each other.

A

Endoreduplication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In terms of polytene chromosomes, what physical change occurs that signifies gene expression being induced.

A

Puffs, or rather when the bands expand in response to gene expression. They quite literally “puff” up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Replication of DNA involves the stages of ____, _____, and, _____.

A

Initiation, elongation, and termination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Before initiation can occur, the replication origin region of the chromosome must be negatively supercoiled or _____.

A

Unwound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the negative supercoiling at the replication origin and the subsequent relaxation of positive supercoils ahead of the moving replication fork?

A

Topoisomerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Read: Initiation involves recognition of an origin via a large protein complex. Before DNA synthesis can begin, the parental strands must be separated and transiently stabilized in the single-stranded state, creating a replication bubble.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a multiprotein structure that assembles at the bacterial replication fork to undertake synthesis of DNA?

It contains DNA polymerase and other enzymes.

A

Replisome (It’s in the name, dummy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

After initiation begins, ____ can begin. It is undertaken by another complex of proteins known as ______.

A

Elongation

Replisome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The replisome exists as a persistent protein unit OR de novo and reassembled at the origin for each replication cycle.

Choose one.

A

The replisome exists de novo and is reassembled at the origin for each replication cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

DNA Polymerases are the enzymes which make _______.

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Some DNA polymerases involved in replication have nuclease activity in addition to the ability to synthesize DNA. Which way do they excise DNA?
3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity or 5’ to 3’ exonuclease?

A

Both. DNA polymerase 1 has a unique 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity in addition to its 5’ to 3’ synthetic and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many subclasses of errors exist that DNA polymerases can make during replication?

A

2.

  1. Substitutions: improperly paired nucleotide incorporation. The error frequency is determined by the efficiency of proofreading.
  2. Frameshifts: When an extra nucleotide is inserted OR one is omitted.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A site in the genome of which the frequency of mutation (or recombination) is very much increased, usually by at least an order of magnitude relative to neighboring sites.

A

Mutation hotspots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

DNA polymerases replicate ____ to ____ (direction).

A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In MAMMALS, the origin of replication does or does not have an identifiable sequence?

A

In mammals, the origin of replication does not have an identifiable sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The region or unit of DNA or RNA that replicates from a single origin of replication.

Prokaryotes typically have one.
Eukaryotes typically have multiple.

A

The Replicon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Replication strand growth can be unidirectional, bidirectional, or both?

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DNA replication requires priming. Therefor, DNA polymerase requires a ______ to initiate DNA synthesis.

A

3’-OH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Primase is needed for primer synthesis —> Short RNA primer is synthesized —> DNA is synthesized by DNA polymerase.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are other mechanisms of priming? Name three.

A
  1. A preformed RNA (tRNA) can be used common to some retroviruses.
  2. A nick is introduced in DNA –rolling circle
  3. A protein covalently linked to a nucleotide (this is used by some viruses, it’s called a priming protein)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Once unwound, DNA strands have different modes of synthesis.

One, is _______ while the other is ______.

A

Discontinuous

Continuoius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Topisomerase 1 is involved in cutting one strand of DNA.

Topoisomerase 2 cuts 2 strands.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Recombinase is similar to _____________.

A

Topoisomerase 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

attB/attP, the b = bacteria, the p = phage

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lysogenic cycle leads to

A

Genome integration prophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Lytic cycle leads to

A

Replication, packaging and cell lysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Integrase is an enzyme involved in

A

Phage integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Xis factor involved in integrated genome does what?

A

Excises the gene placed there (or target gene)

Knockout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Somatic recombination

A

Eukaryotic recombination that occurs in non-germ cells (not in meiosis)

Yeast mating type switching
V(D)J recombination of immunoglobulin genes in immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Must be two different types of yeast cells to mate. One is ___ and the other is ___.

A

a

alpha

Two a cells cannot mate. Two alpha cells cannot mate. They have receptors on their surface which recognize the other variant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In yeast, the mating type information is encoded at the ______.

A

Mating Type Locus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

With yeast cells, each subsequent generation becomes the opposite type. a to alpha, alpha to a, etc.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Three loci in yeast for mating information, HMLalpha, MAT, HMLa.

