Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Security+ > Módulo 10 - Protocol, App and Cloud Security > Flashcards

Módulo 10 - Protocol, App and Cloud Security Flashcards

1
Q

List:
Components of virtualization

A
  1. Physical machine (host OS)
  2. Virtual machine (guest OS)
  3. Virtual hard disk (VHD)
  4. Hypervisor
  5. Containerization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List:
Advantages of virtualization

A
  1. Flexibility
  2. Security
  3. Testing
  4. Server consolidation
  5. Isolation (sandboxing)
  6. Application virtualization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List:
Disadvantages of virtualization

A
  1. Security issues
  2. Bottleneck
  3. Complexity
  4. Server sprawl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

List:
Load balancing methods in virtualization

A
  1. Resource pooling
  2. Workload balancing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define:
Virtualization

A

The process of installing and running multiple operating systems concurrently on a single physical machine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define:
Virtual machine (VM)

A

A software implementation of a computer that executes programs like a physical machine, also known as a guest operating system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define:
Hypervisor

A

A thin layer of software allowing virtual machines to interact with hardware without using the host OS. Types include Type I (bare-metal) and Type II (hosted).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define:
Containerization

A

A virtualization method enforcing resource separation at the OS level by creating isolated containers for applications or OS distributions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define:
VM escape

A

A vulnerability where an attacker breaks out of a VM’s isolated environment and gains access to the host system or other VMs on the same host.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define:
Resource pooling (in virtualization)

A

Creating shared logical pools of CPU and memory resources from multiple physical machines within the hypervisor to allocate resources to VMs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define:
Sandboxing

A

Isolating a virtual machine from the network to test applications, updates, or malware without risking production environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define:
Load balancing

A

A technique that distributes workloads across multiple resources to improve performance, ensure high availability, and provide fault tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define:
Server sprawl

A

A condition where managing a large number of virtual machines delays patching and security updates, increasing administrative complexity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acronym:
VHD

A

Virtual Hard Disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List:
Important facts about virtual networks

A
  1. Virtual machines support unlimited virtual networks.
  2. Multiple virtual networks can share a single physical network adapter.
  3. Network configuration depends on host OS and physical hardware.
  4. Resources are partitioned into virtual devices with defined capacities.
  5. Bandwidth is split into independently secured channels.
  6. Virtual DHCP server assigns IPs to virtual machines.
  7. OS on virtual machines must be network-configured.
  8. Internal network virtualization uses software to emulate a network.
  9. External network virtualization combines or segments LANs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

List:
Network virtualization service providers

A
  1. VMware
  2. Microsoft
  3. Citrix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List:
Virtual networking terms

A
  1. Virtual local area network (VLAN)
  2. Virtual area network (VAN)
  3. Virtual private network (VPN)
  4. Virtual machine (VM)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

List:
Virtual networking devices

A
  1. Virtual switch (vSwitch)
  2. Virtual router (vRouter)
  3. Virtual firewall appliance (VFA)
  4. Virtual machine monitor/hypervisor (VMM/hypervisor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Define:
Virtual network

A

A network comprising virtual and physical devices, enabling efficient deployment and management of network services and resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define:
Virtual switch (vSwitch)

A

Software that facilitates communication between virtual machines by checking data packets before forwarding them to a destination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define:
Virtual router (vRouter)

A

A software-based function replicating a physical router, providing flexibility to move routing functions within a network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Define:
Virtual firewall appliance (VFA)

A

Software acting as a network firewall, providing packet filtering and monitoring for virtual environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define:
Virtual local area network (VLAN)

A

A logical partitioning of a physical LAN, enabling several physical LANs to function as a single network or vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define:
Virtual area network (VAN)

A

A virtual LAN running on a physical LAN, enabling communication between guest virtual machines on separate physical hosts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define:
Virtual private network (VPN)

A

A secure tunnel over another network, connecting multiple remote endpoints, with multipoint VPNs connecting more than two endpoints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define:
Hypervisor

A

Software, firmware, or hardware creating and running virtual machines by managing the virtual platform and guest OS execution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define:
Internal network virtualization

A

The use of software containers or pseudo-interfaces to emulate a physical network, improving efficiency by isolating applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Define:
External network virtualization

A

The combination or segmentation of LANs to create virtual networks, improving efficiency and flexibility across large networks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Acronym:
VLAN

A

Virtual Local Area Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acronym:
VAN

A

Virtual Area Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acronym:
VPN

A

Virtual Private Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acronym:
VMM

A

Virtual Machine Monitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

List:
Characteristics of cloud computing

A
  1. Delivery of common business applications via web services
  2. Connection over the internet or a LAN
  3. No end-user knowledge of physical infrastructure needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List:
Types of clouds

A
  1. Public cloud
  2. Private cloud
  3. Community cloud
  4. Hybrid cloud
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

List:
Cloud computing service models

A
  1. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
  2. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  3. Software as a Service (SaaS)
  4. Security as a Service (SECaaS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List:
Cloud security risk reduction actions

A
  1. Zero Trust
  2. Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)
  3. Segregate centrally stored data
  4. Patches Mamagemnt
  5. Service management
  6. Security monitoring
  7. Encryption
  8. Penetration testing
  9. Comply with regulatory measures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List:
Advantages of Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)

A
  1. Workstation hardware costs
  2. Centralized data protection and backup
  3. Remote access
  4. Fast snapshots deploy
  5. No lost devices
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define:
Cloud computing

A

The provision of software, data access, computation, and storage services via the internet without requiring end-user knowledge of physical infrastructure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define:
Public cloud

A

A cloud accessible by anyone, with resources made available by a service provider, often for free or with a fee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define:
Private cloud

A

A cloud restricted to a single organization, hosted internally or by a third party, with secure, exclusive access to resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Define:
Hybrid cloud

A

A combination of public, private, and community cloud resources, integrating their functionalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define:
Security as a Service (SECaaS)

A

A cloud model providing security services such as authentication, anti-virus, intrusion detection, and penetration testing, integrated into a corporate infrastructure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Define:
Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

A

A tool or service ensuring communication and access to cloud services comply with organizational security policies and procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define:
Attack surface

A

All points at which a malicious threat actor could attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in a system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Define:
Supply chain attack

A

An attack where a threat actor infiltrates a target indirectly through vulnerabilities in its supply chain, such as cloud service providers or hardware vendors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Define:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)

A

A virtualization method hosting user desktops on data center hardware, allowing access via thin clients with enhanced security and flexibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Acronym:
IaaS

A

Infrastructure as a Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Acronym:
PaaS

A

Platform as a Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Acronym:
SaaS

A

Software as a Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Acronym:
SECaaS

A

Security as a Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Acronym:
CASB

A

Cloud Access Security Broker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

List:
Measures for securing cloud storage

A
  1. Implement security controls like in physical datacenters
  2. Use data classification policies
  3. Assign information to storage, handling, and access categories
  4. Assign security classifications based on sensitivity and criticality
  5. Use tools to securely dispose of data when no longer needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

List:
Advantages of cloud storage

A
  1. Pay only for storage used
  2. Cuts energy consumption by up to 70%
  3. Offers off-premises, on-premises, or hybrid storage options
  4. Provides intrinsic storage availability and data protection
  5. Shifts storage maintenance tasks to the provider
  6. Allows VM image transfer between cloud and on-premises locations
  7. Serves as a natural disaster backup with globally distributed servers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define:
Cloud storage

A

A data storage model provided by a third party as a service, utilizing distributed resources to offer redundancy, durability, and scalability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define:
Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB)

A

A gatekeeper that enforces security policies on cloud storage, focusing on visibility, compliance, access control, encryption, and loss prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Define:
Federated storage cloud architecture

A

A cloud storage design where distributed resources act as one unified system for redundancy and fault tolerance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Define:
Object storage architecture

A

A cloud storage system with intrinsic availability and data protection, ideal for reducing costs and effort in managing availability and recovery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