Which expresses identity?

A

MAT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In yeast, the mating type switching occurs by replacement of _______ locus with opposite ______ cassette. This is non reciprocal.

A

MAT, MAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

HO endonuclease used for cutting open two strands, just like SPOI11 for switching mechanism in

A

Yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Because MATa/alpha is not identical, HMLa and HMLalpha are found via flanking (side) genes of the middle MATa/alpha

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What happens to a yeast cell of mating type “a” when its HO gene is mutated?

A

It will remain as mating type “a”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Fragmented pieces of DNA part of the discontinuous strand

A

Okazaki Fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is used to link okazaki fragments?

A

DNA Ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the name of the E. coli origin?

A

oriC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

On the leading strand, or forward strand, DNA synthesis can proceed (continuously or in fragments) toward the 5’ to 3’ direction.

However, on the lagging strand, synthesis can proceed (continuously or in fragments).

A

Continuously

in fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Fragments of DNA that must be annealed back together with ligase enzymatic activity.

A

Okazaki fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

E.coli origin, oriC, is ____ bp in length.

A

245 bp

70
Q

Why is oriC A-T rich instead of G-C rich?

A

Easier to melt/denature.

71
Q

During initiation, _____ binds to the 9mers, bends the DNA, and then proceeds to unwind the ____.

A

DnaA-ATP tetramer (four ATP)

unwinds at the 13mers

72
Q

DnaA recruits ______ and __________.

A

DnaA recruits DnaB and DnaC.

73
Q

DnaB is an ___________.

A

ATP dependent 5’-3’ helicase.

74
Q

DnaC is a _____________.

A

Chaperone and suppressor of DnaB.

75
Q

in terms of regulation of initiation, what is the inactive form of DnaA-ATP?

A

DnaA-ADP.

When converted to this, it dissociates from oriC.

76
Q

DnaG acts as a ________ at the initiation site?

A

A primase. DnaG generals small RNA primers.

77
Q

DnaG binds to ____ which causes ______ to dissociate, consequently activating _______.

This is called the _______ ________.

A

DnaG binds to DnaB which causes DnaC to dissociate through ATP inactivation, consequently activating DnaB.

This is called the initiation complex.

78
Q

What are the three other factors (proteins) involved/required for initiation?

A

Hu: DNA binding protein

Gyrase: Type II topoisomerase

SSB: Single stranded binding protein

79
Q

Initiation builds how many replication forks?

A

Two. Once the DNA is “melted” and unwound, two replication forks are formed inside the replisome at opposite ends.

80
Q

How many 13bp and 9bp repeats does oriC have?

A

Three 13mer and four 9mer repeats.

81
Q

DNA synthesis in eukaryotic organisms requires a licensing factor. What exactly do the licensing factors do?

A

They control replication. A licensing factor is present in the nucleus prior to replication, removed, inactivated or destroyed by replication and then later resynthesized in the cytoplasm.

82
Q

What are ARS?

A

Autonomously replicating sequences

83
Q

What is the ORC?

A

The origin of replication complex.

84
Q

What is the likely purpose of ORC?

A

To identify origin for the replication machinery. Well conserved.

85
Q

What is Cdc6?

A

A licensing factor made in G1 phase and binds to ORC.

86
Q

Does ORC remain attached to the origin all the time?

A

Yes.

87
Q

The ability of a phage to survive in a bacterium as a stable prophage component of the bacterial genome.

A

Lysogeny.

In simpler terms, the phage lives as part of the chromosome, awaiting synthesis.

88
Q

What is a plasmid ale to integrate into bacterial DNA called?

A

An episome.

All episomes are plasmids, but not all plasmids are episomes.

89
Q

How is the dilemma of linear replication solved when initiation would begin at the end of a top strand 5’ end?

A

By converting the replicon into a circular or multimeric molecule.

90
Q

Adenovirus uses strand displacement to….

A

Grow strands by displacing the previous homologous strand of the duplex.

91
Q

What is a terminal protein?

A

A protein that allows the replication of a linear phage genome to start at the very end. it attaches to the 5’ end of the genome through a covalent bond, and is associated with a DNA polymerase, and contains a cytosine residue that serves as a primer.

92
Q

The dsDNA viruses adenovirus and O29 have terminal proteins which initiate replication by generating a new 5’ end.

A

The newly synthesized strand displaces the corresponding strand of the original duplex.

93
Q

Rolling circles also help solve the issue of terminal end DNA replication/initiation. What do rolling circles produce in terms of a replicon?

A

Multimers of a replicon.

94
Q

Describe the steps of rolling circle replication.

A
  1. A template of circular duplex DNA is present.
  2. A nick at the origin in the strands splits them to reveal a 5’ P end and a 3’ -OH end.
  3. Elongation of growing strands begins and displaces old strands (lead by the 5’ end facing out/away)
  4. After one revolution, displaced strand reaches unit length
  5. Continued elongation generates a displaced strand of multiple unit lengths.
95
Q

What are used to replicate phage genomes?

A

Rolling circles.

96
Q

The ΦX174 A protein is a (cis or trans) acting relaxase that generates single-stranded circles from the tail produced by rolling
circle replication.

A

cis

97
Q

Conjugation is mediated by the ____ plasmid.

A

F plasmid

98
Q

An episome that can be free or integrated in E. coli and that can sponsor conjugation in either form.

A

F plasmid

99
Q

A segment on the F plasmid that is required for bacterial conjugation.

A

Transfer region

100
Q

The presence of the F plasmid, whether free or integrated, has important consequences for the host bacterium. Bacteria that are F-positive (contain the episome) are able to conjugate and mate with bacteria that are F-negative.

If the F plasmid exists as a free plasmid in the donor bacterium, what occurs?

A

It is transferred to the F-negative bacteria and converts it into an F-positive bacteria.

101
Q

What do F-positive bacteria possess on their surfaces?

A

Surface appendages called pili.

They are encoded by the F plasmid.

102
Q

traA encodes the single subunit protein ____ which is polymerized into the pilus (or multiple pili)

A

Pilin

103
Q

parA, ParB, parS are involved in proper partitioning in

A

F plasmid transfer and replication.

104
Q

A set of plasmids unable to coexist in the same bacterial cell.

A

Compatibility group

105
Q

in the event of a compatibility group within a cell, what is normally the fate?

A

At cellular division, one cell will get one set of plasmid, whilst the remaining will contain an opposing set.

106
Q

The bacterial ______ plasmid can transfer genes into plants.

A

Ti plasmid

107
Q

Why is Agrobacterium tumefaciens important?

A

It is able to act as a parasite and contained gene-editing system. It is capable of changing a plants genes and create new mechanisms in existing structures as a result. Even in the absence of A. tumefaciens, the new genes will continue to be expressed in the plant cells.

108
Q

What is a Ti plasmid?

A

It is a tumor inducing replicon that caries genes involved in various bacterial and plant cell activities.

109
Q

What three loci on the Agrobacterium chromosome are required for the initial stage of binding the bacterium to the plant cell?

A

chvA, chvB, and pscA

110
Q

Non-homologous end joining is mainly involved during…

A

DNA damage

111
Q

Transposable elements jumping can cause a change in

A

DNA sequences

112
Q

Mutation examples:

A

Deamination (amino group lost)

UV dimerization (UV light causes thymine dimers formation)

Replication

Alkylation

Depurination

113
Q

Most DNA damage causes what?

A

Detectable structural distortion

114
Q

Thymine dimerization by UV light fusion creates a cyclobutane ring incorporating the two.

A
115
Q

Direct repair (in lower organisms) involves

A

Inappropriate covalent bonds reversed by light dependent enzymes (not in most humans or animals)

Lower organisms, not available in placental mammals

116
Q

Repair mechanisms in higher organisms:

A
  1. Replication repair (Proofreading of newly synthesized DNA)
  2. Error-prone repair (Translesion polymerases inserts any base when template base unrecognizable.
117
Q

Polymerase I and III are used in ______ in bacteria.

A

DNA replication in bacteria.

118
Q

In prokaryotes, Polymerase IV and V are involved in ______.