List:
Mobile device connection types

A
  1. Cellular
  2. WiFi
  3. Bluetooth
  4. NFC
  5. ANT
  6. Infrared
  7. USB
  8. SATCOM (satellite)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

List:
Mobile device security considerations

A
  1. Device content management
  2. Remote wipe
  3. Geofencing
  4. Geolocation management
  5. Screen lock with passwords
  6. Push notification management
  7. Password storage and management
  8. Biometrics
  9. Full device encryption
60
Q

List:
Application management considerations

A
  1. Rooting/jailbreaking/sideloading
  2. Flashing custom firmware
  3. Carrier unlocking
  4. OTA firmware and app updates
  5. Camera usage and geolocation in pictures
  6. SMS/MMS protocols
  7. Connection to external media
  8. USB OTG
  9. Microphone usage for recording
  10. Tethering
61
Q

List:
Security mechanisms for iOS apps

A
  1. Sandboxed apps
  2. Digital signatures from Apple or certified third parties
  3. Encryption APIs for app data (AES, RC4, 3DES)
62
Q

List:
Security mechanisms for Windows RT apps

A
  1. Modules must be digitally signed by Microsoft
  2. Anti-buffer-overflow memory restrictions
  3. Data Execution Prevention (DEP)
  4. Address Space Layout Randomization (ASLR)
  5. SafeSEH and sacrificial canary values
63
Q

List:
Best practices for mobile app security

A
  1. Use apps only from reputable sources
  2. Avoid jailbreaking or sideloading apps
  3. Use app whitelisting via MDM solutions
64
Q

Define:
Geofencing

A

Restricting a mobile device to a particular geographical area.

65
Q

Define:
Credential managemen

A

The ability to store usernames and passwords for various resources, enabling automatic login to network resources or websites.

66
Q

Define:
App whitelisting

A

The process of defining specific apps that are allowed on a device, often enforced using mobile device management (MDM) solutions.

67
Q

Define:
Geo-tagging

A

The embedding of GPS coordinates within files, such as images or videos, which can pose privacy and security risks.

68
Q

Define:
Sideloading

A

The process of installing apps from third-party app stores or websites instead of official app stores.

69
Q

Acronym:
NFC

A

Near Field Communication

70
Q

Acronym:
ANT

A

Adaptive Network Topology

71
Q

Acronym:
MDM

A

Mobile Device Management

72
Q

Acronym:
OTA

A

Over-the-Air

73
Q

List:
Mobile device security settings options

A
  1. Manually configure security settings on each device
  2. Distribute security settings via configuration profiles for iOS
  3. Use an MDM solution to push security policies over a network
74
Q

List:
Operating systems supported by Windows Intune

A
  1. Apple iOS 8.0 and later
  2. Mac OS X 10.9 and later
  3. Windows > 8.1
  4. Google Android 4.0
75
Q

List:
Windows Intune configurations

A
  1. Intune Standalone (cloud-only)
  2. Hybrid MDM with Configuration Manager
76
Q

List:
Windows Intune management portals

A
  1. Account Portal
  2. Admin Portal
  3. Company Portal
77
Q

List:
Tasks for configuring Windows Intune

A
  1. Add Intune users
  2. Define Intune policies
  3. Manage users and groups
  4. Enroll computers
  5. Enroll mobile devices
78
Q

Define:
Windows Intune

A

A cloud-based MDM solution from Microsoft that enables remote management and security for mobile devices and Windows systems.

79
Q

Define:
Intune Standalone

A

A cloud-only deployment of Windows Intune managed via a web console accessible over the internet.

80
Q

Define:
Hybrid MDM with Configuration Manager

A

A deployment combining Windows Intune’s MDM capabilities with Configuration Manager for content and device administration.

81
Q

Define:
Apple Push Notification Service (APNs)

A

A service required for managing iOS devices through MDM solutions, enabling notifications and enrollment actions.

82
Q

Acronym:
MDM

A

Mobile Device Management

83
Q

Acronym:
APNs

A

Apple Push Notification Service

84
Q

Acronym:
EMS

A

Enterprise Management + Security

85
Q

List:
Functions of Mobile Device Management (MDM)

A
  1. Track the device
  2. Push apps and updates
  3. Manage security settings (e.g., lock screens, passwords)
  4. Remotely wipe the device
86
Q

List:
Functions of Mobile Application Management (MAM)

A
  1. Install and uninstall apps remotely
  2. Update apps as needed
  3. Limit app functionality as needed
87
Q

List:
Device types managed by Unified Endpoint Management (UEM)

A
  1. Workstations
  2. Printers
  3. Mobile devices
  4. IoT devices
  5. Wearable devices
88
Q

List:
Phases in the Intune Application Life Cycle

A
  1. Add
  2. Deploy
  3. Configure
  4. Protect
  5. Retire
89
Q

List:
App deployment and update methods

A
  1. App catalog
  2. Self-service portal
  3. Remote management
90
Q

Define:
Mobile Device Management (MDM)

A

A solution that allows IT administrators to remotely manage and enforce policies on mobile devices, focusing on the device itself.

91
Q

Define:
Mobile Application Management (MAM)

A

A solution that manages applications on mobile devices, enabling control over app installation, updates, and functionality.

92
Q

Define:
Enterprise Mobility Management (EMM)

A

A solution combining MDM and MAM to manage both device hardware and applications, addressing challenges of diverse device ecosystems.

93
Q

Define:
Unified Endpoint Management (UEM)

A

A comprehensive solution that combines traditional device management and enterprise mobility management to manage all endpoint types in a single system.

94
Q

Define:
App catalog

A

A method that defines the apps users can and cannot use, assigning apps to users or devices via groups for streamlined management.

95
Q

Define:
MAM-WE

A

A Mobile Application Management configuration allowing app and data protection on devices enrolled with third-party EMM providers.

96
Q

Define:
Conditional access (in Intune)

A

Access control based on app protection policies, restricting user actions like copying data or installing apps on rooted devices.

97
Q

Acronym:
MAM

A

Mobile Application Management

98
Q

Acronym:
EMM

A

Enterprise Mobility Management

99
Q

Acronym:
UEM

A

Unified Endpoint Management

100
Q

Acronym:
MAM-WE

A

Mobile Application Management Without Enrollment

101
Q

List:
BYOD security issues

A
  1. Malware propagation
  2. Loss of sensitive data control
  3. Malicious insider attacks
  4. Device management
  5. Support responsibilities
102
Q

List:
Deployment model alternatives to BYOD

A
  1. Corporate-owned device
  2. Corporate-owned, personally enabled (COPE)
  3. Choose your own device (CYOD)
  4. Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)
103
Q

Define:
Malware propagation (BYOD issue)

A

The risk of infected user devices spreading malware when connected to the organization’s network.

104
Q

Define:
Loss of sensitive data control (BYOD issue)

A

The risk of sensitive organizational data being copied to personal devices and exposed due to weak security, theft, or malware.

105
Q

Define:
Malicious insider attacks (BYOD issue)

A

Threats posed by users intentionally misusing personal devices to steal or capture sensitive information.

106
Q

Define:
Device management (BYOD issue)

A

The challenge of defining responsibility for updates, anti-malware, and overall maintenance of personal devices used on-site.

107
Q

Define:
Support (BYOD issue)

A

The need to address who provides support for personal devices and apps used for organizational purposes.

108
Q

Define:
Corporate-owned device model

A

A strategy where the company provides devices, enabling greater control and monitoring of security while restricting usage to workplace purposes.

109
Q

Define:
Corporate-owned, personally enabled (COPE) model

A

A deployment model allowing employees to use company-owned devices for both corporate and personal purposes while maintaining strong security controls.

110
Q

Define:
Choose your own device (CYOD) model

A

A strategy offering employees a limited selection of corporate-owned devices, balancing user choice with enhanced security measures.

111
Q

Define:
Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI)

A

A technology enabling mobile devices to connect to a virtualized desktop, enhancing security and data protection by processing data on central servers.