A

DNA repair

Error Prone repair

Translesion repair

119
Q

What type of damage are DBS (double strand breaks)?

A

Severe

120
Q

For DBS, what kind of repair is prefered?

A

Recombination repair

A last resort is non-homologous end joining.

121
Q

Most eukaryotic cells repair DNA breaks by…

A

NJEJ pathways (Non-homologous-end joining)

122
Q

When the cells are not dividing, you don’t make a copy or pair, so Non-homologous-end-joining will be more prevalent.

When cells are dividing in S phase or G2 phase with DNA replication errors you can find a sister chromosome and copy the information. This is homologous recombination.

A
123
Q

Mismatch repair does what?

A

Scrutinizes DNA for appropriate base pairing.

124
Q

Many human cancers are caused by mutations in mismatch repair. What are the most prevalent forms caused by this?

A

Skin cancer

125
Q

In mismatch repair, the system must know which strand is the daughter strand which strand is the parental strand. Otherwise, what can occur?

A

Mutations.

126
Q

Base excision repair involves….

A

directly removing damaged bases

127
Q

Nucleotide excision repairs are more common and involves what?

A

Removing a small stretch of DNA including the damage. Keyword SMALL

128
Q

Four proteins involved in nucleotide excision repair in prokaryotes (this process accounts for 99% of E.coli repairs):

A

UvrA (recognizes damage and binds to UvrB)

UvrB (Holds position, UvrA released, UvrC binds)

UvrC (nicks DNA on both sides of damage)

UvrD ( unwinds region, releasing damaged strand)

129
Q

Eukaryotic nucleotide excision repair involves…

A

XP

Global genome repair -> XPC scanning for mutations –> Ds DNA break by XPG (endonuclease)

130
Q

Eukaryotic base excision repair uses what do remove the base? This enzyme is what separates the system from nucleotide excision repair

A

DNA Glycosylase

131
Q

What system would deal with repair of Thymine dimers: Base excision repair or nucleotide excision repair

A

Nucleotide excision repair. Thymine dimerization happens on the same strand and incorporates dimerization horizontally of two thymines. Because of this, the nucleotide excision repair would be best fit.

Base excision repair is ONLY FOR ONE BASE

132
Q

Long patch pathway vs short patch pathway

A

Long patch = AP endonuclease breaks backbone (APE1 in humans) –> Polymerase extends 2-10 nucleotide displacing bases

Short patch = Lyase opens sugar ring –> Single base repair

133
Q

Protein system mut genes help prevent what

A

Errors in genome

134
Q

How are strands (parental/daughter) strands distinguished?

A

-FILL IN LATER-

Involves mut. methylated DNA on daughter, unmethylated on parental strand.

135
Q

What does MutS do?

A

Recognizes mismatch in DNA and recruits MutL.

136
Q

What does MutL do?

A

Uses ATP to translocate along DNA to a GATC motif.

Here it recruits endonuclease MutH which cuts the non-methylated strand.

Eukaryotic cells also have this same system.

137
Q

What proteins are required for packaging DNA into a new phage?

A

Terminase

138
Q

Which of the following protein is associated with bacterial DNA?

A

Basic proteins

139
Q

What protein is associated with the DNA in maize and the humans ?

A

Histones

140
Q

Which of the following is true of MARs (Matrix associated Regions) ?

A

It is often close to Topoisomerase II sites

141
Q

Giemsa staining produces white-black patterns in a chromosome, and FISH can detect the location of a specific piece of DNA. If you compare the Giemsa bands and the FISH signal for a gene of interest, where do you most likely to see a colocalization?

A

A white band

142
Q

Which of the following has helicase activity ?

DnaG
DnaA
DnaB
DnaC

A

DnaB

143
Q

Which of the following is the primase in bacteria ?

DnaB
DnaC
DnaA
DnaG

A

DnaG

144
Q

Which activity does the bacterial primase have ?

A

RNA polymerase

145
Q

What enzymatic activities does DnaA have?

A

ATPase

146
Q

What is the licensing factor for DNA replication in eukaryotes?

A

Cdc6

147
Q

T/F : In yeast, the ARS is bound by ORC only during the initiation of DNA replication

A

False. It is always bound.

148
Q

E. coli needs 40 minutes to replicate its chromosome and another 20 minutes to divide. For a bacterial culture that doubles its cell number every 35 minutes, how frequently DNA polymerase starts replication?

A

Every 15 min

149
Q

Which of the following is required for septum formation, and has GTPase activity ?

ftsZ
ParA
ZipA
ftsK
Tus

A

ftsZ

150
Q

Mutation in which of the following genes would cause the phenotype shown below (mini cells)?

A

Min C/D

151
Q

Q4. Which of the following is NOT involved in chromosomal segregation in bacteria ?

Tus
OriC
Ter
ZipA
ftsZ

A

OriC

152
Q

T/F: Plasmid partitioning requires binding of parA and parB to box A and boxB respectively, and bending of the central region of parS by IHF.

A

False

153
Q

Which of the following extrachromosomal DNA is used for genetic engineering of plants ?

Agrobacteria Ti plasmid
Phage φX174
The circular chromosome in E. coli
Adenovirus

A

Agrobacteria Ti plasmid

154
Q

True/False: During conjugation between bacteria with and without F plasmid, DNA is transferred as double-stranded DNA.

A

False

155
Q

True/False: Telomerase is required to complete DNA replication in all living organisms and viruses.

A

False

156
Q

During agrobacteria infection, which protein nicks the DNA and initiates transfer.

VirD2
None of the others
VirA
VirE2

A

VirD2

157
Q

True/False: Homologous recombination occurs only in germ cells.

A

False

158
Q

In yeast, SPO11 is a _____

A

endonuclease

159
Q

Which of the following protein/protein complex is involved in resolving the holiday junction during homologous recombination?

RAD51
Spo11
The Ruv complex
DNA ligase
The MRN complex
RecA

A

The Ruv complex

160
Q

Homologous recombination is initiated when a _______ is introduced by an ____.

single-strand break, exonuclease
double-strand break, exonuclease
double-strand break, endonuclease
single-strand break, endonuclease

A

double-strand break, endonuclease

161
Q

Which of the following proteins is responsible for the invasion of the 3’ single-stranded overhang into the double-stranded DNA of its non-sister chromatid during homologous recombination?

Spo11
RecA
The MRN complex
5’-3’ exonuclease
The Ruv complex

A

RecA

162
Q

True/False: During DNA replication, topoisomerase releases the tension in DNA by cutting open the two strands.

A

False

163
Q

The lamda phage Integrase acts most similarly to_____.

A

Topoisomerase I

164
Q

The Cre/LoxP system is used by which of the following organism:

Animals
Yeast
Plants
P1 phage

A

P1 phage

165
Q

T/F: DNA integration and excision mediated by the Cre recombinase is irreversible.

A

False.

166
Q

T/F: Integrase is required for the insertion of lamda phage into, but not essential to its excision out of the host (bacterial) genome.

A

False

167
Q

After mating type switching, what would happen to a yeast cell that has a mating type alpha and a nonfunctional HMRa locus (the diffusible mating type product is not functional)?

A

It cannot mate because it will have a nonfunctional Mata locus

168
Q

If a Thymine dimer is formed in bacterial DNA , it will be recognized by which of the following protein?

UvrC
MutS
UvrB
UvrA
DNA glycosylase

A

UvrA

169
Q

In bacteria, a G is replaced by a A, it will be recognized by which of the following protein?

UvrB
UvrC
MutS
UvrA
DNA glycosylase

A

MutS

170
Q

In humans, the equivalent of bacterial UvrA is:

XPG
MutH
XPA
XPC
APE1

A

XPC

171
Q

If a Thymine dimer is found in the bacterial genome, which of the following enzymes will be recruited for repair?

Pol IV or V
Pol I only
Pol I or III
Pol I, III, IV or V
Pol III only

A

Pol I should be the right answer, but Pol IV and V are also involved at times.

172
Q

If the DNA is broken in a human epidermal cell (not dividing), which of the following mechanisms will be most likely employed for repair?

Base excision repair
NHEJ
Direct repair
Nucleotide excision repair
Homologous recombination repair

A

NHEJ