112
Q

Acronym:
BYOD

A

Bring Your Own Device

113
Q

Acronym:
COPE

A

Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled

114
Q

Acronym:
CYOD

A

Choose Your Own Device

115
Q

Acronym:
VDI

A

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure

116
Q

List:
Common smart home appliances

A
  1. Refrigerators
  2. Dishwashers
  3. Microwaves
117
Q

List:
Security steps for embedded devices

A
  1. Regularly update firmware manually (if supported)
  2. Segment the network using VLANs
  3. Encrypt all network communications
118
Q

Define:
SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition systems are specialized computers that gather, analyze, and manage industrial automation equipment.

119
Q

Define:
Real-time operating system (RTOS)”

A

An OS designed to serve real-time applications with strict time constraints, often critical to entire system operations.

120
Q

Define:
System on a Chip (SoC)

A

An integrated circuit that includes all typical computer system components, commonly used in hobbyist projects like Raspberry Pi.

121
Q

Define:
Multi-function display (MFD)

A

A configurable screen with buttons used to display and interact with data, commonly found on airplanes, helicopters, and ships.

122
Q

Define:
Voice over IP (VoIP)

A

A protocol optimized for transmitting voice data over packet-switched IP networks, allowing phone calls through the internet.

123
Q

Define:
Field Programmable Gate Array (FPGA)

A

An integrated circuit configured post-manufacture by the customer using a hardware description language (HDL).

124
Q

Define:
Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV)

A

Aircraft that operate without a human pilot onboard, used for military, search and rescue, weather monitoring, and recreation.

125
Q

Define:
Arduino

A

An open-source hardware and software platform for building digital devices and interactive objects, featuring single-board microcontrollers.

126
Q

Acronym:
SCADA

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

127
Q

Acronym:
RTOS

A

Real-Time Operating System

128
Q

Acronym:
SoC

A

System on a Chip

129
Q

Acronym:
MFD

A

Multi-Function Display

130
Q

Acronym:
FPGA

A

Field Programmable Gate Array

131
Q

Acronym:
VoIP

A

Voice over IP”

132
Q

List:
Common email threats

A
  1. Virus
  2. Spam
  3. Open SMTP relay abuse
  4. Phishing
133
Q

List:
Best practices for controlling spam

A
  1. Enable spam filters on clients and email servers
  2. Enable antivirus scanning for attachments
  3. Disable preview screens in email clients
  4. Avoid clicking unsubscribe links in unsolicited emails
  5. Install server-level anti-spam software
  6. Avoid posting full email addresses on the web
134
Q

List:
Protocols for mitigating phishing and spam

A
  1. Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
  2. DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)
  3. Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance (DMARC)
135
Q

List:
Functions provided by S/MIME and PGP

A
  1. Authentication
  2. Message integrity
  3. Non-repudiation through digital signatures
  4. Privacy through encryption
136
Q

Define:
SPF (Sender Policy Framework)

A

An email authentication method that verifies the sender’s IP address against a list of authorized IPs published in the DNS TXT records of the sender’s domain.

137
Q

Define:
DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail)

A

A protocol that uses digital signatures to verify the integrity and authenticity of email messages by checking the signature against a DKIM record in the sender’s DNS.

138
Q

Define:
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance)

A

A protocol that uses SPF and DKIM checks to define rules for handling emails and provides reporting on unauthorized email activity.

139
Q

Define:
S/MIME

A

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, a protocol that uses X.509 certificates for email encryption and digital signatures to ensure authentication, integrity, and privacy.

140
Q

Define:
PGP

A

Pretty Good Privacy, a system for email encryption and digital signatures that uses either a web of trust or trust signatures for certificate validation.

141
Q

Acronym:
SPF

A

Sender Policy Framework

142
Q

Acronym:
DKIM

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail

143
Q

Acronym:
DMARC

A

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance

144
Q

Acronym:
S/MIME

A

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

145
Q

Acronym:
PGP

A

Pretty Good Privacy

Security+ (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions